Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

M11 > Exam Questions > Flashcards

Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which direction do floor beams lay?

A

Along the fuselage length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens to the horizontal stabiliser if the aircraft’s centre of gravity moves forward?

A

The leading edge of the stab moves down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In regards to air-con, what is the pressure regulator known as?

A

Bleed valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In regards to air-con, what regulates the pressurisation of the cabin?

A

Outflow valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the level of advisory I.A.W instrument systems?

A

Level C/1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What frequency is the right lobe I.A.W avionics systems

A

150Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What frequency is the upper lobe I.A.W avionics systems?

A

90Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the angle of the white lights I.A.W 11.14?

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does mode S on the transponder do?

A

The transponder can be activated selectively, can transmit address and identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does mode A on a transponder do?

A

Can only transmit identification codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the main function of a Stabilator?

A

Eliminate Mach tuck caused by a shock wave formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the purpose of vortex generators?

A

They provide the boundary layer with additional energy to prevent flow separation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the effect of pulling the control column rearwards?

A

Elevators deflect upward, aircraft nose up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do the ailerons respond if the pilot rolls the aircraft to the left?

A

The aileron on the left wing moves up and the aileron on the right wing moves down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does the area rule affect an aircraft’s transonic flight performance?

A

It reduces wave drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 2 types of shock waves that are formed in supersonic flight?

A

Normal and Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens to air temperature behind a shock wave?

A

The temperature rises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If one aircraft structural component fails, another component will assume the failed member, what is this called?

A

Fail safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A structure in which multiple attachment points share the load instead of one attachment point is an example of?

A

Fatigue sharing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The rear pressure bulkhead would separate which zones?

A

200-300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What load is carried by longerons?

A

Primary bending loads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 2 main types of construction of a fuselage structure on modern aircraft?

A

Monocoque and semi-monocoque construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 3 main areas of the wing structure?

A

Centre, left and right wing boxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What creates a smooth joint between fin and fuselage?

A

Dorsal fin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the rudder attached to?

A

Rear of vertical fin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When measuring the deflection angle of the elevator, and before the elevator can be in zero position, what is the position of the moveable stabiliser?

A

The moveable stabiliser must be in the moveable position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Following repairs to the flight control surface, adjustments would need to be made to achieve what?

A

Static balancing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the purpose of a pylon?

A

To attach the engine to the airframe/wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many attachment points does the pylon have to the wing?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which supply sources are used to supply the AC system?

A

APU, Engines and Ground powered air supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the role of the pneumatic controller?

A

Monitor pressure and temperature, to register leaks and to monitor the operation of the pneumatic components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does a vapour-cycle machine cool the pneumatic flow?

A

A special cooling fluid is compressed and expanded in a closed circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The recirculation system…

A

Recirculates cabin air to reduce the pack airflow

34
Q

In an ideal situation, what is the best condition for the aircraft structure with regard to pressurisation?

A

The best condition for aircraft structure would be no pressurisation during flight

35
Q

Why would an OUTFLOW valve have 2 AC motors and 1 DC motor?

A

Each pressure controller can control its own AC motor and if AC is not available the DC motor can control the valve

36
Q

What 2 conditions can cause an equipment cooling system override operation to happen?

A

Component failure or smoke detected

37
Q

What will happen if cabin altitude reaches 15000ft?

A

Outflow valves automatically closes

38
Q

What type of gyro would be used to indicate the aircraft’s altitude?

A

Vertical gyro

39
Q

Modern flight data recorders…

A

Store the flight data from the last 25 hours of flight for accident investigation purposes

40
Q

Vertical gyros have…

A

3 degrees of freedom with a vertical spin axis

41
Q

What does the airspeed indicator indicate?

A

It shows the indicated airspeed (IAS) which is the reference for all aerodynamic parameters e.g. lift and drag

42
Q

What does the inner loop of an auto pilot control?

A

It controls the altitude of the aircraft and is always active

43
Q

Which signal is used to dampen Dutch roll oscillations?

A

Yaw rate

44
Q

Which method is used to disconnect the auto-throttle system?

A

Pushing either throttle lever disconnect button

45
Q

What is the VHF emergancy frequency?

A

121.5MHz

46
Q

Which statement is true for ACARS?

A

It is used for manual and automatic data transfers between the aircraft and the ground in both directions

47
Q

What does the 1KHz tone indicate on a HF system?

A

It indicates that the antenna coupler is tuning to the newly selected frequency

48
Q

Which priority sequence is used in a Passenger Address (PA) amplifier?

A
  1. Cockpit crew
  2. Cabin crew
  3. Pre-recorded announcements
  4. Boarding music
49
Q

How does DME measure distance?

A

The time between the interrogation and reply signal is proportional to the distance of the station

50
Q

Which statement correctly describes the VOR principle?

A

The VOR receiver calculates the magnetic bearing from 2 signals transmitted by a ground station

51
Q

What is the purpose of the 2 antennas fitted in an ADF system?

A

2 antenna signals are required to determine the correct direction

52
Q

What indicates localiser deviation?

A

HSI and ADI

53
Q

Why is an integral grey collar fitted to certain CBs?

A

To indicate that they must be pulled by maintenance personnel during maintenance work

54
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the hot battery bus bar?

A

It is always directly connected to the battery

55
Q

Why is an integral orange collar fitted to certain CBs?

A

To indicate that they must be pulled by flight crew in certain abnormal situations

56
Q

Why must you never attempt to carry out too many APU starts immediately after one another?

A

It will overheat the battery and damage it

57
Q

What should you do if the electrolyte used in a Ni-Cd battery comes into contact with human skin?

A

Rinse it immediately making sure you only use clean water

58
Q

What does OVERDRIVE mean in relation to CSD operation?

A

The outspeed speed of the CSD is faster than the input speed

59
Q

What does UNDERDRIVE mean in relation to CSD operation?

A

The input speed of the CSD is faster than the output speed

60
Q

What is the main source of electrical power while the AC is on ground?

A

External power

61
Q

What is the rudder attached to?

A

Vertical stab trailing edge

62
Q

How many booster pumps are required per engine?

A

2

63
Q

What is the size of a lightning hole?

A

1/4 inches

64
Q

What is the distance between frames?

A

60 cm

65
Q

What is the purpose of stringers?

A

Carry stresses induced by the fuselage

66
Q

What is the sweep angle on modern jets?

A

30 degrees

67
Q

What is the percentage that a plain flap increases lift by?

A

55%

68
Q

What is the percentage that a slat increases lift by?

A

35%

69
Q

What is the percentage that a split edge flap increases lift by?

A

65%

70
Q

What is the percentage that a slotted flap increases lift by?

A

70%

71
Q

What is the percentage that a fowler flap increases lift by?

A

95%

72
Q

What is the minimum amount of hydraulic systems required on an AC?

A

2

73
Q

What is cable tension regulated by?

A

A cable tension regulator

74
Q

What are rudder pedals used for?

A

Rudder, brakes and nose gear steering

75
Q

Which mode of refuelling can be carried out from the cockpit?

A

Automatic pressure refuelling

76
Q

What does the jettison system do?

A

Dumps fuel in case of an emergency

77
Q

What does the spring loaded check valve do in regards to refuelling?

A

Used to prevent leakage on refuelling coupling

78
Q

What does a check valve do IAW hydraulics?

A

To allow fluid to only flow in one direction

79
Q

What will be present on the fuel leak monitor if there is no leak?

A

Nothing

80
Q

Where is the nacelle intake drain located?

A

In the lower wing section

81
Q

What unit are hydraulics measured in on aircraft?

A

PSI

82
Q

What is the purpose of a leak measurement solenoid valve in regard to the hydraulic system?

A

Shuts down hydraulic fluid when a leak is detected, closes the supply line

M11 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions