Anesthesia Adjuncts (Exam V) Flashcards

1
Q

β agonism results in activation of _____ which then produces _______.

A

Adenylyl Cyclase (AC)

cAMP

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2
Q

Does Ca⁺⁺ influx or efflux occur during β agonism?

A

Influx

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3
Q

What type of receptors are β receptors?

A

GPCR

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4
Q

What types of β receptors are there and where are they primarily located?

A
  • β1 - Heart
  • β2 - Lungs
  • β3 - Fat/Muscle
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5
Q

Chronic administration of β blockers results in what effect on receptors?

A

Receptor upregulation (aka ↑ # of receptors)

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6
Q

After β receptor desensitization from prolonged catecholamine exposure, what drug class can restore receptor responsiveness?

A

β-blockers

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7
Q

How do β blockers protect myocytes from perioperative ischemia?

A

By ↓O₂ demand on the heart

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8
Q

T/F. β blockers will potentiate renin release.

A

false. β blockers will inhibit renin release

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9
Q

How will β blockers affect the cardiac foci action potential?

A

Decrease the slope
Prolong Phase 4 (rate of spontaneous depolarization)

↓ dysrhythmias during ischemia and reperfusion.

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10
Q

How will β blockers affect diastolic perfusion time?

A

β blockers will increase diastolic perfusion time.

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11
Q

What type of HTN is a possible indication for β blocker therapy?

A

Essential Hypertension

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12
Q

What are other Indications for B blocker therapy?

A

1.Excessive SNS stimulation (acute cocaine ingestion)
2. Thyrotoxicosis
3.Cardiac dysrhythmias
4. SCIP

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13
Q

What is SCIP?
Describe the protocol and its goals.

A
  • Surgical Care Improvement Protocol
  • β-blockers must be given within 24 hrs of surgery for patients at risk for cardiac ischemia and ones already on β-blocker therapy.
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14
Q

What does SCIP not say?

A

What BB do you give? and how much?

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15
Q

What were the three β1 selective agents discussed in lecture?

A
  • Atenolol (tenormin)
  • Metoprolol (lopressor)
  • Esmolol (breviblock)
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16
Q

tenormin is also known as

A

Atenolol

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17
Q

lopressor is also known as

A

Metoprolol

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18
Q

breviblock is also known as

A

Esmolol

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19
Q

Inderal is also known as

A

Propranolol

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20
Q

What percentage of β receptors in the myocardium are β1 ?

A

75%

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21
Q

Do cardio-selective β-blockers cause vasodilation?

A

No

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22
Q

What non-selective β-blocker has active metabolites and is generally shitty for anesthesia?

A

Propranolol is known as a prototypical antagonist.

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23
Q

Differentiate the clearance mechanisms of metoprolol and esmolol.

A
  • Metoprolol = Hepatic
  • Esmolol = Plasma hydrolysis
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24
Q

What is the clearance for Propranolol and atenolol?

A

Propranolol = Hepatic

Atenolol = Renal

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25
Q

What is the E 1/2 (hrs) for Atenolol?

A

6-7 hrs

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26
Q

Which two beta-selective agents are cleared Hepatically?

A

Propranolol and metoprolol

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26
Q

What are the IV dosages for Metoprolol, Atenolol, and Esmolol?

A

Metoprolol = 1 to 15 mg IV

Atenolol = 5 to 10 mg IV

Esmolol = 10 to 80 mg IV

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27
Q

Differentiate the E½ of metoprolol and esmolol.

A

Metoprolol E½ = 3-4 hours
Esmolol E½ = 9 minutes

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28
Q

When propanolol (Inderal) is given, what effect lasts longer, negative inotropy or chronotropy?

A

Negative chronotropy (bradycardia) lasts longer

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29
Q

What is a possible reason why the heart rate slowing effects of propanolol last longer than the negative inotropic effects?

A

Possible Division β1 sub-receptor types (ex. β1A, β1B, etc.)

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30
Q

Propanolol (Inderal) will decrease the clearance of which two important anesthetic drug classes?

A
  • Opioids
  • Amide LA’s
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31
Q

What drug is the most selective β1 antagonist?

A

Atenolol (Tenormin)

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32
Q

What are the three benefits of Atenolol (Tenormin)?

A
  1. Good for non-cardiac sx CAD patients (↓ complications for 2 years) Only dosed 1x/day
  2. No insulin-induced hypoglycemia
  3. Does not cross the BBB (less fatigue)
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33
Q

What is the dose for Atenolol (Tenormin)?

A

5mg q10min IV

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34
Q

What is the dose of metoprolol (Lopressor)?

A

1mg q5min (Given in 5mg “blocks”)

**practical implication: Most anesthesia providers start with 1-2 mg and titrate to effect up to 5mg.(Max = 15 mg)

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35
Q

What two formulations of metoprolol are there?

A
  • Metoprolol Succinate = One dose per day
  • Metoprolol Tartrate = multiple doses per day
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36
Q

What is the elimination half time of Metoprolol Tartrate?

A

2-3 hours (bid-qid dosing)

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37
Q

What is the elimination half time of Metoprolol succinate?

A

5-7 hours (qd dosing)

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38
Q

What β blocker would be used for treat intubation stimuli?

A

Esmolol (Brevibloc) -RAPID

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39
Q

What are the onset and offset of esmolol (Brevibloc)?

A

Onset: 5 min
Offset: 10-30min

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40
Q

What is the initial dose for esmolol?

A

20-30mg IV

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40
Q

How is esmolol metabolized?

A

via plasma esterases (cytosol)

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41
Q

Caution should be taken when giving esmolol (brevibloc) with which two conditions?
Why?

A
  • Cocaine and/or epinephrine
  • Can cause pulmonary edema and collapse
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42
Q

Are the effects of CCBs and β-blockers additive?

A

No, they are synergistic

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43
Q

Which drug prevents tachycardia and hypertension associated with intubation?

A

Esmolol and Fentanyl

44
Q

What two scenarios were given in class for a β1 selective indication over a non-selective β blocker?

A
  • DM: interferes with glycogenolysis and potentiates insulin
  • Airway: potentiates bronchospasm and ventilatory depression
45
Q

What volatile anesthetic will cause the most significant additive myocardial depression when combined with a β blocker?
The least with what gas?
Why does this not matter?

A
  • Enflurane = most significant additive depression
  • Isoflurane = least additive depression
  • Not significant between 1-2 MAC
46
Q

What 2ⁿᵈ messengers are potentiated by α1 agonism?

A

IP₃ → Ca⁺⁺ release from SR

47
Q

What occurs with α2 agonism?

A

↓ release of NorEpi from presynaptic nerve terminals (brainstem)

48
Q

Is phenylephrine primarily a venous constrictor or an arterial constrictor?

A

Venous constriction > arterial constriction

49
Q

Phenylephrine clinically mimics norepinephrine but is….

A

less potent and longer lasting. (indirectly releases a small amount of NorEpi)

50
Q

What is the normal dosing of phenylephrine?

A

100mcg/mL IV push

51
Q

Phenylephrine is used to treat hypotension from?

A

SNS blockade by regional anesthesia
inhaled/ injected anesthetics
very useful in CAD and Aortic stenosis… no tachycardia

52
Q

What adverse effect results from phenylephrine?
How is it resolved?

A
  • Reflex bradycardia
  • Stopping the drug
52
Q

What is the ratio of β to α blockade for Labetalol?

A

7:1 for IV form.

53
Q

Is Labetalol a selective β antagonist?

A

No! Labetalol is non-selective β and selective α1 antagonist

54
Q

Which of the following receptors does Labetalol antagonize?

A. α1
B. α2
C. β1
D. β2

A

A, C, and D

55
Q

What is the dose for labetalol?

A

2.5 - 5mg IV; 10mg max (d/t tachyphylaxis)
max effect of IV dose 5-10 min

56
Q

Which of the following drugs would you utilize for a post-carotid endarterectomy with a BP of 214/62 ?

Labetalol
Esmolol

A

Esmolol

Labetolol could drop the DBP too much.

57
Q

You have a patient scheduled for a CABG x4 and you realize he has not had his BB. Which BB will you administer? why?

A

Metoprolol
It is longer acting and protects the myocardium

58
Q

What are the effects of labetalol?

A

Lowers systemic BP by decreasing SVR (reflex tachycardia attenuated by beta-blockade)

59
Q

Which drug is an indirect acting sympathomimetic?

A

Ephedrine - evoke the release of NorEpi from postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings.

Releases NorEpi

60
Q

What are sympathomimetics most often used for?

A

Increase myocardial contractility
but mainly to increase systemic blood pressure

61
Q

What could you see as a side effect with sympathomimetic agents lacking B1 specificity?

A

They can cause intense vasoconstriction and reflex-mediated bradycardia.

62
Q

Explain the MOA of sympathomimetics?

A

They activate directly or indirectly beta or alpha-adrenergic GPCRs.
cAMP enhance calcium influx into the cytosol
actin and myosin interact more forcefully cross bridging

63
Q

What is the prototype catecholamine?

A

Epinephrine

63
Q

Ephedrine is used in sympathetic depression from?

A
  • inhaled/injected anesthetics
  • BP response much less intense; last 10x longer than epi.
64
Q

What is the IV push dose of epinephrine?
How long does it last?

A
  • 2-8 mcg IV bolus
  • 1-5 min
65
Q

What is the infusion dose of epinephrine for β2 effects?

A

1-2 mcg/min

66
Q

What is the infusion dose of epinephrine for β1 effects?

67
Q

What is the infusion dose of epinephrine for predominantly α effects?

A

10-20 mcg/min

68
Q

What catecholamine will have the greatest effect on heart rate and cardiac output?

A

Epinephrine

69
Q

What catecholamine will have the greatest effect on PVR?

A

Phenylephrine

70
Q

Which SNS agonist can be given IM?

A
  • Ephedrine IM 50mg
  • local vasoconstriction insufficient to delay uptake.
71
Q

Why does tachyphylaxis occur with ephedrine?

A

Ephedrine depletes NorEpi stores

72
Q

Is the BP response when giving ephedrine more or less intense than epinephrine?

A

Bp response much less intense; ephedrine lasts 10x longer than epi

73
Q

What is the preferred sympathomimetic for parturient patients?
Why?

A

Ephedrine (It doesn’t effect uterine blood flow and used in hypotension s/p Spontaneous abortion)

74
Q

How does phenylephrine compare to ephedrine in parturient patients?

A

Phenylephrine has similar effects but has the additional benefit of a higher umbilical pH in neonates.

75
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vasopressin?

A

Stimulation of vascular V1 receptors → arterial vasoconstriction

76
Q

What drug would be utilized for catecholamine-resistant hypotension?

A

Vasopressin

77
Q

What drug would be used for ACE-Inhibitor induced resistant hypotension?

A

Vasopressin

Resistant hypotension can occur with both ACEi and ARBs.

78
Q

Name a few side effects to look for when administering Vasopressin:

A

Coronary artery vasoconstriction
simulates GI smooth muscle (abd pain, N/V)
decreased platelet counts and antibody formation

79
Q

How does Nitric Oxide cause vasodilation?

In broad terms.

A

NO → GC → cGMP → Ca⁺⁺ inhibition entry into smooth muscle and increased uptake by endoplasmic reticulum.

80
Q

What is Nitric Oxide involved in? in terms of in the body?

A

CV tone relaxation
platelet regulation
CNS neurotransmitter
GI smooth muscle relaxation
Immune modulation
Pulmonary artery vasodilation

81
Q

Name two nitro-vasodilators discussed in lecture

A

Sodium nitroprusside
nitroglycerin

82
Q

What does Nitroprusside dissociate on contact with?
What is the result?

A

Dissociates on contact with oxyhemoglobin → methemoglobin, NO, and cyanide released.

83
Q

What does nitroprusside vasodilate?

A

Causes relaxation of arterial and venous vascular smooth muscle.

83
Q

What vasodilator absolutely requires arterial line monitoring and requires continuous administration?

A

Nitroprusside.

83
Q

What is the dose of Nitroprusside?

A

0.3mcg/kg/min titrated to 2 mcg/kg/min

83
Q

When is cyanide toxicity seen?

A

With higher IV doses of sodium nitroprusside (SNP)

Cyanide radical accumulates due to sulfur donor/methemoglobin exhaustion.

83
Q

When would you suspect cyanide toxicity?

A
  • Increasing dose of sodium nitroprusside (SNP) needed

-metabolic acidosis

  • increased mixed-venous sats (tissues are not using O2)
  • CNS dysfunction/change in LOC occurs.
84
Q

When is nitroprusside used?

A
  • production of controlled hypotensive surgeries (aortic, spine, pheochromocytoma)
  • Hypertensive emergencies (carotid surgery)
84
Q

How do Nitro-vasodilators work?

2 medications mentioned?

A

Decreasing SBP by: decreasing SVR….art vasodilators: treat effects of vasoconstriction.

Decrease venous return: venous dilator: alleviate pulmonary/systemic congestion.

Meds: sodium nitroprusside & Nitroglycerin

85
Q

Where does nitroglycerin work?

A
  • large coronary arteries (relaxation of arterial vascular smooth muscle (high doses))
  • Venous capacitance vessels (venous pooling)
86
Q

Does nitroprusside or nitroglycerin exhibit tachyphylaxis?

A

Nitroglycerin

87
Q

What is the nitroglycerin dose?

A

5 - 10 mcg/min infusion and titrate

88
Q

What are the indications for nitroglycerin?

A

-S Sphincter of Oddi spasm (during cholecystectomy/opioid induced)
-CControlled Hypotension (less potent than SNP)
-A Acute MI (relieves Pulm congestion, decreases O2 requirements, limits MI size)
-R Retained placenta

89
Q

How does hydralazine work?

A
  • ↓ Ca⁺⁺ release and systemic arterial vasodilation
  • can cause extreme hypotension and rebound tachycardia
90
Q

When does hydralazine onset/peak?
What is it’s half-life?

A
  • Peak/onset: peak plasma concentration 1 hr.
  • ½-life: 3-7 hours (not a great choice for us in the OR)
91
Q

What is the initial dose of hydralazine?

92
Q

What are the three categories of CCBs?
Where do each interact?

A
  • AV Node (Phenylalkylamines & Benzothiazepines)
  • Vasculature (Dihydropyrimidines)
92
Q

How does tachyphylaxis happen with nitroglycerin?

A
  • dose dependent and duration dependent (24 hrs)
  • limits vasodilation
  • drug-free intervals of 12- 15 hours reverse tolerance

Rebound ischemia? d/t tachyphylaxis and the abrupt cessation.

93
Q

Do CCB increase the speed of conduction?

A

No! they decrease the speed of conduction, mostly through the AV node

94
Q

How do CCBs generally work?

A

Bind and block VG-Ca⁺⁺ channels, thus ↓ Ca⁺⁺ influx. (L-type) = inhibits excitation-contraction coupling.

L-type Ca++ channels = found in cardiac myocytes, cardiac nodal tissue, and vascular smooth muscle.

94
Q

What is used for short-term control of HTN?

A

Nicardipine (Cardene)

95
Q

CCBs will ______ systemic blood pressure via peripheral vasodilation and ________ coronary blood flow.

A

decrease; increase

96
Q

Which CCB has the greatest coronary artery dilation and least myocardial depression?

A

Nicardipine (Cardene)

97
Q

What is the dose of nicardipine?

A

5mg/hr (2.5mg titration x 4 to max of 15mg/hr)
50% drug decrease 30 min after D/C

98
Q

What antihypertensive works primarily through altering venous capacitance?

A

Nitroglycerin

99
Q

Your end-stage COPD patient needs emergent blood pressure control in the ICU. Which of the following medications might worsen his PaO2 the most?

A

Sodium nitroprusside

100
Q

Your physician is closing the neck incision following an uneventful right CEA. you have reversed the muscle relaxant and the patient is spontaneously breathing at 20/min; BP 140/90 and climbing. Your 1st intervention is?

A

Give a narcotic (25 mcg fent then a longer-acting narcotic, maybe dilaudid or morphine)