Pre-Op and Post-Op Care Flashcards

1
Q

Ejection fraction under __% poses prohibitive cardiac risk for noncardiac operations.

A

35% (normal is 55%)

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2
Q

What is the worst single finding predicting high cardiac risk in surgery?

A

Goldman’s index of cardiac risk attributes the highest amount of points to:
jugular venous distention (evidence of CHF; 11 points)
If possible, treat with ACEI, BB, digitalis, and diuretics before surgery

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3
Q

What factors play into Goldman’s index of cardiac risk:

A

jugular venous distention (CHF=worst predictor), recent MI (within 6 months=next worse predictor), PVCs (5 or more per minute), non-sinus rhythm, age over 70, emergency surgery, aortic valvular stenosis/poor medical condition/surgery within chest or abdomen

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of increased pulmonary risk for surgery?

A

smoking

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5
Q

Cessation of smoking for ___ weeks and intensive respiratory therapy (physical therapy, expectorants, incentive spirometry, humidified air) should precede surgery

A

8 weeks

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6
Q

About 40% mortality is predictable with either bilirubin above ___, albumin below ___, prothrombin time above ___, or encephalopathy. 80-85% mortality if three or more exist, or with bilirubin alone above ___, albumin alone below ___, or blood ammonia above ____

A

40%:
bilirubin >2, albumin 16

80-85%:
bilirubin >4, albumin 150 mg/dL

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7
Q

Severe nutritional depletion is identified by loss of 20% body weight over a couple of months, serum albumin below ___, anergy to skin antigens, or serum transferrin less than ___.

Requires >5 days of preoperative nutritional support

A

albumin

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8
Q

Malignant hyperthermia develops shortly after onset of an anesthetic like

A

halothane or succinylcholine

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9
Q

Chills and temperature spike exceeding 104F 30-45 minutes into invasive procedure (such as instrumentation of the urinary tract) =

A

bacteremia. Blood cx x3 and empiric antibiotics

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10
Q

What are causes of postoperative fever (101-103F)?

A

1) wind (atelectasis, pneumonia)
2) water (UTI)
3) walking/weins (PE, deep venous thrombophlebitis)
4) wound infection, deep abcesses
5) wonder drugs (drug fever)

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11
Q

What is the treatment of atelectasis?

A

Improve ventilation! (deep breathing, postural drainage, incentive spirometry)

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12
Q
Which cause of post-op fever occurs on:
POD 1?
POD 3?
POD 5?
POD 7?
A
POD 1: atelectasis
POD 3: PNA, UTI
POD 5: deep vein thrombophlebitis
POD 7: wound infection, PE
POD 10-15: deep abscesses
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13
Q

Treatment of deep venous thrombophlebitis?

A

Anticoagulate with heparin with antibiotics

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14
Q

How can you distinguish between whether there is cellulitis or an abscess in a wound infection?

A

sonogram

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15
Q

What is the treatment of perioperative MI?

A

Emergency angioplasty and coronary stent; not clot busters!!!!

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16
Q

What is prevention of aspiration in intubations?

A

NPO and antacids before induction

17
Q

What is the treatment of aspiration?

A

Lavage and removal of acid and particulate matter with help of bronchoscopy, followed by bronchodilators and respiratory support (steroids don’t help)

18
Q

Patients withdrawing from alcohol get confused, have hallucinations, and become combatative around which POD?

A

2-3. Treat with IV benzo

19
Q

In the case of zero urinary output, what do you do?

A

Usually a mechanical problem! Look for plugged or kinked catheter

20
Q

Paralytic ileus is prolonged by which electrolyte abnormality?

A

Hypokalemia

21
Q

What was probably assumed to be paralytic ileus not resolving after 5-7 days is most likely actually due to

A

early mechanical bowel obstruction because of adhesions

22
Q

Diagnosis of mechanical bowel obstruction with adhesions is confirmed with an abdominal CT scan showing:

What is the treatment?

A

a transition point between proximal dilated bowel and distal collapsed bowel at the site of the obstruction; surgical intervention is needed to correct the problem

23
Q

T/F: Ogilivie syndrome does not follow abdominal surgery.

A

True! Instead, it is classically seen in sedentary patients (Alzheimer, nursing home) who have become further immobilized owing to surgery elsewhere (broken hip, prostatic surgery).

24
Q

T/F: Patients with Ogilivie syndrome have a tense, but not tender, abdomen.

A

True

25
Q

What is the management of Ogilivie syndrome?

A

1) fluid and electrolyte correction
2) r/o mechanical obstruction (radiologically or by endoscopy)
3) IV neostigmine to restore colonic motility; long rectal tube is also commonly used

26
Q

What is the difference between ehiscence and evisceration?

A

Dehiscence = large amounts of pink salmon-colored fluid leave wound (peritoneal fluid); no need for emergency surgery, but reoperation will be needed to avoid or treat ventral hernia

Evisceration: skin opens up and abdominal contents rush out (not just fluid). Bowel must be covered with large sterile dressings soaked in NS; emergency abdominal closure is required

27
Q

Fistulas where in the GI tract are more dangerous: distal or proximal?

A

proximal

28
Q

Nature will close a fistula as long as there isn’t _________ to prevent it.

A

FRIENDS!

foreign body, radiation, inflammation/IBD/infection, epithelization of the tract, neoplasm, distal obstruction, steroids

29
Q

Every 3 mEq/L that serum sodium concentration is above 140 represents roughly ___ mL of water lost.

A

1000 mL! = 1 L

30
Q

Therapy for slow-developing hypernatremia requires fluid repletion with which fluid? Fast-developing hypernatremia can be corrected with…

A

slow: D5 1/2NS (rather than D5W)
acute: D5 1/3 NS or even D5W

31
Q

The safe “speed limit” of IV potassium administration is ___ mEq/h

A

10

32
Q

What provides the “quickest protection” against hyperkalemia?

A

calcium gluconate

33
Q

What is the treatment of metabolic alkalosis?

A

Abundant intake of potassium chloride will allow kidney to correct hte problem