XII: Chapter 11- Biotechnology: principles and processes Flashcards

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1
Q

Name the two core techniques that enabled birth of biotechnology.

A

Genetic engineering and bioprocess engineering

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2
Q

The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid of

A

Salmonella typhimurium

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3
Q

Which scientists first accomplished the construction of artificial recombinant DNA molecule and when?

A

Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972

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4
Q

When were the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli isolated?

A

1963

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5
Q

What did the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli isolated do?

A

One of them added methyl groups to the DNA and the other cut DNA.

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6
Q

Which was the first restriction endonuclease to be isolated/

A

Hind II

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7
Q

How many restriction nucleases have been identified and from how many strains of bacteria?

A

900 restriction nucleases from 230 strains of bacteria

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8
Q

Which sequence is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA?

A

Origin of replication

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9
Q

How many recognition sites should a (recombinant technology) vector preferably have?

A

1

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10
Q

In heat shock method of making host competent in genetic engineering, at which temperature are the host cells placed with rDNA after keeping them on ice?

A

42 celsius

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11
Q

What are primers used in PCR technology?

A

Small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA.

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12
Q

In how many cycles of PCR can DNA be amplified a billion times?

A

30 cycles

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13
Q

What quantities of culture can a bioreactor hold?

A

100 to 1000L

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14
Q

Detergents are added during purification of DNA to

A

Break plasma membrane

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15
Q

Which compound is required for the functioning of restriction endonuclease II?

A

Mg2+

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16
Q

Which palindromic sequence does BamHI recognise?

A

GGATCC

17
Q

Which palindromic sequence does Hind III recognise?

A

AAGCTT

18
Q

Sal-I restriction endonuclease is extracted from which microbE?

A

Streptomyces albus

19
Q

Alu-I restriction endonuclease is extracted from which microbe?

A

Arthrobacter luteus

20
Q

What is the function of rop in plasmid vectors?

A

Codes for proteins required for replication of plasmids

21
Q

How many cloning sites does pBR322 have?

A

8

22
Q

What do the letters stand for in pBR322?

A

p- plasmid
B- Bolyver
R- Rodrigues
322- experiment number

23
Q

What is the maximum insert size for plasmid vector?

A

15kb

24
Q

WHat is the maximum insert size for lambda phage vector?

A

23kb

25
Q

What is the maximum insert size for M-13 phage vector?

A

25-35 kb

26
Q

Cosmid vector is obtained from

A

Cos site of lambda phage

27
Q

What is the maximum insert size for BAC vector?

A

200-300 kb

BAC- Bacterial artificial chromosome.

28
Q

What is the maximum insert size for YAC vector?

A

1000 kb

YAC- yeast artificial chromosomes

29
Q

What is the maximum insert size for HAC vector?

A

> 1000 kb

HAC- human artificial chromosome

30
Q

Which type of electrophoresis is used for the separation of proteins?

A

Proteins- SDS PAGE (Sodium dodecyl sulphate polyacryl acryl amide gel electrophoresis

31
Q

What is used as a dye in SDS PAGE?

A

Bromophenol blue + toluidine blue

32
Q

At which end of target DNA do primers attach in PCR?

A

3’ end

33
Q

Which vector is made of single stranded DNA?

A

M-13 phage