Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Uworld > Wrong Answers > Flashcards

Wrong Answers Flashcards

1
Q

folate deficiency in dividing cells causes what

A

dna breaks and apoptosis due to imparied thymidine synthesis see page 79 FA SUPPLEMENT THYMIDINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what to supplement in folate deficient dividing cells

A

thymidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

fibrillin 1 deficiency leads to

A

marfan synfrome. it acts as scaffold for elastin and abudant in zonular fibres of the lens periosteum and aortic media. cause of death mosly CVS like aortic rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

malignant tumors of parotid fland cause

A

ipsilateral facial droop by involving facial nerve. it exits stylomastoid foramen and inn muscles of expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

intracranial hemorrhage in new born due to

A

vit k deficiency clotting factOrs gamma carboxylation if vit k given im then maybe due to trauma or abuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where does class switching of IG by B cells happens and how

A

germinal center of lymph nodes. initiall all igm later igg. cd40 b cell with cd40l of t cell. see page 195 and notes on B cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how do osteocytes connect to each other

A

long intracanalicular processes via GAP JUNCTION see note attached to pag 438

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which aortic arch does carotid artery come from

A

3rd see page 569

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does strep pneumoniae become virulent

A

TRANSFORMATION. picks up Dna after cell lysis and acquires capsule to become encapsulated and virulent. same with shine bact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

K channels in pancreatic b cells inactivated by

A

Atp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

increasing maternal age resuLTS in which chr. abnormality

A

NONDISJUNCTION downs 21 edward 18 patau 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

anti histone and anti nuclear antibodies seen in

A

Drug induced lupus due to SHIPP drugs. mostly hydralazine and procainamide. anti histone specific, anti dsdna with sle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

rash on cheeks followed by lacy reticular rash on whole body. which blood cell is attacked

A

erythrocyte precursor cells of bone marrow. parvovirus b19. erythema infectiosum. attach to blood group P antigen called globoside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

obesity, menstrual irregularities and hirsutism with infertility

A

PCOS diff from CS pg 591

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

clinical features of acute salicylate intoxication

A

fever tinnitus tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ABG in salicylate intox

A

mixed resp alkalosis met acidosis. PH n range as both processes opp. Paco2 is lower than expected compensation value d/t resp alk and hco3 is low d/t met alk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

neurokinin 1 receptor clinically useful how

A

present in area postrema 4th ventricle (CTZ) and NTS in medulla resp for vomiting. used when ondasetron 5ht3 and D2 antagonists like Metoclopramide are innefective. Drug is Aprepitant which blocks these NK1 receptors and prevents substance P release see notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

rat poison toxicity rx

A

contains superwarfarin treat with FFP plus Vit K to reverse anticoagulant activity leading to GI bleed and ecchymoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rash on leg tt with Antibiotics 3 weeks back followed by eDema proteinuria hematuria

A

PSGN with deposition of immune complxes on epithelial side on BM as humps. lumpy bumpy and starry sky app. conplexes are igg igm and c3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hepatocytes With epinephrine metabolites

A

DUBIN JOHNSON syndrome due to defect in canalicular.transport leads to BLACK LIVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

bee sting followed by central pallor and peripheral erythema

A

wheal abd flare type 1 HSN due to histamine protease and leukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hyperammonemia with elevated urinary orotic acid

A

Ornithine Trans Carbamoylase deficiency. diff from UMP synthase deficiency where there is no Hyperammonemia But megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

types of dissociative disordera

A

dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization derealization disorder and dissociative amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pulmonary embolism in pt taking warfarin

A

may be due to cyp450 inducers like pheny phenobarb and rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

bleeding in pt taking warfarin due to atrial fibrillation

A

may be due to amiodarone as its a cyp450 inhibitor which increases warfarin and causes bleeding. also cimetidine and tmp smx by same mech and aspirin and indomethacin as they are antiplatelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

renal blood flow calculation

A

Rpf is urine PAH x urine Flow rate / plasma PAH and RBF us RPF / 1 - HCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

abcense of sertoli cells in genetic male

A

male external genitalia and both female and male internal genitalia page 571. female parts develop frol.mullerian duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

right numbness paraesthesia leading to generalized tonic clonic siezure

A

left prinary somatosensory cortex aka left post central gyrus affected by stroke? leading to focal siezure which eventually spreads and becomes GTCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

recent bacteremia followed by back pain fever neurological signs

A

vertebral osteomyelitis do mri spine and blood culture. porbably staph aureus or CONS due to intravascular catheter etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

hormone which is mahorly activated by gastric acid and only serves to neutralize it and decrease it

A

Secretin released by S cells of SI releases HCO3 rich fuild from pancreas and decreases gastric H+ . No effect on acinar cells which are under CCK even that increases pancreatic enzymes and hco3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dapsone use and adverse effect

A

Used for.leprosy and pneumocystis prophylaxis in HIV when Cd4 below 200 and pt allergic to TMP SMX. Adverse effect is G6PD def. so pt should be screened prior to starting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

bug causing meningitis and Cephalosporin reistant

A

Listeria. Others are atypicals like chlamydia and Mycoplasma, MRSA and enterobacter. Causes Neonatal Meningtis as can spread through placenta and vagina. use ampicillin to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fluid retention wt gain edema CHF due to which antidiabetic drug

A

GLITAZONES. PPAR intracellular nuckear receptor binders which influence transcription to increase insulin sensitivity and adiponectin which inceeases fatty acid oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

if mother comes from population where carrier freq is x and father is 4m pop where its y what are chances that son will suffer from AR dis

A

1/4 xy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

wc antifungal binds to squalene epoxidase

A

terbinafine used for dermatophytoses esp onchomycoses. prevents lanosterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

umbillical hernia with clear fluid from umbilicus and erythema around it

A

patent urachus which is remnant of allantois which connects fetal bladder to umbillicus. urachus obliterates at birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Turner Syndrome Ovaries

A

OVarian dysgenesis. streak ovaries. primary amenorrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

serum sickness caused by which drugs

A

protein drugs like MAB infliximba rituximab and antitoxins or non protein drugs like penicillin cefaclor tmp smx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Type 3 HSN Serum sickness M/E

A

small vessel vasculitis with fibrinoid necrosis due to immune complex deposition and neutrophil deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Type 3 HSN serum sickness blood picture

A

hypocomplementemia decreased c3 and neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

branch of external illiac which goes upwards

A

inf epigastric artery which supplies lower abd wall along with deep.circumflex artery. this is before inguinal ligament as after inguinal ligament ext iliac continues as femoral artery. also inf epigastric forms border of hasselbach triangle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anemia caused by Isoniazid

A

Sideroblastic anemia also due to b6 def alcohol copper def inherited lead poisoning. see ring sideroblasts which stain with Prussian blue on pbf. inhibition of ala synthase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

tt of panic disorder

A

immediate By bzd long term by SSRI SNRI. avoid bzd in pt with history of substance use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

fetal hypoglycemia of diabetic mother due to

A

B cell hyperplasia in fetal pancreas in response to high glucose from mothers blood which leads to high fetal insulin causing hypoglycemia macrosomia and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Metformin side effect

A

lactic acidosis wirh increased risk in renal ds old pt CHF pt and Alcoholics. metformin inhibits ETC comPlex 1 to Decrease glyconeogenesis and increase glucose uptake for glycolysis which leads to increased lactic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Aspergillus appearance on M/E

A

thick septa and branch at acute angles forming V shaped Hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Waterhouse Freidrichson Syndrome due to

A

N. Meningitidis causing meningococcimea sepsis presents as bilateral adrenal hemorrhage and insufficiency fever DIC and shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pacemaker cells diff from myocytes

A

funnt current due to sodium influx in phase 4 which lead to rapid calcium influx in phase 0 and potassium efflux in phase 3

49
Q

Bleeding in Patient of Crohns disease

A

Due to malabsorption of bile acids which are reabsorbed from terminal ileum. leads to deficiency of fat soluble vitamins like vitamin k which can cause hemarthrosis ecchymoses and bleeding disorder

50
Q

Elastase in Lungs secreted by

A

Macrophage lysosomes and Neutrophil azurophilic granules. Macrophage Elastase inhibited by TIMPs tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinases and Neutrophil Elastase inhibition by serum a1 at

51
Q

what is the best parameter for answering the question “given my risk factors and negative test what are the chances that i really dont have this disease”

A

negative predictive value as it varies inversely with pre test probability.

52
Q

calcified aortic valve is what calcification

A

dystrophic calcification. occurs in clearly due chronic hemodynamic stress and atherosclerosis which both lead to cell damage and necrosis leading to dystrophic calcification

53
Q

Hypocretin 1 levels of CSF associated with

A

Narcolepsy. Other features are sleep paralysis daytime sleepiness. Cataplexy. REM latency less that 15 minutes. Treat with amphetamines and modafenil

54
Q

Coiled glans with tortuous arteries. cells with vacuoles secreting glycogen mucous. edematous stroma with gland stroma ratio 1:1 seen in which phase of menstrual cycle

A

Secretory phase from 15 to 28 days under effect of progesterone

55
Q

Pharmacotherapy for generalized anxiety disorder

A

SSRI SNRI fiRST line. second line buspirone and TCAs. Avoid BZD except acute anxiety

56
Q

Fungal Infections in febrile neutropenia.

A

Febrile neutropenis fever plus less than 500 neutrophils due to Chemotherapy, Radiotherapy , aplastic anemia, SLE. Most common infection with gram positive but may if PROLONGED then viral and fungal esp aspergillus causing lung infection

57
Q

Downs syndrome CNS complication

A

Early Onset Alzheimer due to Amyloid Precursor protein coded in chromosome 21. So there are 3 copies of this protein therefore leading to early onset Alzheimer. Amyloid precursor protein forms amyloid beta plaques and tau protein forms neurofibrillary tangles.

58
Q

Depressive patient having sexual side effect with Ssri what to give next

A

BUPROPION which is now first line for depression and smoking cessation. It inhibits reuptake of NE and DA and can act as stimulant so use in Pt with low energy and hypersomnia.

59
Q

Most common enteric parasite

A

GIardia with multinucleate cysts and trophozite can cause diarrhoea flatulence malabsorption of fat with steatorrhea and normla diarrhoea in campers and hikers. Treat with metronidazole.

60
Q

Spleen derived from

A

MESODERM : Mesenchymal cells of dorsal mesentry. rest git from endoderm

61
Q

Irregular uterine enlargement with constipation

A

UTERINE FIBROID mostly subserosal. Pelvic pressure and pressure on colon due to posterior location which may be relieved by manual deflection called splinting

62
Q

MIFEPRESTONE USE AND WHY

A

termination of pregnancy as it is anti progesterone and binds to receptors with greater affinity cancelling the hormones action leading to apoptosis necrosis and shedding of uterine decidua. Used with miso as it is a pge1 analog which contracts uterus and expels conceptus.

63
Q

MIFEPRESTONE USE AND WHY

A

termination of pregnancy as it is anti progesterone and binds to receptors with greater affinity cancelling the hormones action leading to apoptosis necrosis and shedding of uterine decidua. Used with miso as it is a pge1 analog which contracts uterus and expels conceptus.

64
Q

Painful genital ulcer with great exudate inguinal lymphadenopathy ragged borders

A

Chancroid caused by hemophillus ducreyi. It is so. Painful do u cry

65
Q

NITRATE THERAPY ADVERSE EFFECTS

A

Hypotension Flushing headache reflex tachycardia

66
Q

Blowing holosystolic murmur seen in

A

Mitral regurgitation which us early valve disease in RHD and presents in first few decades. In middle age it becomes mitral stenosis and older Pt presents with mixed mitral disease with both stenosis and regurg

67
Q

Cavitary lesion with air fluid level in right Lower lobe in alcoholic. Cough with greenish sputum foul smelling.

A

Lung abscess due to aspiration pneumonia by aspiration of anaerobic bacteria from. Gingivostomal Sulcus like bacteroides fusobacterium peptostreptococcus.

68
Q

Infant with hepatosplenomegaly neurological regression of developement and cherry red spot on macula

A

NIEMANN PICK DS. due to deficiency of sphingomyelinase leading to accumulation of sphingomyelin with foam cell lipid laden macrophages.

69
Q

Diabetes insipidus following trauma. Which structure injured.

A

Head trauma may lead to injury to hypothalamus and pituitary. If only pituitary then axons will regenerate and after a while adh levels will be normal. Hypothalamus injury leads to permanent di.

70
Q

Hyoid and stapes from which arches

A

Greater horn of hyoid from 3rd lesser horn from 2nd. Stapes : from 2nd vs malleus and incus from 1st

71
Q

Primary amenorrhea with normal secondary sexual characteristics. Cyclical pain without menses and bulge from vagina and mass anterior to rectum.

A

HEMATOCOLPOS due to imperforate hymen which may be due to release of mucus as a child under influence of maternal estrogen

72
Q

Stimulus control methods for treatment of insomnia

A

Use bed only for sleeping and sex. Go to bed only when sleepy and if can’t sleep for 20 minutes leave and go to diff room. Have fixed wakeup time even on weekends.

73
Q

Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia in adults

A

STREP PNEUMONIA in all immunocompetent patients who’s CD 4 is more than 400 even if hiv positive. Mycoplasma most common in young adults like school college students and military recruits but it causes atypical pneumonia.

74
Q

Bicuspid aortic valve with

A

Turners syndrome may be associated with coarctation and may lead to stenosis or regurgitation later. Non stenosis valve presents with systolic click over 2nd right intercostal space.

75
Q

Resting membrane potential due to

A

High k conductance and some Na conductance

76
Q

Pituitary adenoma hormone level changes

A

If Prolactinoma : Low Gnrh with low FH LSH and therefore low products like testosterone. Also presents with bitemporal hemianopia

77
Q

Different durations of action of human recombinant insulins

A

Ultra short 4 hours due to no hexamers used for post Prandial. Short acting regular 8 hours used for DKA. INTERMEDIATE NPH combined with Zinc and Protamine 16 hours. Glargine 24 hours as has fatty acid chain which binds to albumin. Detemir more than 24 hours due to low ph and microppt formation

78
Q

Attributable risk and AR percentage

A

AR is probability in exposed minus probability in unexposed. Divide by probability in exposed and multiply by 100 to get AR percent

79
Q

Role of propranolol in thyrotoxicosis

A

Inhibits peripheral conversion to t3 and blocks sympathetic over activity

80
Q

Brown fat location and function

A

Around scapula clavicle kidneys etc. Has increased mitochondria and increased fat with thermogenin protein to uncouple oxidative phosphorylation leading to heat production

81
Q

Test which uses antibodies to detect a target protein

A

Western blot used for detection of hiv after Elisa

82
Q

Inner zone of kidney is

A

Medulla with chromaffin cells which are modified postganglionic cells stimulated by Ach through preganglioni fibres.

83
Q

Frameshift mutations affect

A

Both mRNA and Protein whereas single base mutations like silent, missense, nonsence only affect Protein but wont show as base differences in mRNA

84
Q

Frameshift mutations are what

A

Deletion or addition of a number of bases that is not divisible by 3 : NON FUNCTIONAL PROTEIN eg : Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy / Cystic Fibrosis (CFTR)

85
Q

Doxorubicin most imp side effect

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy due to formation of FREE radicals which presents as L/R HF

86
Q

How will intestinal malrotation present in a baby

A

Intestinal malrotation results when the midgut undergoes incomplete embryological counterclockwise rotation (usually 270) . It can present as intestinal obstruction leading to bilous vomiting in first few days of life (due to compression by the adhesive bands called Ladds bands which are between CAECUM which is now in RUQ and its original position in the RLQ retroperitonuem) and midgut volvulus (intestinal ischemia due to twisting around the blood vessels).

87
Q

Dobutamine acts via which signalling pathway

A

activates B1 leading to Gs activation and incr. cAMP and incr. Calcium leading to contractility

88
Q

Left shift of Hb O2 dissociation curve?

A

A left shift of the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve indicates increased hemoglobin O2 affinity and can be caused by increased pH, decreased 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate, and decreased temperature. A leftward shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve means that O2 is relatively less available to tissues.

89
Q

Difference between Acute Stress Disorder and PTSD

A

Same symptoms like nightmare, flashbacks and hypervigilance but PTSD has to last for more than a month whereas Acute Stress is less

90
Q

Statins effect on hepatocytes

A

Increase LDL receptor density to increase uptake of LDL by liver

91
Q

Blood loss in menstruation protects against

A

Hemochromatosis. Happens later in women due to iron loss through pregnancy and menstruation

92
Q

DIff between minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation

A

Minute ventilation is equal to the product of tidal volume and respiratory rate and includes dead space ventilation. Alveolar ventilation is equal to the product of respiratory rate and the difference between tidal volume and dead space volume.

93
Q

Ant Cerebral Artery infarct causes

A

The anterior cerebral arteries supply the medial portions of the 2 hemispheres (frontal and parietal lobes). Occlusion can cause contralateral motor and sensory deficits of the lower extremities, behavioral changes, and urinary incontinence.

94
Q

When duodenal ulcers bleed which artery is affected

A

The gastroduodenal artery lies along the posterior wall of the duodenal bulb and is likely to be eroded by posterior duodenal ulcers. Ulceration into the gastroduodenal artery can be a source of life-threatening hemorrhage.

95
Q

Metabolic picture at high altitude

A

High altitude exposure results in hypoxemia with respiratory alkalosis. Over a course of a few days, chronic respiratory alkalosis sets in, with a corresponding decrease in the serum bicarbonate level reflecting renal compensation.

96
Q

Organisms causing esophagitis in HIV Pt

A

CMV (linear ulcers), HSV (eosinophilic inclusions), Candida (white adherent membrane with yeast cells, pseudohyphae)

97
Q

Calculation of Number needed to treat

A

1/Absolute Risk Reduction

98
Q

Fulminant Hepatitis in Pregnant Women

A

Hep E

99
Q

Arrhythmias post MI and t/t

A

ventricular premature beats, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation . Premature beats do not require any specific therapy. Intravenous amiodarone is generally considered the drug of choice in such a setting, with intravenous lidocaine as a second-line agent

100
Q

Best indicator of severity of MR

A

Presence of s3 gallop

101
Q

Role of KINESIN molecule

A

Kinesin is a microtubule-associated, ATP-powered motor protein that facilitates the anterograde transport of neurotransmitter-containing secretory vesicles down axons to synaptic terminals.

102
Q

MATCHING in studies eliminates which bias or error

A

CONFOUNDING

103
Q

Holoprosencephaly defect and reason

A

ocular hypotelorism, cleft lip/palate, single midline eye, primitive nasal structure or proboscis, mid facial clefts

trisomy 13, sonic hedgehog gene mutations and environmental (eg, maternal alcohol use) factors.

104
Q

Absent thymic shadow in

A

Both DIgeorge and SCID. Severe combined immune deficiency is characterized by combined T and B cell dysfunction. It is a life-threatening condition that presents in infancy with mucocutaneous candidiasis; persistent diarrhea; and failure to thrive. Laboratory findings include absent T cells and hypogammaglobulinemia. The thymic shadow is not usually present due to severe T cell deficiency.

105
Q

What happens in pulmonary vessels when there is hypoxia

A

The pulmonary vascular bed is relatively unique in that tissue hypoxia results in a vasoconstrictive response (other organs there is vasodilations). It is to divert blood flow away from underventilated regions of the lung toward better-ventilated areas.

106
Q

Which other enzyme deficiency will be exactly like G6PD

A

Glutathione reductase deficiency as its absence results in an inability to utilize NADPH to reduce glutathione.

107
Q

Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure is an indicator of

A

LA pressure and Left Ventricle End Diastolic Pressure

108
Q

When is PCWP increased

A

Mitral Stenosis as it leads to increased LA pressure and pressure diff between LA and LV during diastole

109
Q

Difference between Mood disorder with Psychosis and Schizoaffective disorder

A

Two weeks of schizophrenic symptoms WITHOUT mood symtpoms

110
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is what type of gene defect

A

frameshift or nonsense mutation resulting in defective dystrophin gene

111
Q

Methoterexate S/E

A

Methotrexate preferentially inhibits growth of rapidly dividing cells which also causes toxicity to tissues with rapid cellular turnover, such as oral and gastrointestinal mucosa (ulcerations), hair follicles (alopecia), and bone marrow (pancytopenia). Methotrexate can also cause hepatotoxicity (hepatitis, fibrosis, cirrhosis) and pulmonary fibrosis.

112
Q

Which virus contains an RNA and DNA dependant DNA polymerase

A

Hep B which uses it to complete the dsDNA after entering the cell and then synthesising fresh dsDNA from mrna synthesised in the cell

113
Q

Somatostatinoma pt have Biliary stones why

A

Due to inhibition of CCK. Other features are hyper hypoglycemia and steatorrhea

114
Q

Angiotensin 2 is synthesised where

A

in small vessels of the lungs therefore its levels are high in pulmonary vein vs pulm artery

115
Q

S/E of inhalation anaesthetics

A

Almost all volatile anesthetics increase cerebral blood flow. It is an undesirable effect as it results in increased ICP. Other important effects of inhalation anesthetics are myocardial depression, hypotension, respiratory depression and decreased renal function.

116
Q

Stenosis of subclavian artery before it gives off verterbral artery leads to

A

Sublaclavian steal phenomenon as contralateral verterbral artery starts giving blood away from bransteam to the ipsilateral (stenotic side) verterbral artery leading to dizziness or syncope along with arm pain fatigue parasthesia. precipitated by arm exercise.

117
Q

Carbidopa addition to Levodopa increases which side effect

A

Central side effects of dopamine like anxiety agitation etc. but it reduces other side effects like postural hypotension, arrhythmia and most common nausea and vomiting.

118
Q

Meiotic non disjunction usually happens in which parent and in which stage

A

Maternal, during MEIOSIS 1 so that child gets total 3 copies, one from father and 2 from mother and those 2 copies are DIFFERENT vs. MEIOSIS 2 (less common) in which both maternal copies will be SAME

Uworld (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions