Wills/Trusts Flashcards

1
Q

What are the commonly recognized statutory exceptions allowing a beneficiary of a specific gift of property that is no longer a part of the estate to take?

A

(UPC): The beneficiary may take replacement property that is similar to the property specifically devised or bequested.

The beneficiary is entitled to any balance on the purchase price for the property still owed.

The beneficiary is entitled to condemnation award for real property or proceeds of insurance policy for destruction of property.

If the property was sold by a guardian/conservator of the testator, the beneficiary is entitled to the proceeds.

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2
Q

What is the CL rule regarding accession of specific gifts of stock?

A

The beneficiary receives the stock and additional shares as a result of stock splits, but NOT dividends.

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3
Q

What is the majority rule regarding accession of specific gifts of stock?

A

The beneficiary receives the stock, additional shares as a result of stock splits (NOT purchased), and dividends.

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4
Q

What are the elements of a valid trust?

A

(1) Settlor

(2) Intent

(3) Trust property

(4) Ascertainable beneficiaries (must be capable of being identified at the time their interests come into enjoyment)

(5) Trustee

(6) Valid Trust Purpose

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5
Q

What do states call a spendthrift trust created by the settlor for his own benefit?

A

A domestic asset protection trust (not allowed in most states)

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6
Q

What are the general requirements for a testator to execute a valid will?

A

Legal capacity, testamentary capacity, and testamentary intent

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7
Q

What must be established to show testamentary capacity of the testator?

A

That the testator had the capacity, at the time the will was executed, to understand…

1) The nature of the act
2) The general nature/extent of their property
3) The “natural objects of their bounty” (who their family members are)
4) An orderly scheme of disposition

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8
Q

What are the common formalities for the execution of a valid will required by state law?

A

The will must be in writing, signed by a testator or their proxy, signature must have been made in the presence of two competent attesting witnesses, the witnesses must sign the will in the testator’s presence

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9
Q

What is the “conscious presence” test?

A

The formality that the testator sign a will in the presence of witnesses and vice versa is satisfied if the parties sign the will with a general awareness and cognizance of other parties (contrast “scope of vision” test)

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9
Q

What is the UPC harmless error rule?

A

A will/codicil that does not comply with the required formalities will be considered valid if testamentary intent is established by clear and convincing evidence

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10
Q

What is a holographic will, and what is required for it to be considered valid?

A

A holographic will is a will in the testator’s handwriting, which must be signed by the testator to take effect

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10
Q

What are the grounds for showing undue influence to contest the validity of a will?

A

(1) Influence existed and was exerted

(2) Influence overpowered the mind and free will of the testator, such that the will reflects the desires of the person exerting influence and not the testator

(3) Resulting disposition would not have been executed but for the influence

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11
Q

What facts raise a presumption of undue influence?

A

There was a confidential relationship between a beneficiary and the testator, and the beneficiary was active in preparing the will.

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12
Q

How does the execution of a codicil affect the interpretation of the original will?

A

A will which was invalid at the time of execution may become valid via the execution of a valid codicil.

The will and the codicil are treated as one document, speaking from the date of execution of the codicil.

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13
Q

What is the effect of Pretermitted Child Statutes on the disposition of property?

A

If a will fails to provide for a child born after execution (or if testator excluded child based on erroneous belief they were dead), the child may take their intestate share.

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14
Q

What is the effect of a subsequent written instrument which is inconsistent with the terms of a previously executed will?

A

If the instrument completely disposes of the testator’s property, the will is fully revoked.

If the instrument contains inconsistent provisions, the will is revoked to the extent of inconsistencies)

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15
Q

How can a revoked will be revived?

A

If the will was revoked by a subsequently executed written instrument, and that instrument was later revoked.

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16
Q

When does dependent relative revocation occur?

A

When the testator would not have revoked their will but for a mistaken belief that another disposition would be effective, the will is revived if the other disposition fails.

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17
Q

When does an inter vivos transfer by a testator satisfy a gift to a beneficiary within a will?

A

When the testator intended for the gift to be a satisfaction at the time it was made (must be evidenced by a writing in most jdx. unless it is satisfaction of a specific devise or bequest)

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18
Q

In what order do testamentary gifts abate if there are not enough assets in the estate to pay claims against the estate?

A

Property passing by intestacy, then property passing by the residuary clause, then general bequests, then demonstrative legacies, then specific bequests/devises.

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19
Q

What are the majority/UPC rules regarding the operation of anti-lapse statutes when a will contains survivorship language?

A

The majority rule is that words of survivorship contradict anti-lapse statutes, the UPC rule is that they do not.

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20
Q

When may a will incorporate a document by reference?

A

If the document was in existence at the time the will was executed, the will manifests an intent to incorporate the document, and the document is sufficiently described in the will.

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21
Q

What is the remedy if a party breaches a contract not to revoke a will after the promisee has died?

A

A constructive trust is imposed in favor of the beneficiaries if the breaching party subsequently disposed of property in breach of the agreement.

22
Q

What is the effect of an advancement made towards an individual’s intestate share?

A

The value of the gift at the time it was made is added back into the estate and subtracted from the share of the recipient.

23
Q

When does the UPC allow an inter vivos gift to be determined a satisfaction or advancement?

A

If it is acknowledged as such in a contemporaneous writing by the grantor OR if the recipient acknowledges it as such in writing.

24
Q

What is required for a valid disclaimer of a testamentary gift or intestate share?

A

The disclaimer must be made (1) in writing, signed by the disclaimant (2) acknowledged before a notary (3) timely filed within the appropriate court.

25
Q

What is the general rule established by Slayer Statutes?

A

A person who feloniously and intentionally killed the decedent forfeits any interest in the decedent’s estate.

26
Q

What is a discretionary trust?

A

A trust that gives the trustee discretion whether to apply or withhold payments of income/trust principal to a beneficiary

27
Q

What is a spendthrift trust?

A

A trust that precludes the beneficiaries from alienating their interest.

28
Q

When may a creditor compel a trustee to make a payment in a discretionary/spendthrift trust situation?

A

To satisfy a judgement against the beneficiary for support/maintenance of their child, spouse, or former spouse.

29
Q

What is a support trust?

A

A trust in which mandatory or discretionary payments are limited to the amount necessary to support the beneficiary

30
Q

What is a power of appointment?

A

An authority given to a donee enabling them to designate the persons who shall take property and the manner in which they shall take.

31
Q

What is a general v. special power of appointment?

A

A general power of appointment may be exercised in favor of anyone (including donee), a special power of appointment may only be exercised in favor of a limited class of persons

32
Q

What is the duty to administer?

A

The trustee must administer the trust in a good faith prudent manner and act impartially with regard to multiple beneficiaries.

33
Q

What conduct by the trustee is prohibited by the trustee’s duty of loyalty?

A

A trustee may not engage in any transaction where they are dealing with the trust in an individual capacity

34
Q

When is it presumed that a trustee has violated the duty of loyalty?

A

When the trustee engages in a transaction with their spouse, close relative, an agent/attorney of the trustee, or corporation in which they own a significant interest

35
Q

What are the beneficiary’s remedies when the trustee violates the duty of loyalty?

A

They may void the transaction (unless they/court/settlor approved), or seek damages for the greater of trustee profit or amount needed to restore the trust

36
Q

What is the Prudent Investor Rule (included in duty to preserve trust property and make it productive)?

A

A trustee must act with reasonable care and skill in investing trust property.

37
Q

What are the rules regarding a trustee delegating investment functions?

A

A trustee may delegate investment functions if a prudent investor would do so and will not be held liable for the decisions if they act prudently in selecting a delegate, establishing the scope of delegation, and periodically reviewing the delegate’s activities.

38
Q

What items are income items under the Uniform Principal and Income Act?

A

Money received from an entity, ordinary expenses and repairs, 1/2 of trustee income, 1/2 of fees for judicial proceedings and accounting

39
Q

What items are principal items under the Uniform Principal and Income Act?

A

All other property received from an entity, proceeds from sale of trust assets/extraordinary receipts, payments on life insurance or contract in which trust is a beneficiary, payments on principal of trust debt, estate taxes, other half of trustee income/fees for judicial proceedings

40
Q

When can the beneficiaries of a trust modify/revoke the trust without the trustee’s consent?

A

When all of the beneficiaries agree, and a material purpose of the trust would not be frustrated

41
Q

What are examples of a “material purpose” of a trust?

A

Discretionary/spendthrift/support provisions, payment at certain ages

42
Q

When can a court modify or revoke a trust?

A

When the trust could have been modified by all the beneficiaries if they agree and the court finds that the interests of unrepresented beneficiaries are adequately represented

43
Q

What are the three types of resulting trusts?

A

A purchase money resulting trust, a trust resulting from the failure of an express trust, a trust arising from incomplete disposition of trust property

44
Q

When is a purchase money resulting trust established?

A

When one party (the beneficiary) provides consideration for the acquisition of property but title is taken in the name of another party (the trustee).

45
Q

What is a semi-secret trust?

A

A resulting trust in favor of the testator’s successors in interest which arises when a will makes a gift in trust but does not name a beneficiary

46
Q

What is a constructive trust?

A

An equitable trust which arises to prevent unjust enrichment and imposes the sole duty on the trustee to convey property back to a beneficiary

47
Q

What is a secret trust?

A

A trust which arises when a testator agrees with a beneficiary that they will hold property in trust, but that promise is not reflected in the language of the will.

48
Q

How does a charitable trust differ from a normal trust?

A

The trust may be perpetual, there is no requirement of ascertainable beneficiaries, and the trust must be for a charitable purpose (such as advancement of health/education, relief of poverty)

49
Q

What is the doctrine of cy pres?

A

If the charitable purpose of a trust is impracticable, unlawful, or wasteful, a court may select an alternative by ascertaining the settlor’s primary purpose.

50
Q

What is merger of title?

A

A trust terminates if the sole trustee is the sole beneficiary of a trust.

51
Q

When may a residuary clause effectively exercise a power of appointment, under the CL?

A

If the residuary clause contains a “blanket exercise clause,” and the donor has not required a specific reference to the power

52
Q

When may a residuary clause effectively exercise a power of appointment under the UPC?

A

When it is a general power of appointment, or when there is a blanket exercise clause (donee intent controls)

53
Q

What are the rules regarding general class descriptions within a trust?

A

CL: The class description must be “reasonably definite” to allow the trustee to exercise their discretion to determine who belongs to the class

UTC: The settlor may empower the trustee to select beneficiaries from an indefinite class