VIRGINIA EXAM RULES Flashcards

1
Q

BIZ Closely held corporation

A

A closely held corporation is a corporation with only a few shareholders that in some states has distinctive characteristics. In Virginia, it does not represent a distinvely separate corportate form from a regular corporation.

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2
Q

BIZ Corporation distributions

A

Under Virginia law, a distribution when the corporation is insolvent are wrongful. A corporation is considered insolvent for these purposes if its debts exceed its assets, or if making the distribution will prevent the corporation from meeting its liabilities. This rule holds true at any point in a corporation’s life, including during the winding up period after termination of the corporation.

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3
Q

BIZ
Director liabiity
Excess distributions

A

Under securities law, directors are liable for wrongful distributions. If a director votes against or abstains from the vote on an illegal distribution, he/she will not be personally liable. While directors who approve illegal distributions can be held personally liable to the extent such distributions are illegal, they have the right seek indemnification by disgorging such illegal distributions from the shareholders who received them.

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4
Q

BIZ BOD

liability defences

A

A director may avoid liability for corporate decisions by objecting to the action at the meeting at which the decision is made, and by abstaining or dissenting from the action.

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5
Q

BIZ BOD

Director liability

A

Virginia follows the rule of joint and several liability with the right of contribution. Joint wrongdoers are liable severally for their share of the judgment and jointly for the entire amount, subject to the right of contribution.

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6
Q

BIZ GP duty of loyalty

A

General partners owe a fiduciary duty of loyalty to the partnership. The duty of loyalty forbids secret self-dealing with the corporation by the GP.

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7
Q

BIZ GP/LP

Definition

A

A limited partnership is an entity which limits the liability of the limited partners to their contribution to or investment in the partnership. In sharp contrast, however, general partners within a limited partnership remain personally liable for the partnership’s organization, as with a general partnership.

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8
Q

CREDIT DISPUTE

Guarantor

A

A guarantor is liable on a particular obligation if he, for consideration, agrees to guarantee the loan.

A guarantor of collection is secondarily liable on the loan, while a guarantor of payment or a surety is primarily liable on the loan.

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9
Q

BIZ LP

Derivative action

A

Limited partners in a limited partnership are entitled to file a derivative action to protect the rights of the partnership at large. In order to do so, the limited partners must have been limited partners both at the time of the alleged occurrence or transaction and at the time of the institution of the suit. They must also demonstrate that they made a demand upon the general partners to defend the partnership’s rights with regard to that particular transaction and that such a demand failed, or demonstrate why such an action would have been likely to fail if brought. If successful, the recovery from the derivative suit goes to the partnership itself, although the partners can recover reasonable fees and expenses from the partnership.

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10
Q

BIZ LP

Liability of limited partners

A

in general, a limited partner is generally not personally liable for the obligations of the partnership, and is liable only in the amount of their contribution to the partnership.

A limited partner becomes personally liable, however, if he exercises dominion or control over the affairs of the partnership; in such cases, the limited liability ceases to exist.

The limited partner, however, only becomes personally liable to third parties who reasonably believed that he was a general partner and entered into transactions on such a basis.

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11
Q

BIZ Partnership defintion

A

In Virginia, a partnership is an association of two or more persons to carry on as co-owners a business for profit formed under Virignia law, or comparable law of another jurisdiction, and includes, for all purposes of the laws of this Commonwealth, a registered limited liability partnership.

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12
Q

BIZ Partnership liability in general

A

in Virginia, a partnership, whether a general partnership, a limited liability partnership, a registered limited liability partnership or a PLLP , the partnership has the ability to sue and be sued as well as the individual partners.

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13
Q

BIZ Partnership Liability PLLP

A

Virginia law also recognizes professional limited liability partnerships in which professionals may form a partnership for purposes of providing professional services and an individual may limit their exposure to the malpractice of other individual partners in the professional partnership. The individual does not limit their liability with respect to their own malpractice. When converting from a general partnerhsip to a PLLP, a former general partner may only limit their personal liability prospectively from the time that the PLLP is formed. Finally, in Virginia, a partnership, whether a general partnership, a limited liability partnership, a registered limited liability partnership or a PLLP has the ability to sue and be sued.

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14
Q

BIZ Liabiilty
Piercing Corporate Veil
Requirements

A

Under Virginia law, the stockholders and directors of a legal corporation may not be held personally liable for the obligations of the corporation unless:

(1) they agreed to be held liable;
(2) they caused the obligation by their own tort; or
(3) there are grounds for piercing the corporate veil and holding the stockholders liable.

Grounds for piercing the corporate veil include:

(a) abuse of the corporate structure and formalities such that the corporation is merely an alter-ego of one or more of the stockholders;
(b) undercapitalization of the corporation against foreseeable liabilities at the outset of its formation; or
(c) to otherwise prevent the stockholders from using the corporation to commit a fraud or other bad act.

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15
Q

BIZ AGENCY

Principal Agent Relationship

A

In order to have an agency relationship there must be

(i) assent of the parties to be in the relationship;
(ii) a benefit to the principal; and
(iii) control excercised by the principal over the agent.

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16
Q

BIZ CORP

Shareholder liability

A

A corporate creditor can enforce its claim against shareholders personally up to the amount of corporate assets distributed illegally to the individual shareholder.

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17
Q

BIZ PARTNER Liability

Who to sue

A

With a general partnership, all of the individual partners are liable as well as the partnership.

With limited liability partnerships, the individual tort feaser partner can be sued as well as the partenrhship

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18
Q

CON Does adding an arbitration clause materially alter a contract?

A

A Catholic University Law Review article of a half dozen cases in 2016 found that there was a slight bias towards consiering non-material, but the general rule is better described as it is a matter of facts and circumstnatc,es, heavily influenced by industry standards and local business preferences.

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19
Q

CON Elements of consideration

A

Promisee must suffer legal detriment
Detriment must induce promise
Promise must induce detriment

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20
Q

CONT FORM
Consideration
Forms of legal detriment

A

Performance
-Doing something not legally obligated to do

Forbearance
- Not doing something legally allowed to do

Promise to perform

Promise to forbear

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21
Q

CONTRACT
Illusory Promise

What is an illusory promise?

Does it constitute consideration in exchange for another promise?

A

It is a promise in form, but not in substance

It is not consideration for the other promise

E.g., I will buy your house if I decide I want it

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22
Q

CONTRACT SOF

What makes a surety contract subject to the statute of frauds?

A

A surety contract comes under the statute of frauds if it is a promise to the creditor (not the debtor) regarding a debt that is over $500 and does not come due for more than one year (not a promise to pay immediately)..

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23
Q

CON FORM

What is the rule regarding moral obligations and consideration?

A

Modern approach (not in Virginia)

A moral obligation is not a substitute for consideration unless:

  • The promisor requested the act
  • The promisee expected to be paid

Traditional approach (Virginia)

A moral obligation is not a substitute for consideration

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24
Q

CONT FORM

What is the rule regarding past consideration?

A

Past performance is not valid consideration to create an enforcible contract. An agreement based upon past performance is an unenforceable gratuitious promise

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25
Q

CONTRACT

When can acceptance be done by mail?

When is it effective?

A

Acceptance by mail is reasonable if:

  • Offer is by mail
  • Customary in similar transactions at time and place

Acceptance by mail is effective when posted (i.e., dropped in mailbox)

(Mailbox rule)

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26
Q

CONT CONSIDER

When is consideration adequate?

A

Courts generally do not inquire to the adequacy of consideration

If the consideration is grossly inadequate, there may be some flaw in the bargaining process, such as:

Fraud
Duress
Incapacity

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27
Q

CONT FORM

Who lacks capacity to contract?

A

Infants (minors)
- Persons under 18 years old

Mental incompetents
Person who is either:
- Unable to understand in a reasonable manner nature and consequences of transaction
- Unable to act in a reasonable manner in relation to the transaction

Intoxicated persons

  • ​Other party has reason to know that by reason of intoxicationt the person is unable to either:
  • Understand in a reasonable manner nature and consequences of transaction
  • Act in a reasonable manner in relation to the transaction
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28
Q

CONT FORM FORM

How does a party reject an offer?

A

Expressly
Counteroffer (but not mere bargaining)
Conditional acceptance
Acceptance with additional terms (but not under UCC)
Acceptance with conflicting terms (but not under UCC)

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29
Q

CONT FORM

Is an advertisement an offer?

A

Generally, no.

Exceptions:

An advertisement is an offer if it:
Is specific to quantity
Indicates who can accept
​An advertisement is an offer it it:
Is in the nature of a reward
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30
Q

CONT FORM CONDITIONS

a “true condition”

A

A condition that is outside the control of either party

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31
Q

CONT FORM

Accepting an offer

A

By performance or promise

Performance

  • Unilateral contract - performance must be complete
  • Bilateral contract - performance must begin

Promise to perform

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32
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Allowable parole evidence

A

Using the earlier agreement to:

  • Explain the writing
  • Establish a defense
  • Show the writing wouldn’t be effective until a condition is met
  • Add to a writing that is only partially integrated
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33
Q

CONT UCC

Are leases covered by the UCC?

A

Yes, Article 2A

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34
Q

CONT LEASE WARRANTY

Are leases subject to the warranty of fitness for a particular purpose

A

Yes

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35
Q

CONT UCC

Resolution of differing terms

A

Battle of forms in UCC

8.2-207(b)

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36
Q

CONT FULFILL

Buyer liabiity for rejected good

A

Must be held “with reasonable care” until returned

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37
Q

CONT DAMAGE

Can a breaching party recover under quasi-contract?

A

Majority view

YES, if:
Not a willful breach
For the party’s own convenience and financial advantage

Minority view

NO

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38
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Can a contract ever be enforced against a minor?

A

Yes, under the quasi-contract theory if the contract is for necessaries - i.e., items that the minor needs in order to live

Whether soemthing is a necessary is a question of fact

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39
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Can a court fill in vague or material terms in a contract?

A

No. Both common law and the UCC this makes the contract insufficiently definite and clear

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40
Q

CONT ASSIGN

Can an obligor continue to pay the assignor after an assignment?

What if the assignment was gratuitous?

A

If he does so without notice of the assignment, obligor’s debt is discharged

If he does so with notice of the assignment, obligor still owes assignee

If assignment is gratuitous, acceptance of payment by assignor revokes assignment

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41
Q

CONT FORM

Can an offer be assigned?

A

No

Only the person to whom the offer was made, and they must be aware of it

So, the power to accept cannot be assigned

But, an option can be assigned unless it says otherwise

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42
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Can one get attorney’s fees in UCC litigation?

A

Rarely

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43
Q

CONT WARRANT

Can packaging create warranty

A

yes, mercantability warranty that item matches description

must conform to affirmations on container or label 8.2-313(2)(f)

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44
Q

CONT FORM

Can silence be acceptance?

A

Generally, no.

Exception:

When reasonable to interpret silence as acceptance based on prior course of conduct/past dealings

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45
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Can specific performance be invoked in requirements contracts?

A

Yes, if buyer does not have means to cover
Change to UCC 8.2-716
Alternatively position as detinue as identified goods

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46
Q

CONT ASSIGN

Can the obligor and assignor modify their contract if there is an assignment?

A

Yes, until obligor receives notice of the assignment

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47
Q

CONT ASSIGN

Can you assign your rights in a requirements contract?

A

Yes. This does not substantially change the duties of the obligor because you are inherently required to have reasonably proportionate requirements`

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48
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Can you retract anticipatory repudiation?

A

Yes, so long as the other party has not changes its position in reliance

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49
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Choice of law details

A

Contract where contract was made
Performance where performance occurred
In Virginia, shortest relevant SOL applies

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50
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

Claim for late delivery as substantial impairment

A

§ 8.2-612. “Installment contract”; breach.
(1) An “installment contract” is one which requires or authorizes the delivery of goods in separate lots to be separately accepted, even though the contract contains a clause “each delivery is a separate contract” or its equivalent.

(2) The buyer may reject any installment which is nonconforming if the nonconformity substantially impairs the value of that installment and cannot be cured or if the nonconformity is a defect in the required documents; but if the nonconformity does not fall within subsection (3) and the seller gives adequate assurance of its cure the buyer must accept that installment.
(3) Whenever nonconformity or default with respect to one or more installments substantially impairs the value of the whole contract there is a breach of the whole. But the aggrieved party reinstates the contract if he accepts a nonconforming installment without seasonably notifying of cancellation or if he brings an action with respect only to past installments or demands performance as to future installments.

!

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51
Q

CONT collateral agreement

A

Admissible despite the parole evidence rule

Either:

Agreement made for separate consideration
Agreement that would naturally be omitted from the writing under the circumstances (i.e., writing is only partially integrated)

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52
Q

CONT Condition precedent

A

A condition precedent is an event or state of affairs that is required before something else will occur. In contract law, a condition precedent is an event which must occur, unless its non-occurrence is excused, before performance under a contract becomes due, i.e., before any contractual duty exists.

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53
Q

CONT Condition subsequent

A

A condition subsequent is an event or state of affairs that brings an end to something else. A condition subsequent is often used in a legal context as a marker bringing an end to one’s legal rights or duties. A condition subsequent may be either an event or a state of affairs that must either (1) occur or (2) fail to continue to occur

In contract law:
A contract may be frustrated on the occurrence of a condition subsequent: in a contract to provide a music hall for a musical performance, the burning down of the music hall may frustrate the contract and automatically bring it to an end.

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54
Q

CONT FORM

Conditional gift

A

May not be a contract if donor gets no personal benefit - not a “bargained for exchange”

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55
Q

CONT FORM

Conditions precedent and subsequest`

A

Contracts may include conditions precedent, the non-occurrence of which excuses performance because the contract duty never arises, thus there can be no breach.

Conditions subsequent should be clear in the agreement of the parties. A party must act in good faith in seeking to bring about the condition subsequent, and it must be reasonable (that is, not a condition so unlikely as to make the promise illusory for lack of consideration)

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56
Q

CONT DISPUTE SOF

Consequence of failing statute of frauds defense

A

Can still argue no contract exists on other grounds

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57
Q

CONT DISPUTE SOF

Status of contract failing to satisfy statute of frauds

A

Contract is unenforcible but not illegal

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58
Q

CONT DAMAGES

Consequential damages

A

Any of the following resulting from the breach:

Injury to person
Injury to property
Lost profits

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59
Q

CONT Contract construction

A

Virginia will construe all the agreements to be a single contract. Virginia construe the contract pursuant to the rule that ambiguities in contracts are construed narrowly against the drafter, especially when the drafter is a commercial seller and the buyer is not.

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60
Q

CONT FORM

Contract fails for ambiguity

A

When:

  • Parties use a material term open to at least two reasonable interpretations
  • Each party attaches a different meaning
  • Neither party knows or has reason to know of the other’s meaning
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61
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Contract fails for mistake

A
  • Both parties are mistaken
  • Regarding a basic assumption of fact
  • That materially affects the agreement
  • And is not a risk that either party bears

No relief if mistake is just as to value

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62
Q

CONT FORM

Contract formation vs change of entity

A

Different entity can accept offer

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63
Q

CONT DISPUTE

contract provides that all modifications have to be in writing - enforcible?

A

common law - no

UCC - yes

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64
Q

CONT DAMAGES

Damages when non-comforming goods are received

A

Buyer still entitled for losses after selling as best he can

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65
Q

CONT TERM

Death does not terminate what contracts?

A

Option contract

Part performance of unilateral contract

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66
Q

CONT WARRANT

disclaiming warranty of merchantability

A

requires explicit denial of merchantability

must be conspicuous

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67
Q

CONT FORM

Do you need a writing to rescind a contract subject to the statute of frauds?

A

Generally, not unless:

Land contract
Sales contract

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68
Q

CONT DAMAGES

Does a breach of one installment ever permit the buyer to reject the entire contract?

A

Only if the breach substantially impairs the value of the entire contract

E.g., one beer delivery has e coli so nobody would drink beer from that supplier

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69
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Does buying goods from a company in Virginia satisfy for personal jurisdiction

A

No. Due process minimum countacts is not satisfied by purchase alone.

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70
Q

CONT WARRANTY

Does the UCC warranty of merchantability apply to used goods

A

Yes -

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71
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Duress to void a contract

A
  1. Personal duress (e.g., gun to head)

2. Economic duress (e.g., caterer demands more money day before wedding)

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72
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Duty to disclose bad facts

A

Limited to:

Disclosure required by statute
Active concealment of negative fact
Partial disclosure would be misleading
Changed circumstances make previous assertion false
Party becomes aware that other party is operating under mistake as to a material fact
Confidential or fiduciary relationship

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73
Q

CONT WARRANTY

Effect of not ordering what is described

A

Voids claim of express warranty

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74
Q

CONT FORM

Elements of an offer

A
Identity of the offeree
Subject matter
Price to be paid
Time of payment, delivery, or performance
Quantity involved
Nature of work involved

Not all essential

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75
Q

CONT FORM

Elements of quasi contract

A

P has conferred a benefit on D
P reasonably expected to be paid
D would realize unjust enrichment if P is not compensated

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76
Q

CONT SOF FORM

Elements to satisfy statute of frauds

A

Writing that contains:

  • Identity of parties
  • Description of subject matter
  • All essential terms
  • Signature by party to be charged
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77
Q

CONT SOF DISPUTE

Estoppel to plead statute of frauds

A

D told P he would draft agreement

P acted in reliance on this

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78
Q

CONT DAMAGES

Excuse for failure to cover

A

Seller’s promise of delivering soon

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79
Q

CONT WARRANTY

express warranty

A

Must be a basis of the bargain

Words

  • Must have natural tendency to induce reliance
  • Not mere puffing

Conduct

  • Use of sample of model
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80
Q

CONT FORM

External sources contract terms

A

Custom and usage
Past dealings
UCC (if sale of goods)

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81
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Factors in parole evidence assessment

A

Merger or integration clauses
How complete it looks
How long negotiations were
Whether the parties had lawyers

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82
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Failure to reject after reasonable opportunity to inspect

A

Constitutes acceptance

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83
Q

CONT INTRO

First line in any UCC essay

A

XXXXX are moveable goods and thus UCC applies

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84
Q

CONT WARRANTY

Fitness for a specific purpose

A

Only holds if purpose adequately communicated

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85
Q

CONT FORM

Fraud in the factum

A

Misrepresenting document - void

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86
Q

CONT FORM

Fraud in the inducement

A

Lying about the contract contents or meaning or context - voidable

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87
Q

CONT WARRANTY

Gaining good title to stolen goods

A

Not possible.
No one in chain ever has good title
Good faith purchaser gets void title, not voidable title.
UCC 20-403(1)

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88
Q

CONT FORM UCC

Goods vs services

A

“Predominant purpose” test

Factors:
Price of goods v. services
Amount of labor involved
Sophistication of labor
Does contract contains typical sales language?
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89
Q

CONT ASSIGN

How can a gratuitous assignment be revoked?

A

Provided no exceptions apply:

  • Directly
  • Death of assignor
  • Bankruptcy of assignor
  • Acceptance of performance by assignor
  • Subsequent assignment by assignor

So, last assignee under gift assignment wins

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90
Q

CONT WARRANTY

How can a limited warranty fail

A

Repeated failed attempts results in failure of essential purpose.

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91
Q

CONT DISPUTE

How do you determine whether a breach is material and therefore excuses the other party’s performance?

A

Did you basically get what you bargained for? If so, breach is only minor.

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92
Q

CONT DIPSUTE

How does a buyer reject goods?

A

Provide notice to the seller that is:

Timely (so seller can cure or preserve the goods)
Oral or written

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93
Q

CONT FORM

How does a party revoke an offer?

A

Statement to the offeree indicating an unwillingness to contract

Conduct of the offeror that is inconsistent with an intention to contract and

  • the offeree is aware of the conduct
  • Must be reliable
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94
Q

CONT FORM UCC

If a buyer continues using the goods after rejection, is that always an acceptance?

A

Yes, unless the use was necessary

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95
Q

CONT FORM

If a contract is silent as to what should be done first, what is the presumption?

A

Sale of goods

Each party’s performance is a constructive concurrent condition to the other

Service contract

Service is a constructive condition precedent to payment

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96
Q

CONT DISPUTE

If a seller’s inventory is partially destroyed, how does he decide which orders to fill with the remaining inventory?

What rights do the buyers have?

A

Allocate remaining inventory in a way that is fair and reasonable

Buyers can refuse to accept partial delivery, but they then have no breach of contract claim

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97
Q

CONT If before performance is due, a party says that he will not perform based on an erroneous belief that the other has breached, what is the result?

A

Anticipatory repudiation, so the other party is excused from performing and can sue for immediate damages

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98
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

If buyer fails to pick up goods

A

Under UCC, after a commercially reasonable time the seller is no longer entitled to price (but still has breach of contract claim)

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99
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

If buyer has the right to reject, what is the effect on risk of loss?

A

Risk remains on seller until either:

Defect cured
Buyer accepts despite defect

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100
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

If buyer rightfully revokes, what is the effect on risk of loss?

A

Risk is on seller to the extent of deficiency in buyer’s insurance coverage

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101
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Is delegation allowed if:

Contract prohibits delegation?
Contract prohibits assignment?

A

Yes

Yes - prohibition of assignment is prohibition of both assignment and delegation

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102
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE ROL

If seller hasn’t shipped the goods, and buyer breaches, can risk of loss ever fall on buyer?

A

Only if seller has identified the goods (i.e., segregated them for delivery), risk is on buyer to the extent of deficiency in seller’s insurance coverage

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103
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Define illegal contract

A

Subject is illegal (goods)

Purpose is illegal (activity)

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104
Q

CONT UCC WARRANTY

Implied warranties of merchantability and fitness

A

Implied warranties of merchantability and fitness:

To disclaim

  • -Must be conspicuous
  • -Must mention either:
  • – Merchantability
  • – General language removing implied warranty
  • — E.g., “as is”, “with all faults”

Exceptions

  • Course of dealing, course of performance, trade usage
  • Defects that should have been revealed by examination that seller demanded buyer undertake
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105
Q

CONT TPB DISPUTE

In a third-party beneficiary relationship, who can sue whom?

A

TPB can sue promisor
Promisee can sue promisor
Creditor beneficiary can sue promisee
But not regular TPB

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106
Q

CONT TPB

In a third-party beneficiary situation, who is the promisor and promisee?

A

Promisor - Person who renders performance that benefits TPB

Promisee - Person bargaining with promisor for TPB’s benefit

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107
Q

CONT UCC

In a UCC sale of goods contract, what can a party do if they are worried about the other’s performance?

A
  • In writing demand adequate assurance of performance
  • Suspend performance until assurance is received
  • Treat as repudiation if assurance not received in 30 days
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108
Q

CONT UCC

In what form should the buyer make payment?

A

In the absence of agreement otherwise:

Buyer must pay by either:
Cash
Check

Seller can reject check, but must give buyer reasonable time to get cash

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109
Q

CONT UCC

Inconsistent terms under UCC

A

Must be between merchants
material differences knoock out
- defer UCC default
performance constitutes acceptance

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110
Q

CONT FORM OFFER

Is a price quotation an offer?

A

Only if it is sent in response to an inquiry

E.g., catalog sent after purchaser says, “I need ten of these, how much will you sell them for?”

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111
Q

CONT SOF DISPUTE

Is a promise to pay debt barred by the statute of limitations enforceable?

A

Only if it is written, and only to the extent of the new promise, and not the original balance due

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112
Q

CONT FORM

Is consideration required in a requirements contract

A

no

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113
Q

CONT DISPUTE

Licensing impact on contract

A

When the license is required to protect public welfare, the contract is illegal

When the license is required to raise revenue, the contract is not illegal

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114
Q

CONT FORM

Mailbox rule exceptions

A

Rejection mailed first, rejection received first
Acceptance is a counteroffer

Acceptance mailed first, rejection received first
If offeror relied on rejection, estoppel may apply

Option deadline
Acceptance must be received by deadline (i.e., mailbox rule does not apply)

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115
Q

CONT UCC WARRANTY

Manufacturer warranty exposure personal injury

A

Anyone who might reasonably be expected to:

Use
Consume
Be affected

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116
Q

CONT UCC WARRANTY

Manufacturer warranty liability for consequential loss

A

Only parties in privity

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117
Q

CONT FORM

What is offer at auction?

Effect of reserve price.

A

The bid, not the auctioneer asking for bids

An auction is with reserve unless the terms state otherwise

Auction without reserve

Auctioneer obligated to accept highest bid

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118
Q

CONT FORM

Partially vs fully integrated contract

A

Partially integrated - everything in here is final, but not everything is in here

Completely integrated - everything in here is final, and everything is in here

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119
Q

CONT FORM

Based on pre-existing duty

A

Common law

Performing a pre-existing duty is not consideration for a new promise unless:

  • Duty owed to a third person (not promisor)
  • Unforeseen difficulty renders performance vitally different than was was originally agreed upon

UCC Article 2

Additional consideration not required for modification if:
The party modifying acts in good faith

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120
Q

CONT SOF DEFENSES

Promissory estoppel statute of frauds

A

Modern trend
D estopped from raising statute of frauds if:
D makes oral promise to P
P acts in reliance on this

Virginia
NO PROMISSORY ESTOPPE

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121
Q

CONT UCC

Protection against arbitrary action

A

UCC standard of good faith and commercial fair dealing

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122
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

Punitive damages for breach of contract?

A

No

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123
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

Punitive damages under UCC

A

rare. only for willful or wanton conduct

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124
Q

CONT FORM

Quasi-contract in Virginia

A

Under Virginia law, to recover unjust enrichment or “quasi contract” damages, a plaintiff must show that:

(1) it conferred a benefit on the defendant;
(2) with the reasonable expectation of payment;
(3) the defendant knew or should have known of both the benefit conferred and the expectation of payment; and that
(4) allowing the defendant to accept or retain the benefit without paying for its value would be inequitable.

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125
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

Recovery purchase price (buyer)

A

§ 2-711. Buyer’s Remedies in General; Buyer’s Security Interest in Rejected Goods.
(1) Where the seller fails to make delivery or repudiates or the buyer rightfully rejects or justifiably revokes acceptance then with respect to any goods involved, and with respect to the whole if the breach goes to the whole contract (Section 2-612), the buyer may cancel and whether or not he has done so may in addition to recovering so much of the price as has been paid

    • (a) “cover” and have damages under the next section as to all the goods affected whether or not they have been identified to the contract; or
    • (b) recover damages for non-delivery as provided in this Article (Section 2-713).

(2) Where the seller fails to deliver or repudiates the buyer may also
- -(a) if the goods have been identified recover them as provided in this Article (Section 2-502); or
- -(b) in a proper case obtain specific performance or replevy the goods as provided in this Article (Section 2-716).

(3) On rightful rejection or justifiable revocation of acceptance a buyer has a security interest in goods in his possession or control for any payments made on their price and any expenses reasonably incurred in their inspection, receipt, transportation, care and custody and may hold such goods and resell them in like manner as an aggrieved seller (Section 2-706).

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126
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

Rejection of non-conforming goods after sale

A

Acceptance can be revoked after discovery of defect in use

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127
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

Remedies avaiable when party fails to perform under requirements contract

A

Temporary injunction

Detinue with pre-trial seizure

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128
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE Requirements

Seller protection rejected goods

A

Subject to statutory standard of good faith

Protects against arbitrary rejection of goods

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129
Q

SECURED

Requirements to create security interest

A

give value
debtor has rights in the collateral
possess collateral or hold an authenticated security agreement

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130
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE
revocation of acceptance vs
compensatory damages

A

Can make claims under both.

This is a change from earlier times

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131
Q

CONT FORM

Revocation of public offer

A

Equally publicized retraction

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132
Q

SECURE

Rights superior to secured loan

A

Mechanics lien

up to $1,000 in Virginia

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133
Q

CONT SOF FORM
Satisfy statute of frauds by performance
Real estate specfic

A
In real estate:
2/3 of the following:
- Full or part payment
- Possession
- Improvements
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134
Q

CONT Scope of Statute of Frauds

A

“MY LEGS”

Contract in consideration of marriage
Contract that cannot be performed within one year
Promise creating interest in land​
Promise by executor or administrator to pay own funds
Contract for the sale of goods $500 or more
Promise to act as a surety for the debt of another

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135
Q

CONT UCC FORM

Shipment contract vs destination contract

Which is default?

A

know this

shipment is default

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136
Q

CONT FORM

Signature by email

A

Uniform Electronic Signatures Act

federal E-sign act

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137
Q

SECURE

Signature requirement for financing statement

A

Only the lender, not borrower.

It is a notice (statement), not a right (loan)

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138
Q

CONT SOF FORM

Significance of custom goods

A
Seller has no re-sale recourse
Requires
- oral order
- custom product
- performance
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139
Q

CONT SOF FORM

Marriage contracts covered by SOF,

A

Must be a promise in consideration of marriage (not just a promise to marry), e.g,. exchange of property

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140
Q

CONT SOF DEFENSE

What is the MAIN PURPOSE rule with respect to the statute of frauds?

A

If a promise to pay the debt of another is for the main purpose of the promisor, it is not within the statute of frauds

E.g., main shareholder promises to act as a surety on the debt of the corporation

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141
Q

CONT SOF FORM

When does the modification of a contract fall within the statute of frauds?

A

When both:

Contract, as modified, falls within the statute of frauds
Modified terms are essential to the contract

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142
Q

CONT Statue of Frauds sale of goods

A

A contract for the sale of goods of $500 or more is within the statute of frauds and generally must be evidenced by awriting signed by the defendant to be enforceable.

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143
Q

CONT SOF

Statue of Frauds Custom goods

A

An oral contract for the sale of goods is enforceable if the goods are specially ordered by the buyer, cannot be resold by the seller in the ordinary course of its business, and the seller has made a substantial beginning of performance.

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144
Q

CONT Statute of Frauds

A

In Virginia, the writing need only establish evidence that an agreement existed.

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145
Q

CONT Statute of Frauds Agency

A

A designation of an agent to execute documents in ones own name that pertain to a document that is subject to the Statute of Frauds is also subject to the Statute of Frauds.

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146
Q

CONT Statute of Frauds Part Performance

A

First, an oral contract is enforceable to the extent that the goods have been received and accepted.

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147
Q

CONT SOF UCC

General Requirements

A

Writing that contains:

  • Quantity (or output/requirements)
  • Indication that contract for sale was made
  • Signature by party to be charged

Writing signed by party seeking enforcement

  • Under UCC 2-201(2), statute of frauds waived if:
    • Both parties are merchants
    • Writing claims there is a contract
    • Writing is signed
    • Writing included quantity
    • Other party fails to object in 10 days of receipt

Part performance of contract for sale of goods

  • Satisfied statute of frauds:
    • To the extent of part performance

​​Specially manufactured goods

  • Statute of frauds waived if:
    • Seller made substantial beginning of manufacture

Judicial admission

  • Statute of frauds waived if:
    • Party admits under oath there was a contract
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148
Q

CONT DISPUTE WARRANTY

statute of limitations for breach of warranty?

A

4 years from tender of delivery, unless:

Explicitly extended, in which case:
4 years from when breach is discovered or should have been discovered

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149
Q

CONT UCC

Statute of limitations warranty UCC

A

four years 8.2-725(1)

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150
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

Sue manufacturer as well as seller?

A

Yes, but limited to x warranty

Must then give separate notice of warranty failure and opportunity to cure

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151
Q

CONT FORM TERM OFFER

Termination of offer - causes

A

Lapse of time
Revocation
Rejection
Death

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152
Q

CONT UCC defenses

A

Not a merchant - infrequent sales

Tardy notice

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153
Q

CONT UCC

Defnition of merchant

A

A person who either:

Deals in good of the kind
Holds himself out as having knowledge/skill particular to the goods

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154
Q

CONT UCC Firm offer duration

A

3 months unless otherwise stated or less is reasonable

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155
Q

CONT SOF UCC

A

$500
But remember performance - accepting goods validates
Also, actual manufacture of custom goods does not require a writing

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156
Q

CONT UCC

statute of limitations

A

4 years

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157
Q

CONT UCC FORM

Under the UCC, what happens when conflicting terms are added to a contract?

A

Majority (including Virginia)

Knock out doctrine
The conflicting terms cancel each other out, and the UCC fills in the gaps

Minority

Offeror’s terms control and offeree’s conflicting terms drop out

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158
Q

CONT UCC FORM

Under the UCC, when do additional terms become part of the contracts?

A

When:

Both parties are merchants
Additional terms do not materially alter the contract
Offeror does not object within reasonable time

Otherwise:

Agreed terms become part of the contract
Disagreed terms are left out

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159
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

vendor right to cure

A

tender or delivery by the seller is rejected
the time for performance has not yet expired
seller may seasonably notify the buyer of his intention to cure
and may then within the contract time make a conforming delivery.

buyer rejects a non-conforming tender which
the seller had reasonable grounds to believe would be acceptable
with or without money allowance
the seller may have a further reasonable time to substitute a conforming tender.
if he seasonably notifies the buyer

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160
Q

CONT UCC DISPUTE

vendor right to notice

A

If not notified promptly, vendor has defense against claim

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161
Q

CONT UCC WARRANTY

Implied UCC warranties

A

Merchantability
Fitnesss for purpose
Title

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162
Q

CONT DISPUTE FORM

Unconscionable contract

A

judge decides whether at the time of the contracting, there was both:

  • Procedural unconsionability (i.e., unfair bargaining power)
  • Substantive unconscionability (i.e., unfair terms)
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163
Q

CONT FORM

Under common law, what can you not delegate?

A

Duties that arise from:

Special skills
Special reputation

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164
Q

CONT FROM

Undue influence in contracts

A

unfair persuasion rather than coersion

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165
Q

CONT FORM

unilateral contract

A

Contract formed from an offer that requires performance as the method of acceptance

Two examples on bar exam:

Offer that expressly requires performance
Offer of a reward

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166
Q

CONT FORM

Usage of trade as part of contract

A

Terms with respect to which the confirmatory memoranda of the parties agree or which are otherwise set forth in a writing intended by the parties as a final expression of their agreement with respect to such terms as are included therein may not be contradicted by evidence of any prior agreement or of a contemporaneous oral agreement but may be explained or supplemented

(a) by course of performance, course of dealing or usage of trade (§ 8.1A-303); and
(b) by evidence of consistent additional terms unless the court finds the writing to have been intended also as a complete and exclusive statement of the terms of the agreement.

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167
Q

CONT DISPUTE

valuing quasi contract

A

Reasonable value of the services rendered (i.e., quantum meruit)
Extent to which other party’s property increased in value or his other interests were advanced

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168
Q

CONT DISPUTE FORM

Voiding contract for unilateral mistake

A

Generally never, unless:

  • The mistake was obvious (i.e., the other party knew or should have known about it)
  • The mistaken party seeks avoidance before the other party relies on the contract (limited to bid situations)
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169
Q

CONT ICC WARRANTY

Warrangty of Fitness

A

Applies to all sellers, not just merchants
Goods fit for particular purpose for which buyer relied on person selling

Purpose must have been communicated

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170
Q

CONT UCC WARRANTY

Warranty of Merchantability

A

Only by merchants with respect to goods of the kind

Goods fit for ordinary purpose for which used

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171
Q

CONT WARRANTY

Warranty of Title

A

Applies to all sellers

Seller has good title

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172
Q

CONT WARRANTY

Basic warranty types

A
  1. 1 Express warranty.
  2. 2 Implied warranty.
  3. 3 Defects In Materials and Workmanship.
  4. 4 Satisfaction guarantee.
  5. 5 Lifetime warranty.
  6. 6 Breach of warranty.
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173
Q

CONT What are “goods”

A

Moveable property 8.2-105(1)

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174
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What are incidental damages?

A

Costs incurred in a reasonable effort to avoid loss resulting from the breach

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175
Q

CONT DIPSUTE

What are the consequences of incapacity?

A

The contract is voidable - i.e., incapacitated party can disaffirm

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176
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What are the elements of promisorry estoppel?

A

Promise

Reliance that is both:

  • Foreseeable
  • Justifiable

Enforcement is necessary to avoid injustice

NOT RECOGNIZED IN VA FOR AFFIRMATIVE RELIEF

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177
Q

CONT ASSIGN

What are the limits on assignment?

A

Assignment cannot substantially change the duties of the obligor

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178
Q

CONT ASSIGN

What are the requirements for assignment?

A

Must have language of present assignment
I assign, not I promise to assign

Must be in writing if:

  • Wage assignment
  • Assignment of interest in land
  • Assignment of choses in action > - – $5,000
  • Assignments intended as security interests
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179
Q

CONT ASSIGN
What are the requirements for delegation?

(Actually, what is not required)

A

Consent of obligee not required (unlike novation)

Consideration not required

But:
No consideration
-Delegate can’t be liable

Consideration
-Delegate can be liable

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180
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What are the requirements for revocation?

A

Noncomformity substantially impairs value to buyer

Excusable ignorance of grounds for revocation, or reasonable reliance on seller’s assurances

Revocation within reasonable time after discovery of noncomformity

Revocation before substantial change in condition of goods not caused by defect

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181
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What are the ways in which performance can be excused by agreement of the parties?

A

Modification
- Changes duties under the contract
- Original duties are discharged immediately
- - E.g., paint house three days later
Accord and satisfaction
- Substitution of performance under the contract
- Original duties remain until new performance
- - E.g., paint house instead of paying cash
Rescission
- Discharges all duties under the contract
- Some performance must remain on both sides, otherwise no consideration
Novation
- Substitution of parties under the contract
- Original party is excused immediately
- Requires agreement of:
- - Both parties to original contract
- - New party

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182
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What happens when a TPB’s rights vest?

A

The promisor and promisee can no longer terminate the TPB’s rights

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183
Q

CONT What happens when someone without title (i.e., thief) sells or entrusts goods to a merchant, who then sells them to a customer?

A

The customer does not have good title, and cannot keep the items even if the customer was a buyer in due course

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184
Q

CONT DISPUTE
What happens when you give goods to a merchant who deals in goods of that kind, and the merchant sells those goods without your permission?

A

The merchant has the power to transfer all rights of the entruster to a buyer in due course (i.e., good faith purchaser)

You just sue merchant for conversion

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185
Q

CONT ASSIGN

What if a subsequent assignee notifies the obligor of his rights first?

A

Majority (American rule)

  • Does not matter

Minority (English rule)

  • Subsequent assignee gets priority
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186
Q

CONT TPB

What if a third party was already a creditor of a promisee when the third-party beneficiary contract was entered?

A

The third party is a creditor beneficiary

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187
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What if one uses goods after revocation of acceptance?

A

Not proper, but might commecially reasonable
Must adjust damages for value of unauthorized use.
Create a rental fee as a setoff?

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188
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What if P’s expectation damages are too speculative to measure?

A

Reliance damages may be recovered to return the party to the status quo - i.e., costs spent in preparation for performance

E.g., profit that would have been earned had the contract been performed may be very speculative, so reimburse the party for costs incurred

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189
Q

CONT FORM

What is a condition coupled with a covenant?

A

Condition that is in some way within the control of one party, and therefore creates an obligation on that party to make a good faith effort to cause the event to occur

E.g., obtaining financing

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190
Q

CONT FORM

What is a constructive condition?

A

A condition by operation of law

E.g., each party’s substantial performance of the contract

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191
Q

CONT FORM

What is a force majeure clause?

A

Excuses performance on the occurence of specific types of events

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192
Q

CONT DAMAGE

What is a lost volume seller?

A

Seller whose supply was greater than demand

So, if there is a breach, seller could have sold the original item and another

So, seller gets lost profits

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193
Q

CONT FORM

What is a sale on approval?

A

When a buyer takes possession of goods for a trial period

Risk does not shift until the buyer formally accepts

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194
Q

CONT FORM

What is an installment sales contract?

A

Requires or authorizes:

Delivery in separate lots
To be separately accepted

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195
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What is anticipatory repudiation?

What is the effect?

A

When one party manifests before his performance is due that he cannot or will not perform his duty

Effect:

Excuses other party’s duty to perform
Provides an immediate claim to damages for breach
Unless non-repudiating party fully performed
In which case, must wait until actual breach

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196
Q

CONT DIPSUTE

What is negative specific performance?

A

When a court of equity prevents a party from working for someone else because he breached a service contract

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197
Q

CONT UCC WARRANTY

What is required to waive a UCC warranty

A

Prominent type - bold - capital letters - two sizes larger
Specificity as to what waiver is being waived
Phrase SOLD AS IS

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198
Q

CONT What is the difference between creating a third party beneficiary and assigning your rights?

A

Assignment substitutes a party, TPB adds someone who can sue

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199
Q

CONT DIPSUTE

What is the difference between intended and incidental beneficiaries?

How can you tell?

A

Only intended beneficiaries have contract rights as TPB

Look at the intention of the parties, including:

  • Whether TPB is expressly designated in contract
  • Whether performance by promisor is directly to TPB
  • Whether TPB has rights under the contract
  • Relationship between promisee and TPB
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200
Q

CONT FORM

What is the difference in terms of the effectiveness of acceptance and revocation?

A

Revocation - effective when received

Acceptance - effective when posted

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201
Q

CONT ASSIGN

What is the distinction between prohibition and invalidation of assignments?

A

If the contract only prohibits assignments, the assignor is in breach after assigning, but the assignment is still valid

The contract must specifically state that assignments are invalid for that to be the case

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202
Q

CONT SOF FORM

What is the equal dignity rule with respect to the statute of frauds?

A

If a contract is subject to the statute of frauds, and therefore must be in writing, you must have a writing in order to authorize someone else to sign it for you

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203
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What is the general measure of damages for ordinary contracts?

A

Expectation damages - i.e., put the non-breaching party in as good a position as if the contract had been performed

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204
Q

CONT ASSIGN

What is the general rule regarding the priority of assignments for consideration?

A

First in time, first in right, unless:

Subsequent assignee takes assignment without notice of prior assignments and it either:
Is first to obtain payment from obligor
Is first to obtain judgment against obligor
Enters into new contract with obligor by novation
Gets a token or writing from obligor, surrender of which is required by obligor’s contract
It can use estoppel against first assignee

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205
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What is the remedy for promissory estoppel?

A

The remedy is limited to what justice requires

So, it may be limited to the extent of reliance

NOT RECOGNIZED IN VA FOR AFFIRMATIVE RELIEF

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206
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What is the rule regarding mitigation?

A

A party cannot recover damages that could have reasonably been avoided

However, a party is not required to take steps that involve:

Undue burden
Risk
Humiliation

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207
Q

CONT DISPUTE DAMAGES

What is the standard for determining the reasonableness of damages?

A

Damages must be reasonably certain (i.e., mathematical precision not necessary)

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208
Q

CONT UCC FORM

What is the standard for the performance of sale of goods contracts under UCC Article 2?

A

Perfect tender - i.e., seller must deliver perfect goods

If not, buyer can reject whole, accept, whole, or accept part

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209
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What is the standard used if an express condition involves personal taste?

A

Subjective good faith (i.e., objective reasonable person irrelevant)

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210
Q

CONT DISPUTE

What is the standard used to determine if a party satisfied a condition?

A

Express condition
- Strict compliance

Constructive condition
- Substantial performance

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211
Q

CONT SOF FORM

What makes an executor promise subject to the statute of frauds?

A

Must be a promise by executor to pay his own funds for an obligation of the estate

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212
Q

CONT FORM

When are liquidated damages valid?

A

Liquidated damages are enforceable if:

At time of contract, damages difficult to estimate
At time of contract, provision reasonable forecast of possible damages

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213
Q

CONT DISPUTE

When can a buyer get specific performance for the sale of goods?

A

Either when:

Goods are unique
Other circumstances apply - e.g., inability to cover

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214
Q

CONT When can a gratuitous assignment not be revoked?

A

Obligor already performed
Assignee obtained a judgment against obligor
Assignee entered a new contract with obligor by novation
Assignee reasonably relied on assignment

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215
Q

CONT When can a party revoke offer

A

Anytime before acceptance, unless:

Option contract
Promise to keep offer open
Supported by consideration
UCC firm offer
Contract for the sale of goods
Written promise to keep offer open
Made by a merchant
Reliance
Must be reasonably foreseeable 
Performance
​Must be on a unilateral contract only
Must be more than mere preparation
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216
Q

CONT When can a seller cure an imperfect tender?

A

Limited remedy clause gives contractual right to cure

Time for performance not expired

Time for performance expired, but reasonable basis for believing improper tender was acceptable

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217
Q

CONT DISPUTE

When can a seller retain rights in goods it sells if it is not paid?

A

If the seller has either:

A security interest
A right to reclamation

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218
Q

CONT When can partial payment be consideration for a promise to forgive the balance of debt?

A

Only when the debt is either:

Not yet due
Disputed
E.g., the release of the remaining balance is enforceable if the promisor pays any amount that is either disputed or not due

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219
Q

CONT When can price be left out of a contract?

When is it required?

A

Real estate contract

Required
Because real estate is unique
UCC sale of goods

Not required
Because goods are fungible

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220
Q

CONT When do a TPB’s rights vest?

A

Either:

When the TPB brings suit to enforce the promise
When the TPB materially changes its position in justifiable reliance on the promise
When the TPB manifests assent to the promise in a way invited or requested by the promisor and promisee

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221
Q

CONT When does an offer terminate?

A

After a reasonable time under the circumstances

2 years - yes
2 weeks - probably
2 days - no

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222
Q

CONT DISPUTE

When does an unpaid seller have a right to reclamation?

A

When:

Credit sale

Buyer insolvent when received goods

Demand for return made either:

  • Within 10 days of buyer’s receipt
  • Within reasonable time if buyer lied about solevency
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223
Q

CONT When does revocation become effective?

A

When the revocation is received (i.e., mailbox rule does not apply)

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224
Q

CONT When does risk of loss shift when a buyer takes goods on consignment?

A

Same rules as normal goods (i.e., merchant - receipt; non-merchant - tender)

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225
Q

CONT When has a buyer accepted goods?

A

When, after reasonable opportunity for inspection, buyer indicates that either:

  • The goods conform
  • She will keep them even if they don’t conform

Buyer fails to make an effective rejection

Buyer acts inconsistent with seller’s ownership

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226
Q

CONT When is a party excused by reason of frustration of purpose?

A

Post-contract occurrence
Not reasonable foreseeable at time of contracting
Totally or nearly destroys purpose or value of contract
Purpose was known to both parties at contracting

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227
Q

CONT When is a party excused by reason of impossibility or impracticability?

A

Post-contract occurence
Not reasonably foreseeable at time of contracting
Not a risk assumed by either party
Renders performance impossible or impracticable
Without fault of party seeking to be excused

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228
Q

CONT When rejecting goods, does a buyer have to explain why he is rejecting?

A

Generally, no but he probably should.

If the buyer doesn’t, the buyer cannot rely on an unstated defect to justify rejection to establish breach:

If seller could have cured
If both parties are merchants and seller requested in writing for a full and final written statement of defects

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229
Q

CONT When the person is specific to the contract

E.g., person is necessary to the contract

A

When the person is specific to the contract

E.g., person is necessary to the contract

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230
Q

CONT When will a condition be excused?

A

Look to see if the person protected by the condition (i.e., person who benefits from it) has done or said anything to justify taking it away

Failure to make good faith effort to satisfy condition
- E.g., obtain financing

Estoppel

  • Person says something before condition arises
  • Other person changes position in reliance

Waiver
- Person says something after condition arises

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231
Q

CONT When will the courts imply the quantity for a contract?

A

Requirements contract:
-Buyer agrees to buy all of its good faith requirements

Output contract:
- Buyer agrees to buy all of the seller’s good faith output

Limitations:

  • Must be reasonably proportionate to either:
    • Stated estimate
    • Normal or comparable prior requirements/output
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232
Q

CONT Where is a financing statement filed

A

State Corporation Commission (Richmond) unless there is an exception. Different for a fixture attach property

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233
Q

CONT Who has the burden to plead:

Condition precedent

Condition subsequent

A

Precedent - plaintiff

Subsequent - defendant

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234
Q

CONT Why is it necessary to identify installment sales contracts?

A

Buyer can only reject an installment if there is:

Substantial impairment
That cannot be cured

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235
Q

CONT Wrongful exercise of ownership

A

constitutes conversion, liable for value not price

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236
Q

CREDIT COLLECT

Attachment joint bank accounts

A

In Virginia, creditors are allowed to attach to bank accounts held in common. If the holders are H/W, each is rebutably presumed to hold 50%. Otherwise, relative ownership is determinied by the net of individual contributions and withdrawals

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237
Q

CREDIT

Define Insolvency

A

In Virginia law, “insolvent” or “insolvency” means incapable of meeting the current demands of creditors or having liabilities which, in total, exceed the book value of assets.

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238
Q

CREDIT COLLECTIONS

Filing a Claim - Process

A

In Virginia, in order for a judgment that has been rendered in favor of a creditor to become enforceable, the creditor must file the judgment in the circuit for which it was rendered for it to be docketed. The judgment is valid and may attach a lien on the debtor’s property even if located in a different jurisdiction, however the creditor must enforce through the circuit court in which the debtor’s property is located. A creditor may do this through an abstract of judgment in the circuit court where the debtor’s property is located. That jurisdiction may then issue a writ of execution for property of the debtor’s to be seized in order to pay off the judgment.

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239
Q

CREDIT Gratuitious transfer by insolvent

A

In Virginia, a gratuitious tranfer of assets to antoher party by an insolvement is a voidable transfer, but does not automatically constitute fraud against the creditor.

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240
Q

CREDIT Joint Assets

A

Virginia recognizes tenancy by the entirety which is the co-ownership of property that is reserved exclusively for married couples. In addition, marital property that is owned by both husband and wife is exempt from the claims of individual creditors. Meaning, that creditors of either only the husband or only the wife may not receive payment through a lien on property owned by both husband and wife jointly. The only creditors who may go after the marital property are creditors of the husband and wife jointly.

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241
Q

CREDIT Joint Bank Accounts

A

In Virginia, jointly owned bank accounts may be subject to the individual creditor of one owner if the funds in that account can be reasonably separated from the funds of the other owner. If such funds can be traced to the debtor, the creditor may place a lien on that account despite the joint ownership. there is a rebuttable presumption that the spouses contributed equally to the account,

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242
Q

CREDIT Legal status of funds deposited w law firm

A

Funds deposited with a law firm as credits against future legal fees and expesnese remain property of client until fees earned and expenses incurred. As such the deposit is subject to garnishment by creditors.

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243
Q

CREDIT Reaching LLC owned by debtor

A

A creditor seeking to collect from a debtor can get a charging order against income and distributions to the debtor from an LLC controlled by the debtor, but not against LLC itself.

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244
Q

CREDIT Reaching property held tennants in common

A

If takes more that five years to get satisfcation, can seek partition and sale

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245
Q

CREDIT Sale for fair value by insolvent

A

A sale by of property for fair value by a debtor is not voidable by the creditor if the value of the property is stil held by the debtor in a different form (e.g., cash).

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246
Q

CREDIT PRIORITY

Secured Asset PMSI

A

Under UCC article 9 as applied by Virginia, a purchase money security interest takes priority over a judgment lien if it attaches before the lien and is perfected.

A PMSI is created when a secured party gives the debtor value in order to purchase the collateral. Perfection for consumer goods, those used for household or personal use, is automatic upon the attachment of the security interest and is also permanent.

However, in Virginia there is a special requirement for cars which require that a lien be registered in the title office in which the car is registered (the Department of motor vehicles).

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247
Q

CREDIT COLLECTIONS

Transfers when insolvevent

A

Transfers by an insolvent to a creditor whose claim predeeded the onset of insolvency are not presumptively fraudulent.

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248
Q

CREDIT DISPUTE

Standard of proof for civil fraud

A

To prove fraud in a civil case requres clear and convincing evidence, a higher standard than the presponderance of the evidence more typical in civil proceedings.

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249
Q

CRIM capital murder

A

willful, deliberate,premeditated

14 specific situations

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250
Q

CRIM Accelerating cause

A

can change “actual” cause

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251
Q

CRIM accessory before the fact – .

A

one who was not present at the time of the commission of the crime but who encouraged, incited, or aided in its commission, with knowledge of the intent of the principal

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252
Q

CRIM accessory before the fact – .

A

accessory before the fact – .

punishable as if a principal in the first degree [Va. Code §18.2-18].

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253
Q

CRIM Accomplice liability elements

A

aiding or abetting

with intent that crime be committed

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254
Q

CRIM Accomplice withdrawal

A

discouraging negated encouraging

negating aid required

  • neutralizing the aid
  • preventing the crime (call police)
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255
Q

CRIM actual causation

A

“but for” test of relevance of defendant conduct

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256
Q

CRIM AGGRAVATED assault and battery

A

use of a weapon’
involves child, elderly, handicapped (vulnerable)
intent to commit robbery or rape

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257
Q

CRIM Agreement to search vehicle implications

A

Officer can look anywhere, including glove box and floorboards. Trunk?

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258
Q

CRIM Alford plea

A

an accused to consent to being convicted without admitting that he committed the offense, but acknowledging his awareness of the quantity of evidence against him and that he did not want to take a chance on a jury trial.

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259
Q

CRIM alternative insanity defenses

A

M’Naughten
Irresistable impulse
Product
MPC

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260
Q

CRIM an accessory after the fact

A

learned of the plan and the act only after the fact.

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261
Q

CRIM appliction of continuing trespass

A

relevant to larceny

no relevant to burglary

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262
Q

CRIM CRIME Attempt

Elements

A

Attempt in an inchoate crime. By definition, the crime of attempt is not completed. In the Commonwealth, an attempt occurs when someone

1) has the specific intent to commit a crime and
2) takes a direct act that falls short of committing the ultimate crime.

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263
Q

CRIM classes of felonies in Virginia

A
F1: death or life in prison
F2: 20 years to life
F3: 5-20 years
F4: 2-10 years
F5: 1-10 years, or
      up to 1 year and/or up to $2,500
F6: 1-5 years, or
      up to 1 year and/or up to $2,500
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264
Q

CRIM common law arson elements

A

malicious
burning
(material wasting)

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265
Q

CRIM common law catergories accomplice liability

A
principal first degree
principal second degree
- present and
-- assisting and/or encouraging
accessory before the fact
accessory after the fact
- separate crime after the crime
- avoid arrest or conviction
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266
Q

CRIM common law homicide types

A

murder
voluntary manslaughter
involuntary manslaughter

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267
Q

CRIM common law mental states

A

specific intent
malice
general intent
strict liability

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268
Q

CRIM Common law theft crimes

A
larceny
embezzlement
false pretenses
larceny by trick
robbery
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269
Q

CRIM CRIME Conspiracy

A

Conspiracy is an inchoate crime. It is an agreement between two people to commit a felony. It does not matter if the crime is ultimately committed because crime of conspiracy is committed once the agreement is formed. In Virginia, a conspiracy can only be formed between two guilty minds. Additionally, in Virginia, a conspiracy does not require an overt act

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270
Q

CRIM Continuing trespass

A

Wrongful taking of property without intent to steal

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271
Q

CRIM “control” of contraband

A

constructive possession =

close enough to exercise dominion and control

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272
Q

CRIM CRIME bribery

A

giving or receiving a corrupt gift or other offer
to/as public official/candidate
with intent to influence official acts

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273
Q

CRIM CRIME concealing/compounding offences

A

taking money to compound, conceal, or not presecute

concealing or destroying evidence with intent to hinder prosecution

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274
Q

CRIM CRIME elements of common law felony murder

A
guilty underlying felony
felony inherently dangerous
felony separate from the killing
killing during felony or immediate flight
must be in furtherance of the felony
must be forseeable
victim is NOT a co-felon
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275
Q

CRIM CRIME false imprisonment

A

unlawful
confinement of a person
without that person’s consent

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276
Q

CRIM CRIME False reports

A

taking money to compound, conceal, or not presecute

concealing or destroying evidence with intent to hinder prosecution

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277
Q

CRIM CRIME Homicide - involuntray manslaughter

A

accidental killing, contrary to intentions, during

  • the performance of a non-felony
  • improper performance of lawful act w criminal negligence
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278
Q

CRIM CRIME Homicide - Manslaughter

A
unlawful killing
without malice (heat of passion)
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279
Q

CRIM CRIME Homicide
Involuntary Manslaughter

elements of common law involuntary manslaughter

A

killing with

  • criminal negligence
  • during a crime if not felony murder
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280
Q

CRIM CRIME Kidnapping

A

false imprisonment plus

  • moving the victim
  • concealing the victim in a secret place

aggravated if purpose is
- colllect ransom
- commit robbery of rape
or if victim is a child

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281
Q

CRIM CRIME Kidnapping

A
by force, intimidation, or deception
without legal justification or excuse
seize, detain, take, transport, secret
another person
with intent to either
- deprive such person of liberty
- withold or conceal person from another person, authority, or institution lawfully entitled to his charge
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282
Q

CRIM CRIME obstruction of justice

A

attempt to intimidate

  • witness
  • officer of the court
  • law enforcement officer

willful false statement or representation

  • to law enforcement
  • in the course of an investigation
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283
Q

CRIM CRIME perjury and consequence

A

willful false swearing under oath of material matter
OR
subsequently giving conflicting testimony under oath on same matter (doesn’t matter which is untrue)

Added consequences

  • can not hold public office
  • can not serve as juror
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284
Q

CRIM CRIME resisting arrest

A

preventing a law enforcement officer, with or without a warrant, from making a lawful arrest

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285
Q

CRIM CRIME subornation of perjury

A

inducing another to give false facts

inducer can be punised as perjurer

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286
Q

CRIM CRIME
Attempt

Common law attempt elements

A

MPC - substantial act AND corroborative of criminal purpose

Common law - “dangerously close” to commission of crime

Virginia - like MPC

  • direct act
  • with intent to commit crime
  • but falling short of crime itself
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287
Q

CRIM CRIME
Attempt

Crime not subject to attempt

A

Reckless crimes
Negligent crimes
Felony murder

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288
Q

CRIM CRIME
Conspiracy

conspiritor vicarious liability

A

all acts of co-conspirators
related to conspiracy
are forseeable as a consequence

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289
Q

CRIM CRIME

elements of voluntary manslaughter

A
intentional killing
in the heat of passiion
after adequate provocation 
- to arrouse intense passion
- without time to cool off
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290
Q

CRIM CRIME
Failure to Act

Criminal liability for failure to act

A
legal duty to act
- statute
- contract
- relationship (spouse, child)
- assumption of duty
- creation of peril
knowledge of the facts
ability to help
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291
Q

CRIM CRIME
Homicide

Degrees of murder - majority view

A

First degree
- any killling with premeditation and deliberation
- plus felony murder (enumerated felonies)
Second degree
- all others

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292
Q

CRIM CRIME

inchoate offenses

A

solicitation
conspiracy
attempt

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293
Q

CRIM CRIME
Principals

accessory after fact and principal in second degree in felony cases

A

treated as principals

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294
Q

CRIM CRIME
Punishment

death penalty

A

actual murderer
principals and accessories
- murder for hire
- terrorism

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295
Q

CRIM Crimes attributablle to accomplice

A

Crimes

  • aided
  • encouraged
  • reasonably should have foreseen
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296
Q

CRIM crimes sufficiently specific

A

crimes against person

crimes against property

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297
Q

CRIM Crimes that do not merge

A

when each crime has an element the other crime does not have

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298
Q

CRIM CRIME
Solicitation

elements of solicitation

A

asking someone else to commit crime

with intent crime be committed

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299
Q

CRIM CRIME
Virginia Bad Check

“present consideration” versus post-dated check

A

Post-dated check is not present check

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300
Q

CRIM CRIME
Virginia Bad Check

“present consideration” versus making payment on an existing debt

A

Can’t “take” something you already have

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301
Q

CRIM Criminal Generic Answer

A

Elements

Felony vs Misdemeanor

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302
Q

CRIM Deady weapon inference

A

initional use of deadly weapon creates inference of intent to kill

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303
Q

CRIM DEFENSE duress

A
crime committed caused by a third party
forced to commit crime
under threat of 
- death
- serious physical injuct
can not excuse homicide
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304
Q

CRIM DEFENSE entrapment defense in Virginia

A

only if

  • criminal design was originated by government
  • defendant not predispsed to commit crime

in Virginia, can use prior crimes to show predispostion if prior crimes

  • close in time
  • similar
  • probabtive value outweighs prejudice
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305
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Insanity

Virginia test for insanity

A

defendant can argue on of these

  • M’Naughton
  • Irresistable impulse
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306
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Insanity

procedural requirements for insanity

A

Notice to state of intent to plead
- at least 60 days prior to trial

Burden of proof
- prove insanity to the satisfaction of the jury

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307
Q

CRIM DEFENSE intoxication in Virginia

A

involuntary intox a defense to anything
- follow insanity rules

voluntary intoxication
- can be a defense to premeditation

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308
Q

CRIM DEFENSE necessity

A

crime committed to prevent greater harm

based on reasonable belief conduct was ncessary, but can not excuse homicide

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309
Q

CRIM defense of dwelling

A

non-deadly

  • reasonably believed needed to
    • prevent unlawful entry
    • terminate unlawful entry

deadly

  • reasonably beleived necessary to prvent
    • personal attack on self or other
    • entry by someone who plans to commit felony

Virginia
- deadly force only when fearing great bodily injury

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310
Q

CRIM defense of others

A

common law
- only if defendant reasonably believed victim had right to self defense

Virginia
- only if defendant actually had legal right to use self-defense

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311
Q

CRIM defense of property

A

non deadly

  • need is imminent
  • while in immediate pursuit

deadly
- never

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312
Q

CRIM DEFENSE

capacity defenses

A

insanity
intoxication
infancy

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313
Q

CRIM DEFENSE

Impossibility defense

A

Factual impossibility does not count as defense
- pocket has no wallet in it.

Legal impossibility does count
- baby powder is not heroin no matter what you think

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314
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Insanity

MPC test insanity

A

lacked the capacity to either

  • appreciate the criminality of his conduct
  • conform his conduct to the law
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315
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Insanity test

Irresistable impluse test

A

test xxx

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316
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Insanity test

product test insanity

A

was crime a product of his insanity

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317
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Insanity

Differentiate insanity vs incompetence

A

commit crime versus stand trial

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318
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Insanity

M’Naughton test

A

either:

  • did not know act was wrong
  • did nou understand the nature of the act
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319
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Involuntary Act

Physical act requirement exceptions

A
sleepwalking
reflex or convulsion
- blackout on meds once, not an act
- after that, on notice, so responsible for controlling
someone else moves defendant
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320
Q

CRIM Defenses to accomplice

A

Mere presence
Mere knowledge
Victim

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321
Q

CRIM DEFENSE
Withdrawal

Withdrawal from incohate crime

A

common law - protects only from after-withdrawal crimes

MPC - requires

  • voluntary and complete renunciation
  • based on change of heart not fear of apprehension
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322
Q

CRIM Definitiion of murder

A

killing with malice.

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323
Q

CRIM detaining all persons in stop

A

always permitted

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324
Q

CRIM doct􏰀rine of 􏰀ransferred int􏰀en􏰀t

A

mens rea remains even though the actus reus was suffered by unintended victim

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325
Q

CRIM eggshell victim doctrine

A

defendent takes his victim as he finds him

pre-existing weakness in victim not a defense in criminal law

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326
Q

CRIM element of malicious mischief in Virginia

A

destroying or damaging the property of another

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327
Q

CRIM elements of conspiracy in Virginia

A

proof beyond a reasonable doubt of

  1. an agreement to commit a felony, and
    2 the intent by the defendant to commit that felony

No overt act required

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328
Q

CRIM elements of common law assault

A

Attempted battery (swing and miss)

Fake punch

  • intentional creation
  • beyond mere words
  • reasonable apprehension
  • imminent bodily harm
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329
Q

CRIM Elements of abduction

A

CRIM \when a person by force or intimidation seizes, takes, transports or detains another person with intent to deprive that person of liberty. Va. Code §18.2-47

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330
Q

CRIM elements of common law battery

A
unlawful
application of force to another
resulting in 
- bodily injury, or
- offensive touching
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331
Q

CRIM elements of common law burglary

A
breaking
entering (some part of body)
dwelling (where someone sleeps)
of another
at night
with intent to commit a felony inside
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332
Q

CRIM elements of common law embezzlement

A

conversion
property of another
by person already in lawful possession
with intent to defraud

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333
Q

CRIM elements of common law murder

A
causing death'
of another
with malice aforethough
- intent to kill
- intent do great physical harm
- extreme recklessness (depraved heart)
- felony murder
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334
Q

CRIM elements of common law possession

A
  1. control for a long enough period of time to be able
  2. to terminate possession
  3. of contraband that is specifically criminalized
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335
Q

CRIM elements of common law robbery

A

larceny
from a person or in person’s presence
by force or threat of immediate injury

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336
Q

CRIM CRIME

elements of conspiracy

A
agreement
between two or more persons
to commit a crime
plus an overt act in furtherance of the crime 
(No overt act in Virginia)
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337
Q

CRIM Elements of embezzlement

A

Entrustment of possession
Taking
Intent to permanently deprive

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338
Q

CRIM Elements of extortion

A

Threaten injury in exchange for acquision less that fair value

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339
Q

CRIM Elements of extortion in Virginia

A

Either:

  • threatening injury to another
  • accusing another of an office
    in order to extort money, property, benefit, note
  • sending note or email threatning to kill or do great bodily harm to victim or family.
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340
Q

CRIM elements of false pretenses

A
obtaining TITLE (rather than possession)
to the property of another
by intentional false statement
with intent to defraud
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341
Q

CRIM Elements of false statement in false pretenses

A

knowingly false statement regarding

past / present / (future) event

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342
Q

CRIM elements of felony homicide

A

accidental killing while committing a non-enumerated felony - where there is a causal connection

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343
Q

CRIM Elements of forgery

A

making or altering a writing
so that it is false
with intent to defraud

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344
Q

CRIM elements of larceny

A
trespassory (wrong or no permission)
taking and carrying away
personal property
of another
intent to permanently deprive (steal)
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345
Q

CRIM Elements of robbery

A

taking, with the intent to deprive the owner or custodian, permanently, of personal property, from his person or in his presence, against his will, by force, threat or intimidation

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346
Q

CRIM Elements of uttering

A

offering as genuine
a forged instrument
with intent to defraud

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347
Q

CRIM elements second degree murder

A

assumed 2nd degree if not raised or lowered

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348
Q

CRIM Elements to common law forcible rape

A
Sex
w/o victims consent
accomplished by
- force
- threat of force
- unconscious
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349
Q

CRIM entrapment

A

the conception and planning of an offense by an officer, and his procurement of its commission by one who would not have perpetrated it except for the trickery, persuasion, or fraud of the officer

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350
Q

CRIM Erroneous takings rule

A

Taking under a claim of right is not larceny

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351
Q

CRIM felonies w felony murder in Virginia

A
7.
four unique
-arson
-robbery
-burglary
-abductpon
three sexual 
-inantimate object sex pentration
-rape
-forcible sodomy
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352
Q

CRIM felony / misdemeanor dividing line

A

OVER one year incarceration

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353
Q

CRIM felony embezzlement

A

[1] wrongful conversion to his own use the property of another with the intent to permanently deprive the rightful owner of the use thereof: and
[2] that the property had been entrusted to the defendant by another ; and
[3] the value of the property was $200.00 or mor

354
Q

CRIM Felony murder magic words

A

inherently dangerous enterprise

355
Q

CRIM Felony vs Misdemeanor - Property

A

OVer $500 - Felony

356
Q

CRIM First degree murder

A

non-capital murder involving

  • poison
  • lying in wait
  • imprisonment
  • starvation
  • willful, deliberate, premeditatted not in capital murder
357
Q

CRIM general intent crimes

A

battery
false imprisonment
kidnapping
forcible rape

358
Q

CRIM general intent defined

A

only generally aware of factors of crime
no specific result needed
doing of the act sufficient to establish general intent

359
Q

CRIM Generic criminal defenses

A
insanity
intoxication
infancy
self defense (self, others, property)
necessity / duress
entrapment
mistake of fact or law
360
Q

CRIM Generic elements of crime

A

physical act
mental state
causation
concurrence

361
Q

CRIM have person exit car

A

always permitted for officer safety

362
Q

CRIM Hearsay evidence and conspiracy

A

Statements in furtherance of a conspiracy admissible against all conspirators

363
Q

CRIM Impoundment

A

Discovery of items during a police impoundment inventory is a legal search

364
Q

CRIM Inference from small bills

A

Intent to distribute

365
Q

CRIM Intervening causes doctrine

A

UNFORSEEABLE intervening event causes the bad result

366
Q

CRIM Joinder of Offenses.

A

Two or more offenses, any of which may be a felony or misdemeanor, may be charged in separate counts of an indictment or information if the offenses are based on the same act or transaction, or on two or more acts or transactions that are connected or constitute parts of a common scheme or plan.

367
Q

CRIM larcenty vs embezzlement

A

possession requires authority to control
e.g., teller does not have possession of cash
so cannot commit embezzlement, only larceny

368
Q

CRIM Larceny and robbery in Virginia

A

Larceny a lesser-included offense in robbery
(Means automatically included?)
Unique in Virginia (so what?)

369
Q

CRIM larceny by trick

A

obtain possession

by intentional false statement

370
Q

CRIM Larceny in Virginia

A

Same as these variants in common law

  • larceny
  • embezzlement
  • false presenses
371
Q

CRIM Levels of larceny in Virginia

A

Grand larceny

  • Taking from another more than $5
  • Taking not from another $200 or any firearm

Petit larceny
- all else

372
Q

CRIM Malice

A

Defendant acts

  • intentionally, or
  • reckless disregard of obvious or known risk
373
Q

CRIM Malice crimes

A

murder

arson

374
Q

CRIM Malice”

A

state of mind which results in the intentional doing of a wrongful act to another without legal excuse or justification, at a time when the mind of the actor is under the control of reason

may be inferred from any deliberate, willful, and cruel act against another, however sudden

375
Q

CRIM malicious wounding

A

maliciously shoot, stab, cut, or wound any person or by any means cause him bodily injury with the intent to maim, disfigure, disable or kill, he shall . . . be guilty of a Class 3 felony

376
Q

CRIM meaning of concurrence in criminal liability

A

mental state as same time as the act

mostly an issue in larceny and burglary

377
Q

CRIM CONCEPTS

Meaning of force in robbery

A

force capable of overcoming resistance

so pickpocket is not robbery, just larceny

378
Q

CRIM meaning of in person’s presence

A

in vicitims vicinity, including anywhere in victim’s house while victim is in it.

379
Q

CRIM Mistake of fact defenses

A

Any honest mistake specific intent
- e.g., mistaken belief of ownership in burglary
Reasonable honest mistake general intent
- e.g., consent to forcible rape (not statutory)
No mistake defense to strict liability

380
Q

CRIM mistake of law as a defense

A

Generally not

Exceptions

  • knowledge is an element of offense
  • statute was not available
  • defendant was relying on prior statute overruled/unconstitutional
  • reliance on OFFICIAL w enforcement/admin/interpret duties
381
Q

CRIM model penal code mental states

A
  1. intentionally (purposefully)
  2. knowingly (willfully)
  3. recklessly (conscious disregard of risk)
  4. negligently (should have known substantial/unjustified risk)
382
Q

CRIM multistate sources of criminal law

A

common law
model penal code
majority statutory rules

383
Q

CRIM Murder degrees

A

In Virginia, all homicides are presumed to be second degree murders. It is the prosecutor’s burden to increase the charge to first degree murder, and the defendant’s burden to reduce it to voluntary manslaughter. To be charged with first degree murder, the prosecution most prove that the killing was premediated, willful and deliberate. The statute also specifically references circumstances such as lying in wait with respect to first degree murder. The defense would need to show that the crime was in the heat of passion in order to reduce the charge to voluntary manslaughter.

384
Q

CRIM Murder in the first degree in Virginia

A

other than capital murder,
by poison, lying in wait, imprisonment, starving, or by any willful, deliberate, and premeditated killing, or in the commission of, or attempt to commit….

385
Q

CRIM participation in conspiracy

A

common law required two villians

modern law villian and undercover agent enough

386
Q

CRIM PENALTY

classes of misdemeanors in Virginia

A

MD1: up to 1 year and/or up to $2500
MD2: up to 6 months and/or $1000
MD3: up to $500
MD4: up to $250

387
Q

CRIM Possession of narcotics (gun, or whatever) definition

A

Is possession, not ownership

388
Q

CRIM Presuemed larceny

A

Unexplained and exculsive possession of recently stolen property

389
Q

CRIM Principal conviction required to convict accomplice

A

Common law - yes

Modern view - no, but does require proof that crime was committed

390
Q

CRIM principal in the second degree

A

(an aider and abettor)

under Virginia law is punishable as if a principal in the first degree [18.2-18].

391
Q

CRIM Principal second degree magic words

A

assisted and encouraged

392
Q

CRIM Probable cause to search person

A

Nervous behaviour of driver, including hand in pocket (weapon potential) allows pat down

393
Q

CRIM Probable cause to search person not

A

Suspicious behavior of someone else

394
Q

CRIM Probable cause to stop car

A

Traffic violation in view of officer

Doesn’t matter if something else attracted officer’s attention

395
Q

CRIM Proof of conspiracy intent

A

No overt act required in Virginia

396
Q

CRIM proximate causation

A

natural and probable result of conduct

  • forseeability
  • fairness
397
Q

CRIM require separate trials

A

trying the offenses together may create “spill-over” prejudice, since the jury may conclude that Bob is guilty of one of the crimes simply because they have come to believe he is guilty of the other crime

may wish to testify in his own defense concerning one of the charges, but not the other

398
Q

CRIM resistance againsts arrest

A
11:
assuault
murder first degree
larceny
embezzelment
false presences
robbery
forgery
burlgary
solicitation
conspiracy
attempt
399
Q

CRIM Rights of baliee in search

A

Has right to allow search

Has right to object to search

400
Q

CRIM CRIME Robbery

Elements

A

To convict an offender of a robbery in Virginia the Commonwealth must prove:

  • taking by violence, force, threats or intimidation
  • of personal property
  • from a person or his presence
  • with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of his property.
401
Q

CRIM Search after arrest

A

Arrest makes legal any general search EXCEPT contents of cell phone

402
Q

CRIM Seibert

A

Case invalidating ask first, give Miranda, ask again

403
Q

CRIM Self defence

A

non-deadly

  • rewsonably necessary
  • protect against imminent use
  • unlawful force against

deadly force

  • immediate threat
  • death or serious injury

not available when

  • defendant was the initial aggressor
  • without
    • – reset by complete witdhrawal and
    • – communication of that

mistake permitted

404
Q

CRIM specific intent

A

commit act plus specific result

405
Q

CRIM Specific intent crime against property

A
larceny
embezzlement
forgery
robbery
false pretenses
burglary
406
Q

CRIM specific intent crimes

A

commit act plus specific result

407
Q

CRIM Specific intent incohate crimes

A

solicitation
conspiracy
attempt

408
Q

CRIM Sprecific intent crime against person

A

assault

Murder 1

409
Q

CRIM SUB Stolen Property

A

The rightful owner of stolen property will have good title to the property as against the rest of the world.
The true owner of property that has been stolen is under no duty to reimburse, or make whole, the parties who have subsequently purchased his stolen property. The true owner’s rights are superior to all others, and even a party who unknowingly purchased stolen property may be liable for conversion.

410
Q

CRIM strict liability

A

only act required - no mental state

411
Q

CRIM strict liability crimes

A
public welfare (alcohol to minor, contaminated food)
statutory rape
412
Q

CRIM Tests for Miranda

A
  1. Defendant in custody

2. Statements in response to interrogation

413
Q

CRIM Threat of immediate injury

A

immediate physical harm

NOT extortion or blackmail which are future threats

414
Q

CRIM Time to die for murder

A

common law - year and a day

Virginia - no limitation

415
Q

CRIM TRIAL Venue

A

city or county where crime occurred

can be inferred by circumstantial evidence

416
Q

CRIM CONCEPTS

Types of causation

A

Actual causation

Proximate causation

417
Q

CRIM types of Virginia homicide

A
capital murder
First degree murder
second degree murder
vol manslaughter
invol manslaughter
felony homicide
418
Q

CRIM DEFENSE

Use of force to prevent crime

A

nondeadly force - any crime

deadly force - a felony risking human life

419
Q

CRIM Validity of dog detection during traffic stop

A

If unrelated to original stop, dog detection illegal search if it delays completion of traffic stop.

420
Q

CRIM Virginia Bad Check Law

A

Virginia Code §18.2- 181

421
Q

CRIM Virginia Bad Check Law

A

produce ]any check knowing at the time of such making, that the maker or drawer has not sufficient funds or shall be guilty of larceny . . . .

422
Q

CRIM Virginia criminal infancy

A

under 7 - no prosecution

7 to 14 - rebuttable presumption against prosecution

greater than 14 - prosecution allowed

adult felony means child charged as an adult

423
Q

CRIM Virginia criminal jurisdiction

A

Offense committed whole or part of Virginia
Attempt/conspiracy
- out of state plan for in state deed
- inside state plat for out of state deed

424
Q

CRIM Virginia distinction for burglary

A

elimination of at night requirement

expanded definition of dwelling

425
Q

CRIM Virginia distinctions for arson

A

includes explosives

any building except an outhouse

426
Q

CRIM Virginia distinctoin on conspiracy

A

conspiracy limited to felonies
must have two people
no overt act, but agreement must be complete
conspiracy must be convicted with act conviction or before
- can be same trial
- exception if acts of conspiracy are separate

failure to convict on crime negates conspiracy

427
Q

CRIM Virginia statutory assaults and bodlily woundings

A
malicious wounding
aggravated malicious wounding
wounding while committing felony
- shooting/stabbing/display firearm
- while committing or attempting felony
specific assaults/batteries w higher penaty
- hate crime
- assault on
-- police officer
-- firefighter
-- specified school employees
injuring emergency personnel
- law enforcement
- firefighter
- emergency medical
assuaulting family or household member
stalking
428
Q

CRIM Virginia vicarious liabilty for murder

A

must be co-felon who caused death

429
Q

CRIM Virginia vs common law on rape

A

Between spouses,

  • must have been living separate and apart
  • serious phsical injury to victim by force or violence
430
Q

CRIM Virginia vs common law statutory rape

A

Defined as under 13

Between 13 and 15 Class 4 felony (carnal knowledge)

431
Q

CRIM DEFENSE

voluntary intoxication defense

A

voluntary intoxication is not generally an excuse for crime

432
Q

CRIM voluntary intoxication exception

A

The only exception to this rule in Virginia is that voluntary intoxication can defeat the specific premeditation required to prove first-degree murder.

433
Q

CRIM What part of criminal case not beyond shadow of douby

A

Insanity defense - preponderance of evidence

434
Q

CRIM Withdrawal from a conspiracy

A

In effective if it occurs after the crime is committed

435
Q

CRIM Withdrawal from attempt

A

Not possible after attempt is complete

436
Q

CRIM Withdrawal from conspiracy

A

withdrawal from the conspiracy is not a defense to the crime of conspiracy. The crime of conspiracy is complete when there is a shared intent and agreement to commit a felony.

437
Q

DOM GFD - Constructive desertion

A

Constructive desertion is a grounds for divorce when one spouse is so cruel as to force the other spouse to leave the marital home and abandon the marriage. Constructive desertion requires that the at-fault spouse be responsible for the conditions leading to the constructive desertion, while the other spouse not be at fault.

438
Q

DOM Parental visitation rights

A

Parents have a constitutionally protected right to visit with their children. This is considered to be a fundamental due process right, in accord with the history and traditions of this country. As such, parents may not prevent the other parent from visiting with the child. However, court intervention may be sought to provide an appropriate visitation schedule, and decide where and on what terms visitation may take place. The right can be terminated if paternity of the child is in dispute or abuse of the fomer spouse or the child took place.

439
Q

DOM Adultery rules

A

No spousal support, but exception for manifest injustice

Not a factor in child support

440
Q

DOM Appeal from Jeuvenile and Domestic Realtions Court

A

From any final order or judgment of the juvenile court affecting the rights or interests of any person coming within its jurisdiction, an appeal may be taken to the circuit court within 10 days from the entry of a final judgment, order or conviction and shall be heard de novo.

441
Q

DOM Appeal from Juevenile and Domestic Relations Court

A

Anyone seeking appeal of the decision of the J&DR should appeal to the Circuit Court. The losing party must note its appeal to the Circuit Court within 10 days of the JD&R Court’s final order, and within 30 days of the final order must pay the writ tax, court costs, and post a bond that the court deems sufficient.

442
Q

DOM Application of out of state law in divorce

A

Not for divorce itself.

A divorce in Virginia is a Virgina affair (in rem)

443
Q

DOM Basic support for divorce

A

When multiple grounds for a divorce may exist, a court reviewing a claim for divorce may issue the divorce on any relevant grounds it finds supported by the evidence.

444
Q

DOM Best Interest Factors

A

(i) the age, physical and mental conditions of the parent (or third party);
(ii) the age, physical and mental conditions of the child;
(iii) the relationship the parent (or third party) has had with the child, throughout his or her life;
(iv) the needs of the child, including fostering social relationships with child’s peers and extended family;
(v) the role the parent or third party has and will play in the child’s development;
(vi) the parents’ (and third party) fostering relationships with the other parents (or third party);
(vii) the demonstrated willingness and ability of the parent (or third party) to maintain a close and continuing relationship with the child, including cooperation and dispute resolution;
(viii) the reasonable preferences of the child; and
(ix) family history of sexual or other abuse; and
(x) any other factors the court finds necessary and proper in making a good decision in the best interests of the child.

445
Q

DOM Best interests of the child factors

A

Found in VA 20-124.3

446
Q

DOM Can one enforce a separation agreement not previously filed in a divorce action

A

yes -
this is a contract
collection must be in a court w jurisdiction

447
Q

DOM Can one party get a divorce ex parte?

A

yes -
divorce is an in rem proceeding
notice by (local) publication is sufficient

448
Q

DOM Can one party get support payments ex parte?

A

no -
support payments are in personam
requires personal juridiction over defendant

449
Q

DOM GFD

Cause grounds for fault-based divorce in Virginia

A

In Virginia, a divorce may be granted on fault grounds, including

  • adultery,
  • buggery
  • sodomy-
  • cruelty, or
  • desertion.
450
Q

DOM CUSTODY

Changing child custody

A

Best interests of the child
Change in circumstances
Factors including
- physical and finacial well being of parents
- relationship between child and each parent
[]look up statute]

451
Q

DOM Child custody

A

The controlling consideration in child custody determinations is the best interests of the child. he Court must consider the “best interests of the child” factors set forth in Va. Code §20-124.3 in making its determination.

452
Q

DOM Child support

Setting child support by contract between the parties

A

A parent cannot contract away his duty to pay child support for the wellbeing of his child. Such an agreement is void under Virginia law. The Court retains continuous jurisdiction to change or modify its order relating to care and maintenance of a child. Va. Code §20-108.

453
Q

DOM Child support - length of obligation

A

A parent must pay child support for until the child reaches 18 years of age, or else the earlier of his reaching 19 or graduating from high school.

454
Q

DOM competing grounds for divorce

A

Parties can amend reason for divorce
1 year separation easier than proving fault
Judge has wide discretion to select from grounds demonstrated

455
Q

DOM condonation

A

cuts off prior claims for cruelty, etc

456
Q

DOM Custody vs visitation

A

With respect to child custody and visitation, although inherently intertwined, these are generally considered two separate issues before the law. When ruling on domestic relations matters, including child custody and visitation, the court may rule specifically on one issue, and exclude others, saving the determination of such issues for a later date.

457
Q

DOM GFD

Desertion

A

Can not be mutual

Must be one party against the other

458
Q

DOM PROPERTY

Dividing marital property

A

Marital property is that property acquired during the marriage, other than property received by one spouse by gift, intestate succession, or devise. Marital property can also include increases in value to non-marital property if the efforts of either spouse during the marriage contributed to the increase.

459
Q

DOM divorce on grounds of cruelty

A

mental or verbal abuse alone not sufficient

must show impact on physical health

460
Q

DOM Enforcement of payments in divorce

A

Court can hold party in contempt

Remedies include fine and incarceration

461
Q

DOM Enforcement of Settlement Agreement

A

Where parties competently enter into a settlement agreement and there is no indication of unconscionability or fraud, Courts will respect the parties’ rights to be the masters of their own bargain and uphold the contract

462
Q

DOM Factors for non-parent to get custody

A

best interests of the child, considering

  1. parental unfitness
  2. pervious order of divestiture
  3. voluntary relinquishment
  4. abandonment
  5. finding of special facts and circumstances
463
Q

DOM factors in allocation of assets

A
  1. contribution by both parties
  2. duration of the marriage
  3. ages and mental/physical condition of parties
  4. how/when property acquired
  5. debts and liabilities of parties
  6. tax consequences to each party
  7. liquidity of property
  8. dissipation of marital assets (adultery)
  9. other appropriate factors
    Allocation of assets factors into support
464
Q

DOM foundation of support order

A

must show a real need

465
Q

DOM GFD - Adultery

A

When one spouse commits adultery, the other spouse may obtain a fault divorce on those grounds. However, there are several exceptions where adultery may not serve as grounds for a divorce. These exceptions are recrimination, connivance, forgiveness, fraud on the court, and a mutual meeting of the minds to restart the marriage. Recrimination is where the party seeking a fault divorce on the grounds of adultery is also guilty of an act that would be grounds for a fault divorce.

Adultery must be proven by clear and convincing evidence.

466
Q

DOM GFD - Cruelty

A

Cruelty authorizing divorce requires acts that tend to cause bodily harm and render the spouses’ living together unsafe. Mental or verbal cruelty alone is not grounds for divorce in Virginia.

However, if the mental/verbal cruelty resulting in physical manifestations (e.g., bad health symptoms) it may be possible to assert cruelty as a grounds.

467
Q

DOM GFD

Adultery

A

Is not grounds for divorce when the other spouse also engaged in adultery (recrimination) or when the adultery is condoned by resuming marital relations after discovery of the adultery (condonation).

468
Q

DOM GFD

Contructive Desertion

A

Must prove that the other’s conduct is so egegrous as tp justify the non-offendin spouse leving the marital home.

469
Q

DOM GFD Cruelty

A

Requires acts that tend to cause bodily harm and rednet it unsafe for the spouses to be living together.

470
Q

DOM Grounds for divorce

A

Constructive desertion
Cruelty
Adultery
No Fault

471
Q

DOM APPEAL

How is an order of Juevenile and Domestic Relations Court appealed

A

To corresponding circuit court???

472
Q

DOM how soon must an appeal from a divorce order be filed?

A

six months or upon discovery of new evidence

filing on new evidence must be with permission of the court

473
Q

DOM Impact of conviction / incarceration on existing child custody order

A

None automatice.

separate finding that not in best interests of the child required

474
Q

WILLS Impact of Divorce

A

if a divorce or spousal support petition is filed (as opposed to finalized) by a spouse, then all powers and powers of appointment, contained in the settlor’s revocable living trust, are revoked by operation of law. Note, however, that if there is no subsequent trust revocation or amendment, then the former trust provisions are revived upon the trust settlor’s (the maker of a trust) remarriage to the former spouse.

475
Q

DOM Impact of sex on separation

A

If sex is not indicative of cohabitation, does not matter. Still measure time from date of separation

476
Q

DOM Incarceration as grounds for divorce

A

Conviction occurred after marriage
Incarceration is for over one year
Cohabitation is not resumed

477
Q

DOM GFD

incarceration grounds for divorce

A
  1. conviction after marriage
  2. incarceration greater one year
  3. no habitation following incarceration
478
Q

DOM Interest in marital home purchased before marriage

A

Becomes marital property to the extent both parties contribute to payment of the mortgage

479
Q

DOM is divorce law or equity

A

equity

480
Q

DOM Joint property dertmination

A

Title does not govern
Source of funds governs
Paycheck into joint account makes all that follows joint

481
Q

DOM Jurisdiction under UCCJEA

A

State where child most recently lived six consecutive months

482
Q

DOM Jury in divorce

A

Divorce is an equity matter

No jury

483
Q

DOM Law for prenup

A

Is law of jurisdiction where signed

It’s a contract, duh

484
Q

DOM SUPPORT

Modification of support

A

Court ordered support can be modified

Separation agreement is a contract - can not be modifed by court if not ordered by court

485
Q

DOM Modifying child support arrearages

A

Court can not change what was owed prior to filing for modifications, but not earlier

486
Q

DOM new evidence test for bill of review

A
  1. evidence discovered after trial
  2. evidence is material and would produce a different result
  3. evidence is NOT cumulative, corroborative, or collateal
  4. evidence could not have been discovered pre-trial
  5. the evidence CAN be provided at new trial
487
Q

DOM No fault divorce waiting period

A

on year (does child matter?)

488
Q

DOM No-fault grounds for divorce

A

One year of separation after intent to separate.

Can be shortened to 6 months if no children and there is a written separation agreement covering all terms.

489
Q

DOM Non-parental rights

A

Third parties, who are not parents of the child, do not have a constitutionally protected right to visitation. Virginia courts give special weight to a fit parent’s determination of whether visitation with the third party is appropriate. As such, grandparents may be prevented from visiting with the child. However, in order to obtain some
visitation rights, the third party must show (i) depriving the child of visitation is likely to cause irreparable harm to the child; and (ii) it is in the child’s best interests to visit with the third party.

490
Q

DOM ore tenus hearing

A

sdfsdd

491
Q

DOM Parental support for custody arrangement

A

Court looks first to the parents as primary custodians for a child. Either parent is presumed superior to a grand parent absent with respect to supervising a child absent compelling evidence to the contrary, such as actual harm to the child from being allowed contact with the grandparent.

492
Q

DOM Parents vs grandparents

A

Parent supervision of a child is preferred to that of a grandparent

493
Q

DOM Requirements for no-fault divorce

A

Physical separation for one year

At least one party intends to remain separate

494
Q

DOM Spousal support

A

The agreement was incorporated within the parties’ final divorce decree and became a term of the decree. Where parties competently enter into a settlement agreement and there is no indication of unconscionability or fraud, Courts will respect the parties’ rights to be the masters of their own bargain and uphold the contract.

was there “a bargained for exchange”?

495
Q

DOM Spousal Support

A

Upon divorce, spousal support is available depending on a number of factors. These factors include

  • the age and health of each spouse,
  • the contributions each made to the marriage whether monetary or otherwise,
  • the lifestyle to which they were accustomed during the marriage,
  • the relative earning potential of the spouses,
  • agreements made during marriage,
  • the ability of a spouse to improve earning potential through education or training, and
  • the relative degree of fault for the dissolution of the marriage.

Spouses who have committed adultery are barred from receiving spousal support unless providing no spousal support would be manifestly unjust or the other spouse was substantially more at fault for the dissolution of the marriage.

496
Q

DOM spousal support and adulter

A

adultery strong grounds for denial spousal support

can be overturned on grounds of MANIFEST INJUSTICE

497
Q

DOM Standard for non-parent to get custody

A

clear and convincing evidence that lack of custody would cause actual harm to child

498
Q

DOM Statute of limitation on DNA testing

A

none

499
Q

DOM test of one year separation

A

requires BOTH one year of separation AND one year following reaching intent to end marriage

500
Q

DOM Third party rights to visitation

A

Third parties, who are not parents of the child, do not have a constitutionally protected right to visitation Virginia courts give special weight to a fit parent’s determination of whether visitation with the third party is appropriate. As such, grandparents may be prevented from visiting with the child. In order to obtain some visitation rights, the third party must show (i) depriving the child of visitation is likely to cause irreparable harm to the child; and (ii) it is in the child’s best interests to visit with the third party.

501
Q

DOM Uniform Child Custody JUrisdiction and Enforcement Act

A

UCCJEA

502
Q

DOM Venue for divorce action

A

SO LONG AS LIVED IN VA SIX MONTHS PRIOR

  • County where couple last cohabited
  • County where defendent resides
503
Q

DOM Visitation rights of non-custodial parent

A

Parents have a constitutionally protected right to visit with their children. This is considered to be a fundamental due process right, in accord with the history and traditions of this country. This right may only be set aside through due process under judicial supervision IF IT IS IN THE BEST INTERESTS OF THE CHILD to deny visitation. if there is evidence of paternity dispute or child abuse. One parent may not resort to “self help” in preventing the other parent from visiting with the child.

504
Q

DOM Weight of being birth father on custody

A

Superseded by best interests of child assessment

505
Q

DOM What are the best interest of the child factors

A

VA 20-124.3 MUST consider

506
Q

DOM What are the factors for spousal support in VA 20-107.1

A

TBD

507
Q

DOM What if void marriage acquires property?

A

Not tenants by entirety
Becomes joint tenants
But right of survivorship may attach if clearly intended

508
Q

DOM What impact marry w/o divorce

A

Bigamy

second marriage void ab initio

509
Q

DOM what is an appeal from a divorce final order

A

bill of review

510
Q

DOM what is the process for determining child support

A

every parent owes a duty of support for a child

child support guidelines are the presumptive amount

less than 90 days means other parent sole custody for guidelines

20-124.2

511
Q

DOM what is the process for determining spousal support

A

Court MUST consider factors in VA 20-107.1 in setting any maintenance and support

And if either party has grounds for adultery
(need not be the basis of the divorce)

512
Q

DRIM Accomplice liabiity`

A

A co-conspirator is guilty for all reasonably anticipated crimes that occur during the commission of the agreed upon crime. This is true both under the conspiracy, but also because they are accessories before the fact or principals in the second degree, depending on whether they were present at the scene of the crime or not. An accessory before the fact encourages, aids, or counsels the principal in the first degree in the commission of the crime, but is not physically present during the crime. A principal in the second degree encourages, aids, or counsels the principal in the first degree, but is present at the scene. Both accesssories before the fact and principals in the second degree are liable as though they were the principal actor.

513
Q

EQ Constructive trust

A

“Constructive trusts arise independently of the intention of the parties, by construction of law; being fastened upon the conscience of him who has the legal estate, in order to prevent what otherwise would be a fraud. The burden of proof is by clear and convincing evidence.

514
Q

EQ Nuisance

A

Private nuisances adversely affect one person’s use and enjoyment of his property ih ways that the general public is not affected. Public nuisances affect many in the same way or the public generally

515
Q

EQ Private Nuisance

A

The theory of private nuisance requires an action that unreasonably interferes with the use and enjoyment of plaintiff’s land in away unique to the plaintiff. The remedy may be a permanent injunction. To obtain an injuction, plaintiff not only has to prove the existence of a nuisance, but also the inadequacy of a remedy at law.

516
Q

EQ Remedy for violation of contract

A

Ask the court to declare the existence of a constructive trust based on a theory of unjust enrichment.

517
Q

Equitable conversion

A

The doctrine of equitable conversion exists in Virginia, not as arule of law, but as adiscretionary doctrine to be applied when equity considers a thing to be done which ought to have been done. It is alegal fiction based on the presumed intention of the parties. application of the doctrine is limited to cases where the enforcement of the contract is in accord with the intention of the parties, free from fraud, and where enforcement will not produce inequitable results. The doctrine will not be applied in acase where to do so would result in hardship or injustice forced upon one party, through achange in circumstances not contemplated by the parties at the time of the contract.

518
Q

EQUITY Infeasibility

A

Can’t compel third party to perform

519
Q

EQUITY Laches test

A
  1. equitable claim
  2. discretionary call by judge
  3. judge to consider
    - - a. how much time has elapsed
    - - b. effect of time on other party ability to defend
    - - c. loss of evidence/testimony due to delay
    - - d. case specific circumstances

Only applies in equity
Only if there is no relevant statute of limitations

520
Q

EQUITY Specific Performance

A

specific performance as a remedy is only avaialble in certain circumstances. First, money damages must not be an adequate remedy. This can be proven if the subject matter of the contract is unique. One example of this principal are contracts for the sale of real property, as all real property is considered to be unique. Second, the equitable remedy of specific performance must be feasable.

521
Q

EQUITY Third-Party Bona FIde Purchaser

A

A BFP is a purchaser for value who takes the property without notice of any encumberances or others with rights to possess. If the BFP does not pay significantly less than fair market value for the property, then a court should refuse to divest the BFP of interest in property when decideding whether or not to impose an equitable remedy under contract law.

522
Q

EQUITY DOCTRINES

Unclean hands

A

Under the unclean hands doctrine, aparty seeking equitable relief must himself not have been guilty of inequitable or wrongful conduct.

523
Q

ETHICS Accepting settlement offer

A

A lawyer shall abide by aclient’s decision, after consultation with the lawyer, whether to accept an offer of settlement of a matter

524
Q

ETHICS Advertising Statements

A

A lawyer may not make false or misleading communicatiois about his or her services. An attorney may not make statements implying that the outcome of aparticular legal matter was not or will not be related to its facts or merits; comparing the lawyer’s services with other lawyers’ services, unless the comparison can be factually substantiated; or create an unjustified expectation about the j results the lawyer can achieve.

Rule 7.01

525
Q

ETHICS Basic Duties Advocate

A
  1. 1 Meritorious Claims and Conetntions
  2. 2 Expediting Litigation NOT ADOPTED
  3. 3 Candor Towards the Tirbunal
  4. 4 Fairness to Opposing Party and Counsel
  5. 5 Impartiality and Decorum
  6. 6 Trial Publicity
  7. 7 Lawyer as Witness
  8. 8 Added Resp of Prosecutor
  9. 9 Advocate in Nona Adjudicative Proceedings
526
Q

ETHICS Can judge bar an attorney from a specific court?

A

Yes, under case law.

527
Q

ETHICS comfidentiality vs crime

A

VIRGINIA DISTINCTION!

ABA model rules - attorney MAY reveal
Virginia - attorney SHALL promptly reveal

528
Q

ETHICS Communicating Settlement Offer

A

A lawyer who receives from opposing counsel an offer of settlement in a civil controversy or a proffered plea agreement… should promptly inform the client of its substance unless prior discussions with the client have left it clear that the proposal will be unacceptable

529
Q

ETHICS Communications w Client

A

A lawyer shall keep a client reasonably informed about the status of a matter…“); RPC Rule 1.4(c)

530
Q

ETHICS

Competence

A

The Rules require that an attorney represent her clients competently. Competence does not necessarily require expertise. It also does not prevent an inexperienced attorney from taking on cases, or an attorney taking on a case in a new field. However, if the attorney is not experienced in a particular field, she should either associate herself with another attorney who is competent in the field and who will be involved in the case, or she should engage in sufficient study to become competent in the field of law.

531
Q

ETHICS Confidentiality

A

Alawyer shall not reveal information protected by the attorney-client privilege under applicable law or other information gained in the professional relationship that the client has requested be held inviolate or the disclosure of which would be embarrassing or would be likely to be detrimental to the client unless the client consents after consultation, except for disclosures that are impliedly authorized in order to carry out the
representation, and except as stated in paragraphs (b) and (c).

532
Q

ETHICS Conflict company vs executives

A

When Winston retained Lane to prepare his will, there was no concurrent conflict with Shockoe, so Lane did not violate Rule 1.7.
It Is arguable that, given Lane’s longstanding representation of Shockoe and her in-depth knowledge of the company and its key personnel, including Winston, she could have anticipated the possibility of a future conflict involving Winston.

533
Q

ETHICS Conflict Created by Prospective Client

A

When a prospective client reveals to alawyer information that could be significantly harmful to that client, the lawyer cannot represent another client with interests materially adverse to the prospective client in the same or substantially related matter. Rules of Professional Conduct, Rule 1:18(b)&(c)

534
Q

ETHICS Conflict of Interest Clients

A

A lawyer shall not represent a client if the representation involves a concurrent conflict of interest.
A concurrent conflict of interest exists if:
(1) the representation of one ciient wiii be directly adverse to another client; or
(2) there is significant risk that the representation of one or more ciients wili be materiaily iimited by the lawyer’s responsibilities to another client, a former client, or a third person - or by a personal interest of the lawyer.

535
Q

ETHICS Conflict of Interest Waiver

A

Notwithstanding the existence of aconcurrent conflict of interest under paragraph(a), alawyer may represent aclient if each affected client consents after consultation, and:
(1) the lawyer reasonably believes that the lawyer will be able to provide competent and diligent representation to each affected client;
(2) the representation is not prohibited by law;
(3) the representation does not involve the assertion of aclaim by one client against another
client represented by the lawyer in the same litigation or other proceeding before atribunal; and
(4) the consent from the client is memorialized in writing.

536
Q

ETHICS Contingency Fee

A

The Rules permit contingency fee agreements for most cases, except domestic relations cases generally and criminal cases. When an attorney enters into a contingency fee agreement, the attorney must provide a written explanation of the terms of the fee, including the contingency rate, how fees and expenses are calculated and whether fees and expenses will be taken before or after the contingency rate. The fee terms must be reasonable.

537
Q

ETHICS Correcting misstatement by client

A

A lawyer shall not knowingly: … (b) fail to disclose a fact when disclosure is necessary to avoid assisting acriminal or fraudulent act by a client.’’

first action should be to “remonstrate with the client confidentially, advise the client of the lawyer’s duty of candor to the tribunal and seek the client’s cooperation with respect to the withdrawal or correction of the false statements,” but further remedial action might be required

538
Q

ETHICS Diligence

A

“A lawyer shall act with reasonable diligence and promptness in representing aclient.”);

(“A lawyer should pursue amatter on behalf of aclient despite opposition, obstruction or personal inconvenience to the lawyer

539
Q

ETHICS

Dispute as to contingency

A

When a lawyer and a client have a dispute regarding payment or funds, the lawyer must release to the client the amount that is not in dispute and retain in the client trust account the amount that is in dispute.

540
Q

ETHICS Duties to a dead client

A

Confidentiality
No representation against interest
- can’t get consent since person is dead

541
Q

ETHICS Existing Client Conflict

A

A lawyer may not represent a client if representation of that client would be directly adverse to an existing client unless

(1) the lawyer reasonably believes the representation would not adversely affect the relationship with the other client,
(2) the representation does not involve the assertion of aclaim by one client against another client represented by the lawyer in the same litigation and
(3) both clients consent in writing after consultation.

542
Q

ETHICS Former Client General Rule

A

A lawyer who has formerly represented a client In amatter shall not thereafter represent another person In the same or a substantially related matter In which that person’s Interests are materially adverse to the Interests of the former client unless both the present and former client consent after consultation.

543
Q

ETHICS Former Client Seeking Waiver

A

Seeking a waiver may involve breaching the duty of confidentiality per Rule 1,6.

544
Q

ETHICS Governing statute

A

Virginia Rules of Professional Conduct

545
Q

ETHICS Grounds for Contempt

A
  1. misbehaviour in the presence of the court
  2. failure to obey an order of the court?
  3. vile, contemptuous, or insulting language
  4. misbehavior of an officer of court in official character
546
Q

ETHICS Hourly fees

A

For fee agreements that are based on an hourly rate, the Rules do not require the fee agreement to be in writing, thought the Rules strongly suggest that the agreement be reduced to writing at the time the representation is entered into, or shortly thereafter. The terms of the fee agreement must be dislosed to the client and the client must consent, and the fee arragement must be reasonable.

547
Q

ETHICS Imputed Firm Conflict

A

Under the imputed disqualification rule. Rules of Professional Conduct, Rule 1:10, if one attorney in a firm cannot represent agiven client, then no attorney in the firm can.

548
Q

ETHICS

Judge reports to Virginia State Bar

A
  • is required to report (should) reliable information substantial likelihood
  • And everyone has a right to file grievance
549
Q

ETHICS Malpractice

A

The Virginia Rules of Professional Conduct provide that an attorney may not prospectively limit her personal liability for malpractice when entering into a representation agreement with a client

550
Q

ETHICS MIsconduct

A

8.4

551
Q

ETHICS Retention of case records

A

No permissible over a genuine fee disputer?

552
Q

ETHICS Sexual relations w client

A

The Rules contain no explicit prohibition on sexual relations with a client, though such a relationsihp could potentially create a conflict of interest in the future and compromise the duty of loyalty to the client. The Rules do require attorneys to comport themselves properly, maintain professional conduct, and avoid the appearance of impropriety.

553
Q

ETHICS When can court impose sanctions?

A
  • On motion from a party

- On its own initiative

554
Q

EVID New evidence requirements

A
  1. evidence was discovered after trial
  2. evidence is material - change in outcome
  3. not cumulative, corroborative, or collateral
  4. could not have been discovered prior to trial
  5. can be produced for new trial
555
Q

EVIDENCE Default to request for admissions

A

All questions are deemed admitted 21 days after service

556
Q

EVIDENCE Marital Priviledge

A

Limited in Virginia

  • Can not prevent spouse taking the stand in civil
  • Communications during marriage priviledge survives divorce
    • – IF intended to be confidential at the time
557
Q

EVIDENCE Remedial measures

A

Not allowed as evidence, but not exempt from discoverey

558
Q

FCP Adding third party

A

14 days after receipt of complaint w/o leave OK

Thereafter must have leave of court

559
Q

FCP Amount in controversy

A

The minimum amount in controversy is judged for diversity purposes at the initial time of filing.

560
Q

FCP Choice of Laws

A

A federal court who has subject matter jurisdiction over a lawsuit based on diversity of citizenship applies the choice of law rules of the state in which it sits.

561
Q

FCP Conflicts in Laws general

A

Substantive - state of contract

Procedural - state of forum

562
Q

FCP Deadline for defendant to respond to complaint

A

21 days, need not be an answer

day of receipt does not count

563
Q

FCP Diversity Excception

A

Subject matter jurisdiction based on diversity of citizenship is improper when a defendant is a citizen of the original state court where the lawsuit was brought.

564
Q

FCP Diversity jurisdiction

A

First, the amount in controversy must exceed $75,000.
The test for whether the amount in controversy is met is the legal certainty test. That test provides that, unless to alegal certainty on reviewing the complaint the district court can say that there is no way the plaintiff can recover more than $75,000 exclusive of interests and costs,

Second, there must be complete diversity of domicile. . Complete diversity is when all plaintiffs reside in a different state from all defendants. Residence for this purpose equates to the person’s domicile. Domicile for the purposes of diversity jurisdiction is determined at the time of filing.

…intent permanently to remain

565
Q

FCP Federal joinder of parties

A

in fedeal court a motion to amend is permitted as a right before the defendant has served his or her answer. After that, the party must receive leave of court.

Here, the defense had only served a responsive pleading, so it could be argued that the plaintiff had a right to amend her answer as a matter of right to add the defendant Buddy to her compliant. Morover, it could be argued that Buddy is a necessary party to the litigation meaning that Penny’s interests will be harmed if he is not added to the litigation. If he is deemed to be `indespensible, meaning that ligation cannot go forward without him the court will look at whether it can retain jurisdiction will his addition and if not the case will have to be dismissed unless it causes a manifest injustice. Since Buddy’s negligence arises out of the same incident, he’ll likely be found to be a necessary but not indespensible party. The court will likely grant the motion to add him to the ligiation unless he destorys jurisdiction.

566
Q

FCP Federal venue

A

A federal case can be brought in any forum where any defendant resides or in any forum where a substantial part of the claim arose.

567
Q

FCP Grounds to transfer venue

A

Improper venue

Convenience

568
Q

FCP Joinder and diversity

A

under 28 U.S.C, § 1447(e), “If after removal the plaintiff seeks to join additional defendants whose joinder would destroy subject matter jurisdiction, the court may deny joinder, or permit joinder and remand the action to statecourt. If joining the new party was for the purpose of destroying diversity, the court would have the discretion to deny joinder.

569
Q

FCP Permissive counterclaim

A

Not related to original claim

Must independently satisfy SMJ

570
Q

FCP Personal Jurisidiction - Virginia Long Arm

A

Claims in diversity must also find that the court has personal jurisdiction under state law. Virginia’s long-arm statute permits exercising personal jurisdiction over out of state defendants in several instances, including when actions outside of Virginia cause a tort inside of Virginia.
Other grounds for jurisdiction are torts that occur within the state by actions within the state, a single transaction with a state resident, or contracts to supply products or services in-state, but none of these apply here because they do not relate to the claim at issue.

571
Q

FCP Removal

A

In general, a defendant can remove a case initially filed in state court to the federal court encompassing the state court if the case qualifies for diveristy jurisdiction or federal question jurisdiciton. A Notice of Removal must be filed within 30 days of service of the pleading that shows the basis for removal. A proper removal removes to the federal court encompassinng the state court. However, the federal court is unlikely to deny the Notice of Removal on this basis. The court will more likely transfer the case to the proper court.

572
Q

FCP Removal

A

30 days from service
to Federal Court in district
Local defendant ineligible

573
Q

FCP Respondong to law suit in Federal Court

A

Under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, a party must object to personal jurisdiction first or it is deemed waived. However, a party may object to personal jurisdiction in the answer if the answer is filed first. Absent waiver of service of process, a responsive pleading is due within 21 days of service of process.

574
Q

FCP Rule 11 Attorney sanctions

A

Sanctions of attorneys under FRCP allow a safe harbour rule where a party seeking sanctions must give notice to the offending attorny of intent to file for sanctions, giving the attorney a copy of the sanction the partys intend to file. The offending attorney has 21 days to correct the mistake. In not corrected, then you are entitiled to file the motion with the court.

575
Q

FCP Standing of insurance

A

If claim has been paid (or payment committed) subrogation makes insurance company the party of interest. The policy holder, once paid, is no longer a party of interest

576
Q

FCP Subject matter jurisdiction in Federal Court

A

A federal court has SMJ only if the claim arises in federal law (i.e., presents a federal question on the face of the complaint), if the claim arises in diversity, or if the court can exercise supplemental jurisdiction.

577
Q

FCP Subject matter jurisdiction through supplemental jurisdication

A

In cases where the federal court’s jurisdiction is based solely on diversity jurisdiction, however, the court does not have supplemental jurisdiction to hear claims by or against additional parties if their presence in the case would destroy complete diversity (28 U.S.C. § 1367(b)).
A district court in its discretion may decline to exercise supplemental jurisdiction over a state law claim if:
The claim raises a novel or complex issue of state law.
The claim substantially predominates over the claims for which the court has original jurisdiction.
The district court has dismissed all claims over which it has original jurisdiction.
In exceptional circumstances, there are other compelling reasons for declining jurisdiction.

578
Q

FCP Taking testimony outside of discovery cut-off

A

Not permitted

579
Q

FCP Test if indispensible party

A

In the absense of the pary, can complete relief be given. If yes, party is not indispensible Rule 19

580
Q

FCP Tests for adequate contacts

A
  1. prior negotiations
  2. contemplated future consequences
  3. terms of the contract
  4. parties actual course of dealing
581
Q

If a party sends the wrong goods in response to an offer, do they accept?

A

Generally, yes

Noncomforming goods is an acceptance and a breach

Exception:

Accomodation
If shipper makes it clear that the noncomforming goods are an accomodation, that is a counteroffer

582
Q

LOC

Act under unanimous consent

A

“unanimous written consent” by the Board members approving the contract does not constitute avalid action by alocal public body under Virginia law

583
Q

LOC Can soverign immunity first be raised in appeal

A

Yes. It is a matter of subject matter jurisdiction that can not be wiaved by county.

584
Q

LOC Compensation for abatement of a public nuisance

A

Not required

585
Q

LOC Condemnation of public property

A

A taking of public property is not taking of private proepty and thus not entitled to compensation

586
Q

LOC Contents of required notice to city

A

written statement
nature of claim
time and place of alleged injury

587
Q

LOC Definition of condemnation lost profits

A

Must be defined by General Assembly
limited to net income for three years prior
conditioned ooninability to relocate in a reasonable wwy
may not be cduplicated in the other compensation

588
Q

LOC Definition of gross or wanton negligence

A

utter disregard of prudence amounting to complete neglect of the safety of another - deliberately

multtiple acts of simple negligence can accumulate into gross negligence

589
Q

LOC Determination of just compensation

A

Requires condemnation jurors if disputed

Ore tenus

590
Q

LOC Dillon rule

A

Rule of statutory construction that requires narrow interpretation of the powers granted by Commonwealth to localities

591
Q

LOC Dillons Rule

A

The Dillon Rule is a rule of strict statutory construction that requires narrow interpretation of the powers granted to localities by the Commonwealth. Dillon’s Rule states that a Virginia locality has no powers other than those expressly provided by the Virginia Code or its legislatively-enacted charter, unless otherwise necessary to carry out an express power or indispensable to the purpose for which the locality was created. when in doubt, Virginia will narrowly construe the terms of a Code provision in an effort to adhere to Dillon’s Rule.

592
Q

LOC Duty of municipality public facilities

A

duty to keep its property in reasonably safe condition for persons who use ordinary care and prudence. duty to use appropriate proper care to ensure this

593
Q

LOC elements for inverse condemnation

A
  1. ownership of property or property right
  2. property or property right taken or damaged
  3. taking was for a public use
  4. government failed to pay
    also, action was taken pursuant to state law
594
Q

LOC Elements of Dillon rule

A

loclaities have only those powers
1. expressly granted by General Assembly
2. necessarily or failrly implied or incident to those expressly granted
3. essential and indispensable, not simply convenient
If there is doubt, the locality does not have the power

595
Q

LOC Emails as public records

A

Yes. To from between public officials.
“public records in the transaction of public business”
email is by definition a written record

596
Q

LOC Examples governmental functions

A

PROMOTING THE PUBLIC GOOD

  • Fire department
  • Library
  • Plowing snow
  • Fire hydrants
  • Exercise of police power (public safety)
  • Garbage collection
  • Planning of streets (and therefore traffic signal installation)
  • Regulation of traffic

where governmnetal and proprietary functions coincide, teh governmental function is the overriding factor

597
Q

LOC Examples of indeterminate functions

A

Garbage collection

598
Q

LOC Examples of proprietary functions

A

Def: Routine ministerial acts that involve no discretion
Def: Primarily for the benefit of the municipality
Water supply system
Maintenance of sidewalk!!
Street maintenance

599
Q

LOC exercise of police power

A

municipality exercising police power has absolute liability

600
Q

LOC FOIA

A

Under the Virginia Freedom of Information Act, public records are to be open to all citizens of the Commonwealth unless aspecific exception excludes the record from mandatory disclosure

601
Q

LOC FOIA and contracts

A

governmental contracts are subject to FOIA

602
Q

LOC FOIA Exceptions

A
  • Engineering report that would jeopardize safety
  • Report that contains a proprietary record or trade secret
  • Report prepared for litigation
  • ## Deposit can be required if cost to exceed $200
603
Q

LOC FOIA exclusions

A
  • engineering drawing jeopardizing safety
  • proprietary record or trade secret
  • prepared for litigation
  • subject of closed meeting
604
Q

LOC FOIA record access

A
  • Open to all CITIZENS OF VIRGINIA unless explicit exclusion

- deposit can be required if cost to copy exceeds $200`

605
Q

LOC Governmental vs Proprietary function

A

Governmental soverign immunity

Proprietary liability for negligence

606
Q

LOC inverse condemnation

A

right to ingress egress compensation subordinate to state reasonably regulating the flow of traffic on the street to poromote public health, safety, and welfare

partial reduction or limitation of a direc access easement in the interest of public safety is a non-compensable exercise of the of of a legislature’s police power

unless it is unreasonable

607
Q

LOC Liability for abatement of a nuisance

A

None in taking or in tort

608
Q

LOC Municipality specific defenses

A

Statutory immunity

Notice of claims requirement

609
Q

LOC Notice of claim exception

A

Locality has actual knowledge

Disabiity of claimant

610
Q

LOC Notice of negligence claim

A

Every claim against a city for negligence is barred unless the claimant or his representative has filed awritten statement of the nature of the claim, which includes the time and place at which the injury is alleged to have occurred, within six months after the cause of action accrued.

611
Q

LOC Notice Requirement

A

The Virginia General Assembly allows for localities to be sued on a limited basis but requires notice of injury to be given to the locality’s mayor, chief executive, or City attorney within six months of the alleged incident. Otherwise, without adequate notice, the action is barred from suit against the locality.

612
Q

LOC Notice requirement for negligence action

A
  1. Written statement
    - nature of claim
    - time and place
    - within six months (tolls for disability)
  2. Filed with
    - city/county/town attorney, OR
    - cheif executive or mayor
  3. Filed when received by any means of delivery
  4. Manadatory and strictly construed
613
Q

LOC Police Power

A

Police power is strictly limited to actions for the health, safety, welfare, and morals of the citizens.

614
Q

LOC public meeting requirement for governmental bodies

A

applies to all functions, not just governmental

615
Q

LOC public meeting requirement for governmental bodies

A

applies to all functions, not just governmental

616
Q

LOC Recreation Facilities

A

A user of a free public recreational facility is a licensee of the property. There is no business purpose for the users presence. The locality grants a free license to users for ordinary use of the recreational facility. The user must use reasonble care with respect to visible defects.

617
Q

LOC Recreational Facilities

A

the General Assembly only holds localities liable only for gross negligence for actions on and maintenance of recreational facilities.

618
Q

LOC Remedy if County fails to act on developer application

A

Writ of Mandamus
Declaratory Judgement Action in CC
Petition CC to approve (if 60 days no action)

619
Q

LOC Remedy of County disapproves development plan

A

Appeal to Circuit Court as arbitrary/capricious or otherewise improper

620
Q

LOC rememdy government body fails to act on development plan

A

Writ of Mandamus to Circuit Court
MInisterial act - no discretion

Maybe a declaratory judgement

If County has not acted for 60 days, with 10 days notice, developer can ask Circuit Court to approve plan

If plan disapproved, developer an appeal to Circuit Court if disapporval was improper or arbitrary or capriciou

621
Q

LOC Requirement of notice for negligence

A

a muniipality must have actual or constructive notice of a defect on public property in time to have in remedied in order for liability to attach

622
Q

LOC right of ingress and egress, into and from property

A

derived from common law

623
Q

LOC Sovereign Immunity

A

A city or town can only be held liable for its negligence (i.e., the negligent acts or omissions of its employees) for proprietary functions. It holds sovereign immunity for governmental functions. Governmental functions are those considered inherent in the legislative and executive powers of the government. For example, providing emergency services and designing streets are considered governmental functions. Proprietary functions, however, are not within the inherent nature of the government and are usually ministerial tasks like maintenance and operation duties. An example of a proprietary function would be street maintenance.

624
Q

LOC Sovereign Immunity condemnation

A

Sovereign immunity does not apply to aconstitutional taking claim for inverse condemnation, which sounds in contract.

625
Q

LOC Sovereign immunity government employee

A
  1. Nature of the function performes
  2. Extent of government interest in that function
  3. degree of discretion by government over employee
  4. judgement or discretion of employee in wrongful act

Employee does not get the 6 month notice rule

626
Q

LOC Standard of care applicable to parks

A

immunity from simple negligence

liable for gross or wanton negligence

627
Q

LOC taking by tort

A

Flooding damage caused by state action has been held to be an inverse taking

628
Q

LOC tearing down a nuisance

A

abatement of a public nuisance is an exercise of police power and not considered a condemnation

629
Q

LOC Tort action against munipality affirmative defenses

A
  • Contributory negligence by plaintiff (should have seen the hole)
  • Assumption of risk - open and obvious defect
  • Lack of notice
630
Q

LOC Transportation as public purpose

A

Does not extend to parking garages

631
Q

LOC ultra vires

A

Means???

632
Q

LOC Unanimous written consent in lieu of meeting

A

Not a valid action by local public body

A vote at a public meeting is required to take action

633
Q

LOC Va FOIA

A

within 5working days, the Board is required

to make the contract available for inspection and copying.

634
Q

PERS Bailment

A

To establish a prima facie case of bailment, James must prove that (1) he had an ownership right in the bailed property; (2) he transfered present possession of the bailed property to the bailee; and (3) the bailee knowingly accepted the bailed property from the bailor.

635
Q

PERS Finders

A

To establish a prima facie case of bailment, James must prove that (1) he had an ownership right in the bailed property; (2) he transfered present possession of the bailed property to the bailee; and (3) the bailee knowingly accepted the bailed property from the bailor.

636
Q

Probable cause required for street search

A

None, just permission

637
Q

PROP Action for partition requirements

A

Dispute among co-owners

Physical partition not convenient

638
Q

PROP WARRANTIES

Is zoning an encumberance?

A

NO

639
Q

PROP Negative easement

A

Veto right over subservient tract

640
Q

PROP Purchase under partition

A

One owner can ask judge to set buyout price for others

641
Q

PROP Requirements of a valid deed

A
  1. Meet certain formalities
  2. Be delivered by grantor
  3. Be accepted by grantee

Recording is not required

642
Q

PROP Requirements of a valid deed

A
  1. Delivery to new owner
643
Q

PROP What is English covenants of title

A
Fee Simple
w/o encumberances of tenancies or liens
Specifically
1. right to convey (seisin)
2. quiet posessesion
3. free from encumberances
4. further assurances
5. no act to encumber
644
Q

PROP What is the doctrine of merger in a property sale?

A
Contract of sale merges with the deed
Disfavored, thus narrowly construed
Deed terms govern
But only terms covered in deed
Does not extinguish other terms in contract
Regardless of any merger clause
645
Q

PROP When one party has invested in property owned as tenants in common

A

That party is entitled to remibursement prior to distribution of proceed

646
Q

REAL Adverse Possession

A

Adverse possession in Virginia requires that the person claiming adverse possession must hold the property

(1) in an open and notorious manner consistent with being an owner,
(2) exclusively
(3) continuously
(4) hostile to ownership rights of the real owner.
(5) for 15 years,

647
Q

REAL Condomium common areas

A

In Virginia, (by statute?), only the governing body of a condominium unit owners’ association has standing to sue a party for claims related to the community’s enjoymnet of common elements of the condominium complex.

648
Q

REAL Easement

A

Expenditure of investment and maintenance may be sufficient to create an easement, an irrevocable license

649
Q

REAL Easement

A

An easement is an interest to either do or not do something to property. An affirmative easement is an easement which allows you to do something to land such as walk through someones land or use it in some way you choose. A negative easement is one which you cannot do something. Negative easements relate to the land, sky, water, and mineral rights. A constructive easement is one created by a court (of equity) in which the court creates an easement because one relied on the promise of another with consideration that such an interest was created.

650
Q

REAL Invitee vs guest vs

A

TBD

651
Q

REAL Is an unrecorded deed valid against subsequent deed of trust

A

Deed is still valid, but so is deed of trust

A susequent recorded sale would trump

652
Q

REAL License

A

Where access is granted by permission without cost, we have have license that is revcoable at any time.

653
Q

Return of engagement ring

A

Return CAN be demanded
Notwithstanding Heart Act
Argument is that ring is a conditional gift

654
Q

SEC TRANS Replevin Virginia

A

In Virginia, “detinue” refers to a procedure by which a party may recover possession of “unlawfully withheld” personal property.[1] Many creditors are familiar with a related and similar cause of action, “replevin,” which is utilized in many jurisdictions outside of Virginia but has now been abolished in Virginia by statute.[2

655
Q

SEC TRANS Damages liquidation

A

the amount of any loss caused by afailure to comply with this title … [which] may include loss resulting from the debtor’s inability to obtain, or increased costs of, alternative financing”] lso recover statutory damages under Va. Code §8.9A-625(c) [“an amount not less than the credit service charge plus ten percent of the principal amount of the obligation orthe time-price differential plus ten percent of the cash price”

656
Q

SEC TRANS Notice of sale

A

Va. Code §8.9A-611(b) and (c)(1) [a secured party that disposes of collateral must send reasonable authenticated notification to the debtor] and Va, Code §8.9A-612 [10 days’ notice before disposition of collateral is considered reasonable].

657
Q

SEC TRANS Reservation of interest

A

retention or reservation of title by aseller of goods notwithstanding shipment or delivery to the buyer under Va. Code §8.2-401 is limited in effect to areservation of asecurity
interest.”

658
Q

SEC TRANS After acquired

A

A security interest in inventory, accounts, and/or chattel paper includes a security interest in all after-acquired such collateral, unless otherwise stated. Inventory includes all goods held for sale; accounts are the right to be paid. An interest attaches immediately when other collateral is acquired in which the secured party has a security interest, and upon the debtor’s default, the creditor may repossess the collateral or rights to payment

659
Q

SEC TRANS General

A

Under UCC Article 9, a secured transaction is one in which a creditor pays value to a debtor, and the debtor grants the secured party an interest in his collateral, which the secured party can take possession of and/or sell upon the debtor’s default. A security interest attaches when the creditor has given value, the debtor has rights in the collateral, and the parties have executed a security agreement. A security interest is generally perfected by filing a financing statement.

660
Q

Statute of Limitation - Fraud

A

2 years from did or should have become aware

661
Q

TORT Battery

A

The intentional tort of battery requires the intentional or reckless unwanted offensive touching of another.

662
Q

TORT Bouncer

A

Generally employers are not liable for the intentional torts of their employees.However, an employer may be held liable if the employee’s responsibilites include acts where torts are incident and inherent in the nature of the work. When the torts arise in these incidents, the court will also assess wether it was motivated by an intent to serve. Thus it is common for employers of bouncers to be held liable for intentional torts incident to bouncing.

663
Q

TORT Contributory Negligence

A

Contributory negligence is a defense when the victim was acting negligently. In Virginia, any contributory negligence can cause an otherwise liable defendant to not be liable. When a party is specifically warned of an action and then does not exercise reasonable care, the party is contributorily negligent. Negligence is based off a reasonable person standard.

664
Q

TORT Dram Shop

A

Virginia does not have a “dram shop” statute imposing strict liability on establishments serving alcohol for the accidents caused by those that are visibly overserved alcohol.

665
Q

TORT Duty of business to guest

A

A landowner owes an invitee a duty of reasonable care to keep the property reasonably safe, which includes an obligation to warn of or make safe nonobvious dangerous conditions known to the landowner and a duty to make reasonable inspections to discover dangerous conditions and to then make them safe. The landowner generally does not have aduty to warn of a condition that is so obvious that the invitee should reasonably have been aware of it

666
Q

TORT Duty of Common Carrier / Hotel

A

A common carrier, like a hotel, owes it’s guests elevated duty of care. Hotels have a duty to conduct inspections and warn of artificial and natural conditions they know about or should know about.

667
Q

TORT Duty Property Owners

A

In Virginia, property owners have a duty of care to maintain their property in such a way to reasonably provide safety when portions of their property expose the public to risks. The property owner has a duty to inspect the land and rememdy defects that they know or should know are likely to present hazards to the public.

668
Q

TORT Intentional Tort

A

An intentiional tort requires volitional movement and the requistie intent.

669
Q

TORT Liability Statutory

A

Negligence per se.

When a statute is violated by a defendant, a plaintiff may enter the statute into evidence as evidence of negligence per se if the plaintiff can prove that a statutory violation occured and the plaintiff was of the class of people and within the class of risk protected by that statute.

670
Q

TORT Negligence

A

Negligence requires duty, breach, causation, and damages. An individual or entity must has a duty to the public to act as a reasonably prudent person in the circumstances. This duty must be breached due to their conduct. The result of this breach must be proximate, or “but for,” cause of the plaintiff’s injuries. Finally, damages, which include compensatory damages, must arise.

671
Q

TORT Negligent hiring

A

An additional exception where liability for the torts of an employee may arise would be a company’s negligent hiring of an employee

672
Q

TORT Proximate Cause

A

Proximate cause for an injury is an action or inaction that may be deemed a “but for” cause of the injury, but may be attenuated from the most direct cause. However, the harm and the injuried party must have been foreseeable incidents of the negligence asserted.

673
Q

TORT Punitive damages

A

Virginia courts set a high bar for allowing punitive damages. Punitive damages may be recovered for “willful or wanton conduct, or such recklessness as evinces aconscious disregard for the safety of others” [Va. Code 8.01-52,5j.

674
Q

TORT Rescuer Liability

A

Generally, rescuers once they attempt a rescue are liable for any negligence in their attempts. Virginia has a “good samaritan” statute that protects persons who, while attempting to assist injuried or at-risk persons, may be deemed to have caused them further injury.

675
Q

TORT Traffic accident altercation

A

Virginia courts have held that an altercation resulting from a traffic accident remains within the scope of employment.

676
Q

TORT Vicarious Liability

A

respondeat superior.

For vicarious liability for torts to attach there must be a principal agent relationship and the tort must occur within the scope of employment. In cases, where there is an employee of an establishment, the agency relationship is established under the doctrine of respondeat superior. The question of whether the act was within the scope of employment is determined based on an analysis of the totality of the circumstances.

677
Q

TORT Vicarious Liability Independent Contractor

A

Principals are generally not liable for tort liability commited by independent contractors. The two main exceptions being when the activity is abnormally dangerous or the indpendent contractor holds themselves out to be an employee, in which case the employer/owner would be estopped from claiming no liaiblity.

678
Q

TORTS Bailment

A

Elements

  • delivery
  • acceptance

Duty
- gradtuitious: gross negligence
- commercial: ordinary care
and strict liability to deliver to proper owner

679
Q

TORTS Conversion

A

sdfdsf

680
Q

TORTS premises liability

A

In Virginia, the owner of a premises that is open to the public and invites the public in for business owes a duty of reasonable care to its invitees. As part of this reasonable care, the business must not only warn of concealed dangers, but actively inspect its premises to ensure that the dangers are discovered and rectified, such that the invitees are protected from them.

681
Q

TORTS proximate cause

A

Proximate cause in Virginia extends to all natural and probable consequences of the negligence

682
Q

TORTS Rights of Finders

A

Real owner has absolute superior right

683
Q

TRUSTS trust for minor in anticipation of death

A

Trust does not automatically terminate upon majority

684
Q

TRUSTS Trustee liability for known misdeeds of co-trusttee

A

yes!

685
Q

TRUSTS trustee personal liability for unpaid trust expenses

A

no. trust is iiable

686
Q

UCC Attorneys fees

A

The UCC structure provides default provisions for many aspects of a contract for goods. The parties are generally free to contract explicitly around these provisions. The default rule regarding attorneys fees is that each party shoulders its own legal costs. The two primary exceptions are when the parties expressly agree to liability for attorneys fees, and when the court finds fraud against one of the parties, in which cases legal fees can be assessed against that party

687
Q

UCC Goods Buyer Acceptance`

A

A buyer accepts the goods if it fails reject them after areasonable opportunity to inspect.

688
Q

UCC Loss on shipment

A

There are various types of UCC contracts and how the risk of loss is delineated. A shipment contract is where the seller delivers F.O.B. (free of board) to a common carrier, makes the proper arrangements for the common carrier to deliver the goods to the buyer, and notifies the buyer when the goods have been delivered. During a shipment contract, the risk of loss is on the seller until delivery to the common carrier, and at that point the risk of loss is shifted over to the buyer. So the buyer has the burden of risk during the common carrier’s shipment to the buyer. The other type of contract is a destination contract where the seller delivers F.O.B. to the buyer directly (to either the buyer’s place of business or a place designated by the buyer) and the buyer is notified upon delivery of the goods at the designated location. During a destination contract, the risk of loss remains with the seller until the goods have been delivered to the buyer.

689
Q

UCC NEG INST Impact of security

A

Additional security on the repayment of a note does not in itself change the negotiability of the instrument. The note aspect of the paper has superior standing to the secured transaction nature of the paper.

690
Q

UCC NEG INST No Contingencies

A

To be a valid negotiable instrument, it must be payable on demand or at a specific date. Payment based conditioned on an event that is not certain to occur is not sufficient.

691
Q

UCC NEG INST Requirements

A

a negotiable instrument is a written and signed instrument providing for an unconditional promise to pay money to order or bearer and do nothing else payable on demand or at a definite time. The instrument may be payable either to the order of a specific person, or to bearer.

In order for a note to be negotiatable, it must:

(i) be paid to someone or to the order or to a bearer;
(ii) have a specific sum of money;
(iii) have an interest rate either desribed specifically or to be set by the court;
(iv) a final payment date;
(v) a security; and
(iv) a signature.

692
Q

UCC Sales - Care for rejected goods

A

sss

693
Q

UCC Sales - Definition of merchant

A

sss

694
Q

UCC Sales - Express Warranty

A

xxx

695
Q

UCC Sales - Waiver

A

sss

696
Q

UCC Sales - Warranty for obvious defects

A

sss

697
Q

UCC Sales Food at Restaurant

A

A sale of food at a restaurant is considered a sale of goods covered by the UCC

698
Q

CONT UCC FORM

Installment Contracts

A

An installment contract authorizes the delivery of separate lots over time. Late-delivered lots can be rejected only if the late delivery “substantially impairs” the value of the shipment.

699
Q

UCC SALES Non conforming goods

A

A buyer that has accepted non-conforming goods may keep the goods and recover damages “for any loss” resulting from the breach, including lost profits.

700
Q

UCC SALES Terms of Art

A

There are “terms of art” used in contracts for the sale of goods, and they are enforceab;e where the meaning of th term can be foundina usage of trade - UCC 2-202(a)

701
Q

UCC Warranties in sales of of goods

A

Warranty of good title

Warranty of mechantability

702
Q

VCP Good Faith Purchaser

A

A good faith purchaser (or bona fide purchaser) is one who takes for value, in good faith, without notice that the sale violates the rights of another in the property.

703
Q

VCP Appeal from Circuit Court`

A

A party seeking an appeal from a judgment in Circuit Court must file a notice of appeal in the Circuit Court in which a final order or judgment has been entered, within 30 days after the judgment or order has been entered.

704
Q

VCP Appeal Process CC

A
Notice of Appeal
Trial Court Clerk's Office 
30 days from date of entry final order 
Mail to all counsel 
Certificate of service on all counsel

Within 30 days of entry of final order
- file notice of appeal with Circuit Court
Post bond for costs with Supreme Court of Virginia
File copy of transscript within 60 days
or statement within 55 days?
File petition for appeal within 3 months of entry of final order

705
Q

VCP Appeal Supreme Court Standard of review

A

Law de novo, facts abuse of discretion

706
Q

VCP Appeal to Circuit Court process

A

File written notice of appeal

With the clerk of GDC
– Within 10 days of judgment

Post bond and pay writ tax in GDC

    • Within 30 days of judgment
    • Within 10 days of judgment (if unlawful detainer)
707
Q

VCP Appeal to Supreme Court - Contents

A

Assignments of Error

Specifies rulings of the trial court of which party complains

708
Q

VCP Appeal to wrong court

A

Court can not dismiss, must forward to correct court

709
Q

VCP Appealing a sustained demurrer

A

A sustained demurrer is a final order, subject to appeal, because it represents the “final” disposition of the case.

710
Q

VCP Appealing Objections

A

Objections during trial must be made timely and with specificity as to the basis of the objection. If a party does not make an objection during trial, the matter will only be addressed on appeal if it constitutes plain error. There is plain error where, absent the mistake, the outcome would have been completely different.

711
Q

VCP Arbitration

A

Can be enforced by the court

712
Q

VCP Arbitration -Waiver

A

Can result from

  • failure to compell up front
  • extensive participation in litiagation before seeking
713
Q

VCP Arbitration enforcement

A

Make application to court to enter a conforming award

714
Q

VCP Arbitration vacate award

A

Yes, but only for a defect in process, not a disagreement with the result

715
Q

VCP Attachment grounds

A

VA CODE 8.01-534

  1. not a resident of Commonwealth
  2. Is removing or is about to remove himself
  3. Intends to remove, or is removing, or has removed the specific property sued for
  4. Is converting with intent to defraud his creditors;
  5. Has assigned [property} with intent to defraud his creditors;
  6. Has absconded or is about to abscond or has concealed or is about to conceal himself or his property to the injury of his creditors, or is a fugitive from justice.

The intent mentioned in subdivisions 4 and 5 above may be stated either in the alternative or conjunctive.

716
Q

VCP Attorney Fees

A

Generally, in Virginia, each party is responsible for paying their own attorney’s fees, and the court will not order otherwise. However, in special cases, such as a finding of fraud, the Court may offer that attorney’s fees be paid to the victor. the party must request attorney’s fees in the complaint.

717
Q

VCP Attorney fees award

A

Generally only in cases of fraud

718
Q

VCP BIll of Review

A

A bill of review is a bill IN EQUITY that requests a judge to reopen a case in which a final order has been entered. However, a bill of review may be filed within six months of the entry of a final order.

(A divorce action is a proceeding in equity.)

A bill of review can be brought on either of two alternative grounds: [1] error of law apparent on the face of the record of the proceeding; and [2] newly/after discovered evidence. If the bill of review is sought on the grounds of newly/after discovered evidence, leave of court to file the bill of review must be first obtained.

719
Q

VCP Bill to quiet title

A

Equitable action
Settles title, not possession directly
Inferior to legal remedy of ejectment

720
Q

VCP Bill to quiet title

A

Equitable action
Settles title, not possession directly
Inferior to legal remedy of ejectment

721
Q

VCP Change in amount on appeal to Circuit Court

A

Permissible if appeal is by defendant

722
Q

VCP Choice of Laws Contracts

A

Virginia follows the Traditional Approach from the First Restatements of Conflicts (the “Vested Rights” approach). Under the vested rights approach, in breach of contract actions, the forum state applies the law of the state where the contract was executed - unless it is a claim for breach of performance. In that case, the forum court will apply the law of the state where the contract was performed.

723
Q

VCP Civil Appeals

A

All civil appeals (except domestic and workers compensation cases) from Virginia Circuit Courts are mad on petition to the Supreme Court of Virginia.

(If a petition for civil appeal is incorrectly filed with the VIrginia Court of Appeals, that court will transfer the petitiorn to the Virginia Supreme Court.)

724
Q

VCP Conflicts in Laws

A

Virginia will apply the shortest SOL from among the jurisdictions involved.

725
Q

VCP Conflicts in Laws Choice of Law

A

Not enforcible if stated forum unrelated to the contract

726
Q

VCP Contents of Bill of Review (new evidence)

A

Where a party seeks a bill of review based on newly discovered evidence, the party must show:

1) That the evidence was discovered after the conclusion of the trial;
2) That the evidence would likely produce a different result;
3) That the evidence is not cumulative, corroborative, or repetitive;
4) That the evidence could not have been discovered before trial through the use of reasonable diligence; and
5) That the evidence can be produced at trial

727
Q

VCP Court jurisdition after final order

A

After entry of a final judgement, a case “rests in the breast of the court” for 21 days. After that, the court has no further jurisdiction.

The period is adjusted if the 21st day fall on a day when the court is closed.

728
Q

VCP Declaratory judgement

A

judicial determination of rights and obligations
- before actual cause of action matures
not favored if alternatives exist
“crossroads of a controversy”

729
Q

VCP Defenses requiring affadavit

A

Lack of genuineness of handwriting
Lack of corporate or partnership agency status
Lack of ownership or operation of property/instrument

730
Q

VCP Defenses to contributory negligence

A

Default judgement waives as matter of law - as to liability only, not damages

731
Q

VCP Demurrer requirements

A

Must state specific grounds for the objection

732
Q

VCP Demurrer sufficiency

A

A demurrer challenges the legal sufficiency of a Complaint or other pleading. All well-pleaded facts in the complaint are presumed admitted, but the demurrer alleges that even if those facts are true, they do not allege a sufficient basis for a legal claim.

733
Q

VCP Detinue

A

In Virginia, “detinue” refers to a procedure by which a party may recover possession of “unlawfully withheld” personal property.[1] Many creditors are familiar with a related and similar cause of action, “replevin,” which is utilized in many jurisdictions outside of Virginia but has now been abolished in Virginia by statute.[2

734
Q

VCP Discovery (circuit)

A

Virginia Distinctions:
No mandatory disclosures
21 days rather than 30 days for deadlines
30 is the max for interrogatories
No limit on number of depositions
No requests for production against non-parties

735
Q

VCP Ejectment

A

Action at law to settle title

Must prove positive right to title for plaintiff

736
Q

VCP Elements of action for detinue

A
  1. show current right to property
  2. show right to immediate possession
  3. property is capable of being possessed
  4. property has value
  5. defendant had possession when suit filed

good against person with posession but not title
seeking seizure in advance required double value bond 8.01-115

737
Q

VCP Evidence on appeal GDC to CC

A

As the circuit court hears the case de novo, there is no “appeal” from evidence decisions at the GDC

738
Q

VCP Evidence on appeal to VSC

A

There is none. The SCV appeal is on matters of law, though exclusion of relevant evidence is a possible grounds for abuse of discretion.

739
Q

VCP General District Court Appeal substance

A

Appeals from the General District Court to the Circuit Court are de novo. Therefore, the parties start over from the beginning and put on the entire case again. Evidence used in the prior trial may be used again, but does not have to be. Similarly, evidence that was not used in the prior trial may be introduced in Circuit Court.

740
Q

VCP General District Court Appeal timing

A

Parties to a General District Court action may file an appeal to the Circuit Court. This notice of appeal must be filed with the General District Court where the judgment was entered within 10 days of the judgment. However, if the 10th day falls on the weekend, the appellant may file the notice on the following Monday.

741
Q

VCP Geographic scope of court judgement

A

Against real estate anywhere in Virginia, docket w appropriate

742
Q

VCP Heart Balm Act

A

In general, can not sue for loss of affection

743
Q

VCP Impact of filing being nullity

A

There is no case to amend, etc.
Does not exist
Statute of limitation continues to run

744
Q

VCP Injunction - Temporary

A
  1. Preserve status quo and prevent harm to P?
  2. Adequate remedy at law?
  3. Likelihood of P prevailing on the merits?
  4. public interest?

If favor plaintiff, grant and post bond

745
Q

VCP Injunction Permanent

A

In Virginia, a Court will only order a permanent injunction under the following conditions

1) Plaintiff has suffered a harm
2) a remedy of monetary damages are inadequate
3) the injunction would be in the public’s interest
4) the balance of hardships between the Plaintiff and the Defendant favors the Plaintiff
5) the injunction would be enforcable
6) Defendant has no defenses in equity.

746
Q

VCP Injunction Temporary

A

1) not granting the injunction will cause irreparable harm,
2) the asking party will likely prevail,
3) the benefit of granting the injunction will outweigh the burden on the other party, and
4) the injunction does not go against public policy.

747
Q

VCP Jury - three person

A

In any civil case in which the consent of the plaintiff and defendant shall be entered of record, it shall be lawful for the plaintiff to select one person who is eligible as a juror and for the defendant to select another, and for the two so selected to select a third of like qualifications, and the three so selected shall constitute a jury in the case. They shall take the oath required of jurors, and hear and determine the issue, and any two concurring shall render a verdict in like manner and with like effect as a jury of seven.

748
Q

VCP Jury awards

A

Excess if shocks the conscience

Plaintiff can accept remittiur (lower) or new trial on all or just damages

749
Q

VCP JURY

Jury contact by others

A

Judges discretion upon investigation

750
Q

VCP Jury strike for cause

A

When a potential juror

  • is related to a party,
  • has any interest in the case being tried, or
  • has expressed an opinion or bias in the matter,

he can be stricken from the panel for cause.

751
Q

VCP Late Filings

A

Court MAY approve for good cause

But test is real

752
Q

VCP Motion to Quash

A

Claim of lack of personal jurisdiction

753
Q

VCP Motion to set aside verdict

A

Must be made during 21 day post final window

Even if valid, after that judge can do nothing

754
Q

VCP Name of action to ask court to decided ownership of property

A

Interpleader VA 8.01-364

755
Q

VCP Naming wrong defendant

A

Misjoinder. Incorrect party. Tolls SOL.

756
Q

VCP Ore Tenus

A

Oral hearing - common in divorce

757
Q

VCP Pers Jurisdiction Fgn Co

A

For the Court to exercise personal jurisdiction over a foreign corporation, both Virginia’s Long-Arm Statute (VA Code § 8.01-328.1) and Constitutional Due Process would each have to be satisfied.
For purposes of the Long-Arm Statute, Virginia is a single transaction state. If a foreign company transacts business with a Virignia company, the court can assert personal jurisdiction.
For purposes of Constitutional Due Process, the foreign company must satisify the minimum contact test first articulated in International Shoe such that personal jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantive justice. When looking at whether the Defendant has minimum contacts, we look to whether the defendant purposefully availed himself of the benefits of doing business in Virginia and whether it was foreseeable that he may be sued in a Virginia court. We look to the relatedness of the claim to those contacts with the state, and finally, we look to fairness factors, focusing on the affect on Defendant and witnesses in bringing the case in Virginia, the state’s interest in the claim and finally, the plaintiff’s interest in having the case heard in Virginia.

758
Q

VCP Personal Jurisdiction - agent

A

Presense of an agent in Virginia can create personal jirisdiction

759
Q

VCP possession of items in a car

A

actual ownership of car matters

must be proven, including knowledge that items were there

760
Q

VCP pre-trial seizure in detinue

A
  1. kind, quantity, and estimated value of property sought
  2. basis of plaintiff’s claim with particulars
  3. allgege grounds for attachment w facts
  4. swear to petition by plaintiff or agent

PLUS BOND?

761
Q

VCP Preservation of error

A

Issues (assignment of error) raised on appeal for the first time will not be considered by the appelate court unless the “ends of justice” exception applies

  • in general, trail counsel must have oobjected tto the issues, and given the trial judge a chance to rule on it, inorder for that issue to be considered on appeal
  • The “ends of justice” exeption is appplied in extreme cases where the court must correct a grave injustice.
762
Q

VCP Proper venue generally

A

Place of occurance

Home of defendant

763
Q

VCP Request for Admissions deadline

A

A request for Admissions must be answered within 21 days or any requested admission is deemed admitted

764
Q

VCP Requirements for bill of review

A
Must be filing within 6 months of prior ruling
Based upon 
- error of law apparent on the face 
- new/after discovered evidence 
Requires leave of court to file
765
Q

VCP Reverse GFPV real property in probate

A

One year after start of probate

766
Q

VCP Separation of liability and damages

A

Proceedings are separated. A waiver of liability defense is not waiver of right to argue damages

767
Q

VCP Server of Service

A

Court Officer in home or adjoining jurisdiction

Disinterested aduilt

768
Q

VCP Service curative

A

If service is not proper, but nonetheless the defendant actually receives the summons and complaint in a timely manner, then the curative statute will cure the defective service and service will be deemed proper

769
Q

VCP Service on foreign corporation

A

Only officer, director, or registered agent

Note curative statute 8.01-288

770
Q

VCP Service Process Out of State Defendant

A

P executes and files an affidavit setting forth both:

    • That D is a non-resident or cannot be found
    • D’s last known address

P gives process and a copy of the affidavit to the Secretary of the Commonwealth

The Secretary:

    • Sends process to D by certified mail
    • Sends a certificate of mailing to the court

Service is complete once the clerk of court receives the certificate

771
Q

VCP Service requirements

A

Virginia’s options for service of process are not simple alternatives, rather they are in descending order and only if the preferred method of service fails may process server result to the next option. In Virginia, service on a natural person must be made by either the sheriff or a disinterested adult over the age of 18. To be effective, service must include both a summons and a complaint. The complaint is first filed with the clerk of the court, who will prepare a summons, which is then attached to the complaint. Both the summons and complaint must be served on the defendant for service to be effective. Service on natural persons may be accomplished in several ways. In descending order of priority, these methods are:

1) In person;
2) By delivering to a family member over the age of 16 at the defendant’s usual place of abode and explaining the significance of the service; and
3) By posting on the front door of the defendant’s usual place of abode and mailing a copy of the complaint and summons to the defendant’s address.

If service is not proper, but nonetheless the defendant actually receives the summons and complaint in a timely manner, then the curative statute will cure the defective service and service will be deemed proper.

772
Q

VCP Sovereign Immunity - timing of defense

A

Can be raised at any time as it relates to subject matter jurisdiction

773
Q

VCP Soverign Immunity - scope

A

Virginia Tort Act only applies to state
- NOT counties
- but yes cities and towns
Counties SI for all negligence
Cities and towns and state liable for gross negligence
$100,000 cap (to same extent as private citizen liability)

774
Q

VCP Specific Performance

A

First, as is the case with all equitable remedies, Sam must demonstrate that no adequate remedy at law is available. While Virginia generally recognizes that real property is sufficiently “unique” to meet this requirement for buyers, sellers are also afforded specific performance under real estate contracts if the equities so demand.

775
Q

VCP Specific Performance

A

Rare outside of real estate
Court must find
- contract is valid
- contract not subject to legitimate defenses
- no adequate remedy at law (real estate is unique)

Performance obligations on both sides?

776
Q

VCP Statue Limitations Breach Contract

A

In Virginia, a breach of contract claim has a statute of limitations period for five years. The statute begins to run from the date the contract was entered.

777
Q

VCP Statute limitations breach of contract

A

5 years

778
Q

VCP Statute Limitations Equitable Relieve

A

traditionally, in Virginia, there is no statute of limitations for equitable claims.

779
Q

VCP Statute Limitations Fraud

A

For claims of fraud, the statute of limitations is two years to bring the claim. The statute of limitations for fraud claims begins to run at the time the fraud is discovered, not when the fraudulent act is committed.

780
Q

VCP Statute limitations Offer Will to Probate

A

None

781
Q

VCP Statute of limitation - written contract

A

Five years non UCC

Four years UCC

782
Q

VCP Statute of Limitation sale of good

A

The statute of limitations on the sale of goods is 4 years, as articulated by the UCC

783
Q

VCP Statute of limitations - injury to person

A

2 years

784
Q

VCP Statute of Limitations - Tolling

A

All time periods for statutes limitations are tolled for incapcity or infancy of the plaintiff. Infancy in Virginia ends upon turning age 18.

785
Q

VCP Statute of Limitations Contracts

A

in Virginia, contracts have a statute of limitations of 3 years for oral contracts, 4 years for UCC contracts for sale of goods, and 5 years for written contracts. The statute of limitations begins to toll when there has been a breach of the contract.

786
Q

VCP Statute of limitations tolling

A

Infancy - until majority (age 18)

- except medical malpractice to 10

787
Q

VCP Subject matter jurisdiction

A

Can not be accepted or waived.
Can not be conferred by private party
Is what it is
Issue can be raised at any time

788
Q

VCP Summary judgement

A

Any party can move for summary judgement. Based upon the pleading and any requests for admissions - inlcuding any attachments to the pleadings

789
Q

VCP Summary judgement evidence

A

The court may not rely upon depositions in ruling on a motion for summary judgement, unless all parties have agreed to allow them. Information contained in a discovery request for admissission may be used, even if that request for admissions was inspired by deposition testimony.

790
Q

VCP

Suspension of an order

A

Keeps case in court’s jurisdiction.

Tolls the 21(?) day rule?

791
Q

VCP Sustaining a demurrer

A

When the court sustains a demurrer, it can take one of two actions. It can make a final order dimissing the case, or it has the power to allow the plaintiff to amend the pleading.

792
Q

VCP Term for using wrong name for defendant

A

Misnomer

793
Q

VCP Tests for preserving SOL if wrong person named

A
  1. New action arose from same event in initial pleading
  2. Correct person was unaware of pendency of action
  3. Delay does not prejudice defendant
  4. Defendant should have been aware cause of action pending
794
Q

VCP Titleing an action by minor

A

Jane Doe, a minor, who sues by her next friend John Doe, Plaintiff

795
Q

VCP Trial by jury

A

Not possible in District General Court

796
Q

VCP Unlawful detainer

A

Legal action

Action for possession (not title) of real property

797
Q

VCP VA attorney designation of a non VA attorney as agent

A

Not permitted. Any action by agent is a nullity

798
Q

VCP`Barriers to non-suit

A
  1. motion to strike evidence sustained
  2. jury has retired from bar
  3. action submitted to court for decision
799
Q

VCRP Automobile passenger

A

For an officer to search an individual in an automobile, they must either have consent, reasonable suspicion of danger for a Terry Stop, or probable cause that the search will provide evidence of a crime.

800
Q

VCRP Drug Dog

A

a drug sniffing dog may be used during the course of a lawful traffic stop, so long as the traffic stop is not unreasonably extended. An alert from a drug-sniffing dog can give rise to probable cause so long as the foundation can be laid that the dog has the proper training, etc. A sniff from a drug dog is not considered a search unless it is done upon a constitutionally protected area. a vehicle is not a constitutionally protected area where an individual has a reasonable expectation of
privacy. Thus, a dog sniff of a car does not constitute a search.

801
Q

VCRP Motion to Strike

A

In a criminal trial, a party may file a motion in limine to resolve an issue of admissibility prior to the trial taking place. The defense should file a motion to exclude the evidence, and the court should hold a preliminary hearing on the issue prior to trial. If the defense failed to make a pretrial motion, the defense may object to the admissibility of the evidence upon the prosecutions attept to admit the evidence. The court should hear arguments outside the presence of the jury so as not to prejudice the jury.

802
Q

VCRP MOTION

Motion to suppress

A

Motions seeking to exclude evidence must be raised in writing before trial by motion filed and notice given to opposing counsel not less than seven days before trial in circuit court VA 19.2-266.2

The court can still allow the motion to be made.

803
Q

VCRP Pat down of person

A

A pat down of an individual is permissible only if the officer has reasonable suspicion that the person might be armed or dangerous.

804
Q

VCRP Plain View

A

Illict items in plain view during the execution of a search warrant may be seized even if not named specifically in the warrant. Under the plain view doctrine, an officer may seize items which are in plain view if their illicit nature is readily ascertainable and the officers did not need to move or disturb the objects to discover them.

805
Q

VCRP Possession

A

Possession can be actual or constructive. Actual possession would be physical possession, like holding a gun. Constructive possession is when one exercises dominion and control over the space containing an object. Note in a crimnal case possession must be beyond a reasonable doubt

806
Q

VCRP Probable cause to arrest

A

Probable Cause exists where the facts and circumstances within the officer’s knowledge, and of which he has reasonaably trustworth information, would lead a reasaonable person to believer that a crime has been committeed, and the arrest of a person believed to have committed it.

807
Q

VCRP Seach person``

A

Police may also not search or seize a person under the law without justifiable support. There are several exceptions to this general rule. Police are able to Terry stop and frisks based on reasonable suspicion, may search subjects incident to arrest, and may search subjects for inventory at the time of booking. Here, the facts indicate that the police had a right to search the man for either of the final two reasons. Officers may search a person and seize any weapons or contraband that is immediately apparant incidental to an arrest. This rule is designed to protect officer safety.

808
Q

VCRP Search of Automobile

A

a special set of rules has evolved articulating the application of the 4th amendment to police-citizen encounters that occur in the context of automobiles. Officers may perform a warrantless search of a vehicle if they have probable cause to believe that it contains evidence of a crime.

809
Q

VCRP Search warrant description

A

A search pursuant to a valid warrant is presumptively reasonable. The warrant must describe with some specificity what items the police are searching for, and police cannot search in places where the items on the search warrant could not be found.

810
Q

VCRP Search warrant scope

A

When a search warrant authorizes officers to search for specific items within a home, they are authorized to search containers and places within the home in which such items could reasonably be discovered.

811
Q

VCRP Separate witnesses

A

In general, the court is required , on motion of either attorney, to exclude the winessess to be called. Bzut there is a statutory excdeption that allows a complaining witness to remain in the courtroom ifis does not compromise the fairness of the process. VA 19.2-265.1

812
Q

VCRP Stopping a car

A

Under the Fourth Amendment of the Constitution, an individual has a right against unreasonable searches and seizures of his person and effects. An officer may stop a car upon the probable cause of a crime being committed. If an officer personally observes a misdeamor, the officer may show authority and lawfully stop the vechile

813
Q

VCRP Sufficiency of evidende firearm

A

It is not necessarily that the victim actually see a firearm to convict for using a fireamr in the commission of a felony - this can be proven by circumstantial evidence

814
Q

VCRP Sufficiency of the evidence

A

sfsd

815
Q

VCRP Unduly suggestive identification

A

A “show up” identification procedure is not overly suggestive when the witness has sufficent time and ability to look at the suspect and is not pressured into identifying someone.

816
Q

WILL Legal List

A

If a will refers to a written statement or list to dispose of items of tangible personal property not otherwise specifically bequeathed, the statement or list shall be given effect to the extent that it describes items of tangible personal property and their intended recipients with reasonable certainty and is signed by the testator although it does not satisfy the requirements for a will. Bequests of a general or residuary nature, whether referring only to personal property or to the entire estate, are not specific bequests for the purpose of this section.

817
Q

WILLS Dead Man Rule

A

Virginia applies a modified version of the Dead Man’s Statute. A witness who has an interest in the decedent’s estate may offer testimony as to statements made by the decedent, but only if there is some other evidence to corroborate that statement.

818
Q

WILLS Impact of adoption

A

When a child is adopted in to a family, she takes only from her adoptive parnets. She does not take from her biological parents. The sole exception to this rule is when there is a step-parent adoption, which occurs when one of the childs parents remarries and the child’s step- parent adopts the child. In these situations, the child can take from both of his biological parents as well as the adoptive parent.

819
Q

WILLS Intestate succession

A

Under the intestacy laws, if a decedent does not leave behind a surviving spouse, the estate passes to any descendants of the decedent, by representation. Only children who are natural children of the decedent, or who have been formally adopted, constitute “descendants” for intestacy purposes.
If a decedent does not leave behind a surviving spouse or any descendants, then the estate passes to his parents. If his parents do not survive him, then the estate passes to his siblings, by representation.

820
Q

WILLS Transfer by referenced list

A

in Virginia, a will can incorporate a list by reference. This list can be executed before, during, or after the will is executed and still be a valid conveyance of property.

821
Q

WILLS Transfer on Death Deed

A

Under Virginia (VA) law, while a grantor who wishes to transfer title to land ordinarily requires that a deed be both executed and delivered to a grantee, a grantor can satisfy the delivery requirement by a Transfer on Death deed, which is a non-probate asset that transfers title immediately upon the grantor’s death

822
Q

WILLS Validity of Copy

A

In Virginia, if a decedent was known to have executed a will, and that will is not found in his possessions at his death, there is a presumption that the decedent destroyed the will. Physical destruction of the will, such as by burning or tearing the text of the document, operates as a revocation by physical destruction.
However, even if the will cannot be found, a copy of the will can be admitted for probate if there is sufficient evidence to establish that the copy does represent the testator’s valid last will and testament, and that it was not revoked`

823
Q

WILLS abatement

A

If the probate estate has a reduced value from what is bequeathed in the will, then the process of abatement will determine how the reduced value will be apportioned among the beneficiaries. State law determines how ademption or abatement will apply.

824
Q

WILLS Abatement Virginia

A

Property that a testator gave during his lifetime to a person shall not be treated as a satisfaction of a devise or bequest to that person, in whole or in part, unless

(i) the will provides for deduction of the lifetime gift,
(ii) the testator declares in a writing made contemporaneously with the gift that the gift is to be deducted from the devise or bequest or is in satisfaction thereof, or
(iii) the devisee or legatee acknowledges in writing that the gift is in satisfaction of the devise or bequest.

825
Q

WILLS ademption by extinction.

A

When the asset covered by as specfic bequest is not found in the estate

826
Q

WILLS ademption by satisfaction

A

A gift given to the beneficiary while the testator was still alive is called ademption by satisfaction.

827
Q

WILLS Afterborn heirs.

A

Relatives of the decedent conceived before his death but born thereafter, and children resulting from assisted conception born after the decedent’s death who are determined to be relatives of the decedent as provided in Chapter 9 (§ 20-156 et seq.) of Title 20, shall inherit as if they had been born during the lifetime of the decedent.

828
Q

WILLS Age of majority in Virginia

A

18

829
Q

WILLS Completion of a gift

A

To complete a transfer of title to an asset, there must be intent, acceptance, and delivery of title. Acceptance may be assumed by silence or passage of time. Delivery is completed either by physically handing the necessary document to the recipient, or symbolically. The transferor’s intent is necessary in determining whether delivery occurred or not, because even where physical delivery did not occur, if it is clear that the transferor intended for the recipient to receive it, delivery may be have been made.

830
Q

WILLS Conflict between will and outstanding contract

A

Represents a breach of contract
Actionable against estate
Seek specific performance against estate
Conflict grounds for removing executor?

831
Q

WILLS Contract

A

A contract to make a will is controlled by the same rules and priniciles and is enfforceable as other contracte

The remedy is specfic performance

832
Q

WILLS Contractual significance of mirror wills

A

Insufficient without other evidence

833
Q

WILLS Death of ommitted child before majority

A

Property reverts to estate, not intestacy

834
Q

WILLS Dependent relevant revocation

A

Dependent relevant revocation (DRR - also known as ineffective revocation) is a doctrine in trusts and estates law. It makes a revocation of a former will ineffective if the testator made the revocation through execution of a new will, and that newly executed will is determined invalid.

835
Q

WILLS Disposition of funds in joint account WROS

A

To the survivor unless clear evidence of other intent WHEN ACCOUNT WAS CREATED

836
Q

WILLS Effect of guardian on assessing capacity

A

not dispository

837
Q

WILLS Elective share

A

§ 64.2-308.3. Elective share amount; effect of election on statutory benefits; non-domiciliary.

A. The surviving spouse of a decedent who dies domiciled in this state has a right of election, under the limitations and conditions stated in this article, to take an elective-share amount equal to 50 percent of the value of the marital-property portion of the augmented estate.

B. If the right of election is exercised by or on behalf of the surviving spouse, the surviving spouse’s homestead allowance, exempt property, and family allowance, if any, are not charged against but are in addition to the elective-share amount.

C. The right, if any, of the surviving spouse of a decedent who dies domiciled outside this state to take an elective share in property in this state is governed by the law of the decedent’s domicile at death.

838
Q

WILLS Elements of testatmentary capacity

A

Know:

  1. the nature of his property
  2. the natural objects of his bounty
  3. capable of forming an orderly plan of disposition
  4. understand the disposition made

AT TIME OF SIGNING
Need not be as sharp as ever
Prior periods of incapacity irrelevant

839
Q

WILLS Entitled to Probate

A

Speak for is this a valid will

840
Q

WILLS Estate Tax in Virginia

A

none?

841
Q

WILLS Gift in praesenti

A

donor may reserve right of possession if manifest intent that gift is complete

842
Q

WILLS Holographic will

A

Merely requires that it clearly be intended as a wiil
Entirely in testator handwriting
Same rule for revival / codicil?

843
Q

WILLS hotchpot

A

When the descendant of a decedent receives any property as an advancement from the decedent during the decedent’s lifetime or under the decedent’s will, and the descendant, or any descendant of his, is also to receive a distribution of any portion of the decedent’s intestate estate, real or personal, the advancement shall be brought into hotchpot with the intestate estate and the descendant is entitled to his proper portion of the entire intestate estate, including such advancement.

the combining of properties into a common lot to ensure equality of division among those entitled to a share of an estate which requires that advancements (as to a child) be made up to the estate by contribution or by an accounting

844
Q

WILLS If will is NOT self-proving, what is process

A
Any interested person take to Clerk of Circuit Court
- original of will
- death certificate
- one of the two witnesses of will
AND
- pay fees
- post bond and surety if PR
845
Q

WILLS Impact of adoption on intestacy

A

Cuts off original family line

846
Q

WILLS Impact of lapsed beneficiary

A

Either creates intestacy OR

Requires contructive return to gross estate/residuary

847
Q

WILLS Impact of two valid wills?

A

Most recent trumps on conflicting aspects

Older stands where not in conlfict

848
Q

WILLS Independent Significance

A

The doctrine of acts of independent significance at common law permits a testator to effectively change the disposition of his property without changing a will, if acts or events changing the disposition have some significance beyond avoiding the requirements of the will.

The doctrine is frequently applied under the following two circumstances:

The testator devises assets to a class of beneficiaries where the testator controls membership. For example, Joey leaves the contents of his bank account "to my employees." If Joey then fires some of old employees and hires new ones, the new employees will inherit the contents of the bank account under this provision.
The testator devises a general type of property, and then changes the specific items of property within that category. For example, Joey writes in his will, "I leave my car to Rachel". Joey drives a 1974 AMC Gremlin at the time of the testamentary instrument, but later sells the Gremlin and purchases a 2016 Rolls-Royce Phantom Drophead Coupé with suicide doors and teak paneling. Because Joey bought a new car to get a more comfortable ride, rather than to change a will without going through the testamentary formalities, the gift to Rachel remains enforceable.

The Uniform Probate Code states,

A will may dispose of property by reference to acts and events that have significance apart from their effect upon the dispositions made by the will, whether they occur before or after the execution of the will or before or after the testator’s death. The execution or revocation of another individual’s will is such an event.[1]

849
Q

WILLS inherit through a will

A

technically not possible.

one inherits only through intestacy

850
Q

WILLS Interpartes Probate

A

In rare cases, all interested parties can be summoned to appear before a Circuit Court pursuant to Va. Code § 64.2-449. Guardians ad litem may be appointed for minors and incapacitated persons. Where necessary, process may be had by order of publication. When all interested parties are convened, the Court shall proceed to hear the motion for probate. The use of this proceeding results in a decree that will generally bar parties to the proceeding from later filing a Complaint to Impeach or Establish the Will. (See Va. Code § 64.2-448; Lamb, Virginia Probate Practice §§ 56 through 75.)

851
Q

WILLS Intestacy children different marriages

A

spouse gets 1/3, children split remaining 2/3rds

852
Q

WILLS Intestacy children surviving spouse

A

spouse takes all

853
Q

WILLS Intestate beneficiaries

A
  1. Spouse
  2. Children
  3. Parents
  4. Siblings

Virginia phrase that covers:
Grandparent or descendant of grandparent??

854
Q

WILLS negating anti-lapse provision

A

stating “those who survive me” as a modifier

855
Q

WILLS Nuncupative Will

A

A will that has been delivered orally (that is, in speech) to witnesses, as opposed to the usual form of wills, which is written and according to a proper format.Valid for soldier in actual military service or mariner or seaman at sea to dispose of personal property.

856
Q

WILLS Nursing Home

A

A will is probated in the Cirdcuit Curt within the city or county where the decedent had a known place of residence. There is a rebutable presumpiton that moving into a nursing home does not change the resideced.

857
Q

WILLS Oral creation/modification of a trust

A

Must have

  • intent to create a trust
  • actual transfer of property

by clear and convincing evidence

858
Q

WILLS Oral gift of property at death

A

Invalid. Only a will will do

859
Q

WILLS Out of State Executor

A

Out of state residents may serve as executors, so long as they
- consent to service of process in Virgnia, and
- post a srety bond no matter what will says
OR
get a Viriginia resident to serve as co-executor

860
Q

WILLS Overarching rights of surviving spouse

A

$24,000 (2k x 12) family allowance
$20,000 exempt personal property
$20,000 homestead allowance
These trump all but costs of administration

no homestead allowance if elective share?

861
Q

WILLS Power of Appointment

A

Creation of power of appointment.
A. A power of appointment is created only if:

  1. The instrument creating the power:
    a. Is valid under applicable law; and
    b. Except as otherwise provided in subsection B, transfers the appointive property; and
  2. The terms of the instrument creating the power manifest the donor’s intent to create in a powerholder a power of appointment over the appointive property exercisable in favor of a permissible appointee.

B. Subdivision A 1 b does not apply to the creation of a power of appointment by the exercise of a power of appointment.

C. A power of appointment may not be created in a deceased individual.

D. Subject to an applicable rule against perpetuities, a power of appointment may be created in an unborn or unascertained powerholder.

862
Q

WILLS Proof of paternity out of wedlock

A

Must be by clear and convincing evidence

863
Q

WILLS Remedy for unjust enrichment

A

Court designation of constructive trust

864
Q

WILLS Removal of executor by court

A

Can be done whenever from any cause it appears proper

But this is still a high bar

865
Q

WILLS Required to shift proof undue influence

A
  1. Evidence of some weakness of mind
  2. Testator names beneficiary who stood in relationshp of confidence or dependence
  3. Testator had previously expressed a contrary intention of disposition

NOT ENOUGH:
1.
2.
3.

866
Q

WILLS Requirements

A

Must in writing
Signed by testator
Must be signed or acknowledges in the presence of two witnesses present at the same time
And in the presense of the testator

867
Q

WILLS Requirements for inter vivos gift

A

Donative intent
Delivery
Acceptance

Donor can retain for life if clearly completed gift

868
Q

WILLS Residence of person in nursing home

A

Rebutably presumed as residence before becoming a patient in nurnsing home

869
Q

WILLS Residency requirement of executor

A
If not a Virginia resident, 
1. must appoint either:
-  a Virginia resisident (inc. Virginia bank)
- Clerk of Court
to receive service of process 
--- AND ---
2. post a surety bond  unless
- a Virginia resident is also serving OR
- clerk waives surety
870
Q

WILLS Right of Survivorship

A

For accounts of joint ownership, the law prefers ownership in common instead of ownership with rights of survivorship. Where, however, the instrument that creates an account expressly states that it is created as a joint account with rights of survivorship, then it is properly a joint account with survivorship rights as long as the all the account owners create the account at the same time and in the same instrument. In a joint account with rights of survivorship, a decedent’s share passes to the surviving owner(s), instead of any testate or intestate takers, as a form of nonprobate transfer. This form of nonprobate transfer takes precedence over a testate decedent’s preferences expressed by will.

871
Q

WILLS Rights of ommitted child

A

such portion of the testator’s estate as would have been entititled to if testator had died intestate

OR

equal to same as largest bequest to sibling under the will

872
Q

WILLS Self Proving

A

A self-proving will, is a will that has been certified and acknowledged in advance of probate. The affidavit contains sworn statements attesting that the testator signed their will freely and without any coercion. The testator and the two (2) witnesses must sign the affidavit in the presence of a notary public who will, in turn, provide their certification. Once the affidavit has been signed and notarized, it will be admissible in court as sworn testimony on the part of the witnesses.

873
Q

WILLS Tagged items in safe deposit box

A

Not clear if these are completed gifts or part of estate

874
Q

WILLS Testing reality vs possiblity of undue influence

A

If in the end, there was no benefit…

So even with presumption of fraud, might admit will?

875
Q

WILLS Transfer on death deed

A

Legitimate in Virginia if recorded

876
Q

WILLS Undue influence in draft of will

A

Is a form of fraud
Thus must meet higher burden of proof
- clear and convincing evidence

877
Q

WILLS

Virginia Dead Man Statute

A

8.01-397
no judgment or decree shall be rendered in favor of an adverse or interested party founded on his uncorroborated testimony.

878
Q

WILLS Where do lapsed bequests go/

A

To residuary portion of estate - often thence intestate

879
Q

WILLS Who controls inherited property of child?

A

Guardian of the estate appointed by court

- not necessarily parent (guardian of the person)

880
Q

WILLS Who is protected by anti-lapse

A

A decendent, but not a spouse

881
Q

WILLS Will signature requirement

A

two competent witnesses

can be saved by harmless error rule?