Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pain Exam 2 > ultrasound crash course > Flashcards

ultrasound crash course Flashcards

1
Q

applies high amplitude voltage to energize the crystals

A

pulser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

detects and amplifies weak signals

A

receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

7 characteristics of sound wave

A

o Frequency
o propagation
o speed
o amplitude
o power
o intensity
o wave length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

US uses a _______ approach with a ______ display

A

pulse-echo; brightness B-mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ultrasound waves occur at ______ MHz, undetectable by human ears

A

1-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

______ refers to a loss of kinetic energy as a sound wave interacts with tissues and fluids within the body

A

Attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Absorption is the conversion of sound to _____

A

heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Wavelength and frequency of US are ________related

A

inversely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the area closest to the skin surface/transducer interface

A

Near field aka the Fresnel zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Far zone (aka the Fraunhofer zone)

A

 includes tissues deep to the focal zone
 In this area, the beam will start to broaden & diminish in resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

There are specific cardiac probes that utilize _______

A

tissue harmonic imaging power levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most probes have transducers that emit _____ amplitude of the ultrasound wave at a specific fundamental frequency

A

highest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Power Doppler is up to ____ times more sensitive in detecting blood flow than color Doppler

A

five

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A mode = amplitude and it is NOT used for regional anesthesia T/F

A

TRUE
Provides little info on spatial relationship of imaged structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This feature analyzes the tissues and provides you with the most optimized image

A

Auto optimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The best feature after you get your frequency, depth and focus in is _____

A

auto optimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Blood flow direction depends on whether _______

A

the motion is toward or away from the transducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

color power doppler does indicate flow direction T/F

A

FALSE
does NOT indicate flow direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

“Band width” is the ____

A

range of frequencies that come out of a transducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Degree of amplification of the returning sound

A

gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The gain is usually measured in _____

A

decibels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sensitive assessment of presence of flow

A

power doppler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Image quality is dependent on _____

A

frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The region where the medium is spread out is known as a _____

A

rarefaction

where the medium is less dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

areas where the medium is denser =

A

compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The compression and rarefaction is represented graphically as a ____ wave alternating between a _______ from baseline

A

sine; positive and negative deflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Compression increases both the _____ and ______ of US wave

A

amplitude; pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

_____ is measured in hertz

A

frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Velocity in tissues is _____

A

constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Wavelength and frequency vary in an _____ relationship

A

inverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Velocity equals ______ times _____

A

frequency; wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

As the frequency decreases, wavelength _____

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The speed of an acoustic wave traveling through a medium depends on its ________

A

stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Stiffer tissues allow sound waves to travel ______, while softer tissues ______

A

faster; slow them down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Propagation speed is the rate at which waves _______

A

pass through a medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

sound waves move faster in _____ than in ____ or ____

A

solids; liquids or gases
(solid > liquid >gas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

sound waves are progressively attenuated w/______

A

distance traveled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The attenuation of a tissue is a measure of how the______

A

energy of an ultrasound wave is dissipated by that tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

______ encompasses absorption, reflection and scattering of sound when it interacts with tissues

A

attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_____ and _____ create echoes seen in imaging

A

Reflection and scattering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The average velocity of sound in human tissues is _____ m/s.

A

1540

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

sound waves are much more rapidly attenuated as they pass through _____ than ______

A

muscle than water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

amplitude (measured in _____)

A

decibel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

frequency (measured in ____ or _____)

A

cycles per second or hertz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

wavelength (measured in _____)

A

millimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Selection of transducer______ is important for providing optimal image resolution in diagnostic US

A

frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the area where the US beam is thinnest (several mm) and has the best resolution

A

focal zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

detects and amplifies weak signals

A

receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

converts electrical energy to mechanical energy and vice versa

A

transducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

applies high amplitude voltage to energize the crystals

A

pulser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

With power mode ___ and ____ are not seen, but it can show _____

A

direction and velocity
perfusion of organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

is a sensitive assessment of presence of flow

A

power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

power Doppler can be used to identify the __________ more reliably

A

smaller blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Power Doppler is up to five times more sensitive in detecting ________than color Doppler, and less dependent on_______

A

blood flow; scanning angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

power Doppler does not provide any information on the ____ and _____ of blood flow

A

direction and speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A Mode (Amplitude)

A

o The simplest mode
o 1-dimensional mapping of x & Y axis
 Provides little info on spatial relationship of imaged structures
- Therefore, Not used for regional anesthesia

57
Q

M-Mode (Motion)

A

movement of structures over time
best for cardiac
Initially 2-D image is acquired and then structures are intersected by the line which moves toward or away from the probe over time

58
Q

Field of view is tissues intersected by the scanning plane

A

B-mode

59
Q

2-D cross sectional view of the underlying structures

A

B-mode

60
Q

Increase the gain increase the strength of the ________ and end result is a lighter image

A

returning echoes

61
Q

Gain should be set so that most of the background is_____

A

black

62
Q

Gain is the ratio of ________

A

output to input electric power

63
Q

The gain is usually measured in ______.

A

decibels (dB)

64
Q

Increasing the gain amplifies not only the returning signals, but also the ______ in the same manner.

A

background noise within the system

65
Q

The echoes exhibit a steady decline in _______with increasing depth

A

amplitude

66
Q

This can be corrected by manipulating time-gain compensation (TGC) and compression function

A

The echoes exhibit a steady decline in amplitude with increasing depth.

67
Q

Increasing the dynamic range compression

A

makes the white images whiter and the black images blacker

68
Q

Decreasing the dynamic range compensation, it creates everything in the image a more _______

A

homogenous gray

69
Q

“Write-zoom” improves_____

A

image quality

70
Q

“Read- zoom” affects only the _____

A

magnification

71
Q

Focal zone is the best_____ resolution

A

lateral

72
Q

_______ is a tissue’s ability to reflect or transmit ultrasound waves in relation to surrounding tissues or bounce and echo during exams.

A

Echogenicity

73
Q

The brightness of a structure on an ultrasound screen is determined by its _____ and the ______ of its surrounding tissues

A

echogenicity; echogenicity

74
Q

US images reflect anatomic structure contours based on ______

A

tissue or fluid acoustic impedances.

75
Q

US beam reflection from high-impedance or dense structures (e.g. bone, connective tissue); appears white on screen

A

Hyperechoic images

76
Q

low-impedance structures reflect beams less; appears gray on screen

A

Hypoechoic images

77
Q

minimal impedance structures appear black (fluid in vessels)

A

Anechoic

78
Q

More sensitive than color Doppler in flow detection

A

color power doppler

79
Q

does NOT indicate flow direction

A

color power doppler

80
Q

Lumbar spinal surgery may also be performed under _____ anesthesia.

A

spinal

81
Q

Heparin SQ:
Low dose (5000 units): ______ hrs after dose
High dose:____ hrs.
Therapeutic dose: ____ hrs (SHOULD BE AVOIDED)
IV: ____ hrs after normal coag status

A

4-6
12
24
4-6

82
Q

for lovenox, no neuraxial for ___ hrs

A

12

83
Q

cath removal should be ____ hrs

A

4-6

84
Q

guidelines for fibrinolytics w/ neuraxial

A

NO neuraxial; some sources say 48 hrs

85
Q

rivaroxaban, edoxaban, apixaban should be stopped ____ hrs before neuraxial

A

72

86
Q

dabigatran should be stopped ___ hrs before neuraxial

A

120

87
Q

warfarin should be stopped ___ days before neuraxial

A

5

88
Q

which oral anticoagulant do you need to worry about the creatinine clearance of the pt before considering neuraxial

A

dabigatran

89
Q

you can restart UFH subQ and IV ___ hours after neuraxial/cath removal

A

1

90
Q

LMWH should be restarted ___ hours after neuraxial/cath removal for prophylactic dose and ___ hours for treatment dose

A

4; 24

91
Q

you can restart oral anticoags ___ hours after neuraxial/cath removal

A

6

92
Q

What are the neuraxial guidelines for aspirin

A

there are none

93
Q

stop clopidogrel how many days before neuraxial? when can it be restarted

A

5-7 dyas; immediately

94
Q

for spinal, inject the LA at a rate of ____ mL/sec

A

.2

95
Q

for lateral position the pt should be in what position

A

fetal

96
Q

touhy needle is ____ inches long

A

3.5

97
Q

____ cm from the tip of the epidural needle to the proximal edge of the hub and ___ cm to the distal edge of the hub

A

9; 11

98
Q

the first marking on the epidural needle is ___ cm

A

5

99
Q

2nd double marking on the epidural needle is ___ cm

A

10

100
Q

When inserted to this point, you are at the tip of the needle in the epidural space

A

thick mark (12 cm)

101
Q

the triple and the quad marks represent what on the epidural needle?

A

15 and 20

102
Q

most spinal needles are how long?

A

3-3.5 inches (7.5-9 cm)

103
Q

in obese pts you may need a spinal needle that is _____

A

longer (5 inches)

104
Q

_____needle is a cutting needle with end injection.

A

Quincke

105
Q

Whitacre and other pencil-point needles have ____ points and ____ injection

A

rounded; side

106
Q

______ is a side-injection needle w/a long opening.

A

Sprotte

107
Q

The introduction of ______ needles has markedly decreased the incidence of PDPH

A

blunt tip (pencil-point)

108
Q

When advancing catheter, the patient may feel _____

A

transient paresthesias

109
Q

Good motor block, short duration

A

mepivacaine

110
Q

Ambulatory surgery/min. urinary retention issues

A

mepivacaine

111
Q

30 ml ampule of 1.5% (15mg/ml)

A

mepivacaine

112
Q

2 ml ampule of 0.75% (7.5mg/ml) with 8.25% dextrose- packaged hyperbaric

A

bupivacaine

113
Q

Blocks sensory nerves that modulate tourniquet pain better than Tetracaine

A

bupivacaine

114
Q

Onset of 3-5 minutes

A

bupivacaine

115
Q

Less motor block than Tetracaine

A

bupivacaine

116
Q

Risk of “Cauda equina syndrome” with this mixture

A

lidocaine 2ml ampule of 5% (50mg/ml) solution premixed with 7.5% dextrose- hyperbaric

117
Q

Short duration, low potency

A

procaine

118
Q

Solutions of greater than 5% concentration are linked to neurotoxicity

A

procaine

119
Q

2ml ampule of 10% (100mg/ml) solution

A

procaine

120
Q

____ slow the absorption of LA

A

vasoconstrictors

121
Q

fentanyl dose and onset and DOA

A

dose = 15-25 mcg
onset = 5-10 mins
DOA = 2-4 hrs

122
Q

Duramorph onset =

A

60-90 mins

123
Q

Duramorph dose =

A

0.1-0.5 mg

124
Q

duramorph provides profound analgesia for ____ hrs

A

18-27

125
Q

which intrathecal opiod is a/w delayed resp depression and PONV

A

Duramorph

126
Q

precedex prolongs _____ with less hypoTN

A

Sensory/motor block

127
Q

What is the test dose?

A

3 ml of 1.5-2% Lidocaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine

128
Q

test dose will produce what if injected into the CSF

A

T10 Block

129
Q

Administer the pre-calculated epidural volume in ______ml increments every _____ seconds

A

3-5; 60

130
Q

After repositioning post-epidural placement, evaluate patient for ____minutes

A

10 - 30

131
Q

An epidural block can be performed at the ____, ___, or _____ level

A

lumbar, thoracic, or cervical

132
Q

_____ is referred to as a caudal block

A

Sacral epidural anesthesia

133
Q

Epidurals can be used as a _____ technique or with a
catheter that allows _____ or ______, or both

A

single-shot; intermittent boluses or continuous infusion

134
Q

The epidural space surrounds the ______ posteriorly, laterally,
and anteriorly

A

dura mater

135
Q

by using relatively dilute concentrations of a local anesthetic combined with an opioid, an epidural provides ______

A

analgesia without motor block

136
Q

A segmental block is characterized by ______

A

a well-defined band of anesthesia at certain nerve roots, leaving nerve roots
above and below unblocked

137
Q

This can be seen with a thoracic epidural that
provides upper abdominal anesthesia while sparing cervical and lumbar
nerve roots

A

segmental block

138
Q

what is a/w greater dermatomal spread for a given voleume of injectate

A

increased intraabdominal pressure, engorged epidural veins (pregnancy), ascites, large abdominal tumors (things that decrease CSF volume)

139
Q
A

Pain Exam 2 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions