Udemy 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 51:
A customer is complaining that they cannot connect to the local network share drive. You run the command ‘ipconfig /all’ from their workstation, and it returns an IP of 169.254.34.12. Which of the following is the problem with this workstation?
The workstation couldn’t reach the gateway
The workstation couldn’t reach the DNS server
The workstation couldn’t reach the proxy server
The workstation couldn’t reach the DHCP server

A

The workstation couldn’t reach the gatewayThe workstation couldn’t reach the DNS serverThe workstation couldn’t reach the proxy serverCorrect answerThe workstation couldn’t reach the DHCP serverOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: Since the customer’s IP address is 169.254.34.12, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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2
Q

Question 52:
Which of the following types of memory relies on temporary storage space on the hard drive that is used when there is insufficient physical memory available to perform a given task?
SODIMM
ECC
Virtual memory
VRAM

A

SODIMMECCCorrect answerVirtual memoryVRAMOverall explanationOBJ-3.2: Virtual memory is an area on the hard disk allocated to contain pages of memory. When the operating system doesn’t have sufficient physical memory (RAM) to perform a task, pages of memory are swapped to the paging file. This frees physical RAM to enable the task to be completed. When the paged RAM is needed again, it is re-read into memory. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device. Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops.Domain3 - Hardware

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3
Q

Question 53:
An employee’s laptop has become warm to the touch and does not sit evenly on the table during use. You turn the laptop over and see the case bulging into a slightly rounded shape. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
RAM is defective
Battery is defective
Keyboard is defective
Wireless card is defective

A

RAM is defectiveCorrect answerBattery is defectiveKeyboard is defectiveWireless card is defectiveOverall explanationOBJ-5.5: Based on the description, the battery is defective and swelling. Swollen batteries, while not common, are a significant risk. They result from too much current inside a cell of the battery, which causes a build-up of heat and gas. This can be caused by overcharging, manufacturer defects, deep discharge, or damage to the battery. The most common cause is an overcharge of the battery, which causes a chemical reaction between the electrodes and the electrolyte, resulting in the release of heat and gases that expand inside the battery, causing the casing to swell or split open. If a battery begins to bulge, swell, or split, it should immediately be replaced.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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4
Q

Question 54:
An administrator arrives at work and is told that network users are unable to access the shared drive on a Windows server. The administrator logs into the server and sees that some Windows Updates were automatically installed last night successfully, but now the network connection shows “limited” with no availability. What rollback action should the technician perform?
Server’s NIC drivers
Server’s IP address
Antivirus updates
Web browser

A

Correct answerServer’s NIC driversServer’s IP addressAntivirus updatesWeb browserOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: When automatically receiving updates through the Windows Update service, your server can receive driver updates for its network interface card (NIC), graphics cards, and other peripherals. This can accidentally install an incompatible driver that causes network connectivity issues to occur. A best practice is to always set driver updates to “manual” so that you can download and test them in a lab before upgrading your production servers. If your drivers were updated and this is causing the connectivity issue, you can perform a driver rollback to the last known working version of the drivers. An IP address is bound to a network interface card using DHCP and there is no such thing as a “rollback” for a server’s IP address. The error of “limited” connectivity is associated with the network interface card and the network connection, not the antivirus or the web browser.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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5
Q

Question 55:
Which of the following cables is MOST widely used by modern Android smartphones and tablets?
Mini USB
Micro USB
Lightning
USB-C

A

Mini USBMicro USBLightningCorrect answerUSB-COverall explanationOBJ-1.3: Modern Android devices most commonly use USB-C connections. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Before USB-C, Android devices used either Micro USB or Mini USB connectors. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, Mp3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices. Android devices do NOT use the lightning cable because it is a proprietary 8-pin port and connector used solely by Apple devices. The Lightning connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Lightning is a proprietary computer bus and power connector created by Apple. The lightning cable is used by every iPhone from the 5 to 13 series. Newer iPads have shifted to the use of USB-C for charging instead of the lightning cable, though.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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6
Q

Question 56:
Which of the following devices should you purchase for a child if you want them to be able to read books and magazines, but you do not want them to be able to surf the web or play games?
Tablet
Smartphone
E-reader
Laptop

A

TabletSmartphoneCorrect answerE-readerLaptopOverall explanationOBJ-1.2: An e-Reader is a tablet-sized device designed for reading rather than general-purpose computing. For example, the Amazon Paperwhite is an example of a traditional e-Reader. Unlike a tablet, an e-reader is designed for the sole purpose of reading digital books and magazines (with perhaps the option to add annotations). E-readers use electrophoretic ink (e-ink) technology to create an Electronic Paper Display (EPD). Compared to the LED or OLED display used on a tablet, an EPD has low power consumption but facilitates high contrast reading in various ambient light conditions. These screens do not need to use a backlight in typical conditions, saving power and extending battery life.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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7
Q

Question 57:
Which of the following types of hard drives would be used in a gaming laptop to increase the system’s boot-up performance while providing a large amount of storage at a lower overall cost?
Magnetic drive
Optical drive
SSD
Hybrid drive

A

Magnetic driveOptical driveSSDCorrect answerHybrid driveOverall explanationOBJ-1.1: A hybrid hard drive (SSHD) is a storage drive that combines the large storage capacity of an HDD with the faster read/write speed of an SSD. The majority of the drive uses a spinning disk and actuator arm, like a traditional magnetic drive, but it also contains a small SSD (solid-state drive) as part of the combined hybrid drive unit. This allows data to be written to either the SSD portion (for data accessed more frequently like the OS and programs) while using the HDD portion to store larger amounts of rarely accessed files (such as photos and video files). Hybrid hard drives constantly monitor the data retrieved from storage, and it automatically determines which data you open the most. It places the files that you use most often on the SSD to read/write that data faster. A magnetic drive is a traditional hard disk drive (HDD). A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape. An optical drive is a storage device that uses a CD, DVD, or Blu-Ray disc to store and retrieve data.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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8
Q

Question 58:
A penetration tester wants to build a workstation that will be used to brute force hash digests. Which of the following is the BEST option to ensure sufficient power and speed to crack them?
Multi-core CPU
Dedicated GPU
7200-RPM HDD
Integrated GPU

A

Multi-core CPUCorrect answerDedicated GPU7200-RPM HDDIntegrated GPUOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: Dedicated GPUs are designed to conduct complex mathematical functions extremely quickly. If you want to build a system to perform the cracking of a password, hash, or encryption algorithm, it is important to have a high-speed, dedicated GPU. The reason to use a GPU instead of a CPU for password cracking is that it is much faster for this mathematically intensive type of work. Cracking passwords, hashes, and encryption is a lot like mining cryptocurrency in that using dedicated GPUs will give you the best performance.Domain3 - Hardware

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9
Q

Question 59:
What is the lowest layer (bottom layer) of a bare-metal virtualization environment?
Hypervisor
Guest operating system
Physical hardware
Host operating system

A

HypervisorGuest operating systemCorrect answerPhysical hardwareHost operating systemOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: The bottom layer is physical hardware in this environment. It is what sits beneath the hypervisor and controls access to guest operating systems. The bare-metal approach doesn’t have a host operating system. A hypervisor is a program used to run and manage one or more virtual machines on a computer. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

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10
Q

Question 60:
Which of the following technologies is often used indoors by companies to locate a shopper’s position in a store and provide them time-sensitive offers or discounts?
GPS
Cellular
Bluetooth
Wi-Fi

A

GPSCellularCorrect answerBluetoothWi-FiOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. When indoors, the devices can use either Bluetooth or Wi-Fi to determine their location. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. Bluetooth location services are often used to identify where in a store a customer is located and present them with targeted offers. For example, if the store identified that you were in the frozen foods section, they might send you a push notification offering you a discount on a pint of ice cream. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device’s location within 1-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device’s location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS). Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device’s GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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11
Q

Question 61:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.)
Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as H?
SATA
USB 3.0
FireWire
DVI

A

SATAUSB 3.0Correct answerFireWireDVIOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: This port is the FireWire port. FireWire is a serial SCSI connection that uses a D-shaped connector that supports up to 800 Mbps of bandwidth. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.Domain3 - Hardware

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12
Q

Question 62:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
PATA connector
SATA connector
Front connector
Audio connector

A

Correct answerPATA connectorSATA connectorFront connectorAudio connectorOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: The area circled indicates the PATA connector on this motherboard. The parallel advanced technology attachment (PATA) used to be the main disk interface for computers until it was replaced by SATA connections. PATA was formerly called integrated drive electronics (IDE) or enhanced IDE (EIDE). Each PATA adapter supports two devices, commonly called primary and secondary. A PATA drive is connected to the bus by a 40-pin ribbon cable. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.Domain3 - Hardware

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13
Q

Question 63:
Susan has a 3-year-old iPad. The iPad used to get 8 hours or more of usage before running out of battery, but now it only lasts 30-60 minutes between charges. Which of the following actions should be taken to repair this device?
Turn on airplane mode to reduce battery consumption
Replace the charging port
Replace the battery
Install the latest version of iOS

A

Turn on airplane mode to reduce battery consumptionReplace the charging portCorrect answerReplace the batteryInstall the latest version of iOSOverall explanationOBJ-5.5: Batteries on electronic devices can deteriorate over time and stop holding a full charge. In this question, the device was several years old, and the most likely cause is that the battery is old and needs replacement. The charging port is not the best answer since the question states that it is fully charged each time but only lasts 30-60 minutes. If the charging port were broken, the device would not charge at all. The other suggestions may help conserve the battery, but it wouldn’t explain a drop from 8 hours to 1 hour in battery life between charges.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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14
Q

Question 64:
Which of the following wiring standards should be used when installing ethernet cabling in an office or data center?
RS-232
RJ-11
RG-6
T-568B

A

RS-232RJ-11RG-6Correct answerT-568BOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: The T568A and T568B standards are used when installing ethernet cabling. If both ends of the cable use T568A, the cable being created is called a straight-through or patch cable. If one end of the cable is T568A and the other is T568B, then the cable is called a crossover cable. By default, the Department of Defense uses T568A writing on both ends of a cable, and most other organizations use the ANSI/TIA/EIA standards that use T568B on both ends of the cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet.Domain3 - Hardware

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15
Q

Question 65:
Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct?
The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels
The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHz
The 5.0 GHz frequency has more channels available than 2.4 GHz
The 5.0 GHz frequency is more effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz

A

The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levelsThe 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHzCorrect answerThe 5.0 GHz frequency has more channels available than 2.4 GHzThe 5.0 GHz frequency is more effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHzOverall explanationOBJ-2.3: The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. This longer wavelength gives the 2.4 GHz frequency the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels.Domain2 - Networking

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16
Q

Question 66:
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a fiber connection to the user’s home or office?
Digital subscriber line
Optical network terminal
Cable modem
Software-defined networking

A

Digital subscriber lineCorrect answerOptical network terminalCable modemSoftware-defined networkingOverall explanationOBJ-2.2: An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.Domain2 - Networking

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17
Q

Question 67:
You are troubleshooting a laptop’s display for a customer. The customer states that parts of the picture remain on the screen even after a full shutdown or reboot. You update the device drivers and recalibrate the display, but the problem remains with the laptop’s display. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with the display?
Incorrect device drivers
Distorted geometry
Burn in
Dead pixels

A

Incorrect device driversDistorted geometryCorrect answerBurn inDead pixelsOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: Burn-in or image persistence is a discoloration of areas on an electronic display that causes a non-uniform use of the pixels that appears as an image remains after the screen is turned off or rebooted. While LCD and LED displays are not as likely as plasma and CRT monitors to suffer from burn-in, burn-in can still occur.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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18
Q

Question 68:
Dion Training has just installed a new hub/control system to control the lights, HVAC, and power to the devices in their studio. The new hub/control system relies on Zigbee for wireless communication and networking between the different devices. Which of the following types of networked hosts best describes what was installed?
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
DHCP server
Internet of Things
Syslog server

A

Supervisory Control and Data AcquisitionDHCP serverCorrect answerInternet of ThingsSyslog serverOverall explanationOBJ-2.4: Internet of Things (IoT) is a term used to describe a global network of appliances and personal devices that have been equipped with sensors, software, and network connectivity. IoT normally relies on Zigbee or Z-wave to facilitate the networking of the devices, including hub/control systems, smart devices, wearables, and sensors. Supervisory control and data acquisition is a control system architecture comprising computers, networked data communications, and graphical user interfaces for high-level supervision of machines and processes. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network.Domain2 - Networking

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19
Q

Question 69:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.)
Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as B?
FireWire
SPDIF
USB
PS/2

A

FireWireSPDIFCorrect answerUSBPS/2Overall explanationOBJ-3.1: This port is the USB connection. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.Domain3 - Hardware

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20
Q

Question 70:
You have just set up an FTP server to allow users to download the new open-source application your company is releasing. Which port should be opened to allow users to connect to this server?
21
22
23
25

A

Correct answer21222325Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Telnet is the protocol used for remote command-line administration of a host using TCP port 23. Telnet is considered insecure since it is unauthenticated and unencrypted. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25.Domain2 - Networking

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21
Q

Question 71:
What does VDI stand for?
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
Virtual Desktop Instances
Virtualized Data Infrastructure
Virtual Desktop Integration

A

Correct answerVirtual Desktop InfrastructureVirtual Desktop InstancesVirtualized Data InfrastructureVirtual Desktop IntegrationOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) centralizes instances for desktops that run on a single server utilizing the resources and performance from a single server. A thin client or an end-user then accesses the virtual desktops through a web browser. It is important to have sufficient resources on the central server to reduce lag time and provide an adequate user experience. VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) is used in large enterprise businesses to focus on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

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22
Q

Question 72:
Which of the following wireless standards should you implement if the existing wireless network only allows for three non-overlapping channels, and you need additional non-overlapping channels to prevent interference with neighboring businesses in your office building?
802.11b
802.11g
802.11ac
802.1q

A

802.11b802.11gCorrect answer802.11ac802.1qOverall explanationOBJ-2.7: Wireless B and G only support 3 non-overlapping channels (1, 6, 11). Wireless N and Wireless AC supports the 5 GHz spectrum, which provides 24 non-overlapping channels. The 801.q standard is used to define VLAN tagging (or port tagging) for Ethernet frames and the accompanying procedures to be used by bridges and switches in handling such frames. 802.1q is not a wireless networking standard.Domain2 - Networking

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23
Q

Question 73:
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?
802.11g
802.11a
802.11n
802.11ax
802.11ac
802.11b

A

Correct answer802.11g802.11a802.11n802.11ax802.11ac802.11bOverall explanationOBJ-2.3: The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.Domain2 - Networking

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24
Q

Question 74:
What is a tool that would allow you to easily identify a network cable that was not labeled in the wiring closet during its installation?
Cable tester
Punchdown tool
Multimeter
Tone generator and probe

A

Cable testerPunchdown toolMultimeterCorrect answerTone generator and probeOverall explanationOBJ-2.8: A tone generator and toner probe is an excellent tool that allows you to easily detect which cable goes to which port on a patch panel in a wiring closet. While you could use a cable tester (if both ends of the cable were available to the technician), a tone generator and probe are much more efficient at identifying cables that were not properly labeled. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy.Domain2 - Networking

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25
Q

Question 75:
You are trying to install Hyper-V on a new laptop, but you keep receiving an error during installation that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following characteristics of the laptop’s processor should you investigate as the MOST likely issue?
Number of cores available
Cache size
Hyper-threading (HT) technology
Virtualization (VT) support

A

Number of cores availableCache sizeHyper-threading (HT) technologyCorrect answerVirtualization (VT) supportOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: CPU Virtualization is a hardware feature found in all current AMD & Intel CPUs that allows a single processor to act as if it was multiple individual CPUs. This allows an operating system to more effectively & efficiently utilize the computer’s CPU power to run faster. This is enabled or disabled on supported processors within your system’s BIOS. HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. The cache is an extremely fast internal memory located in the CPU. The number of cores is defined by the processor’s multicore capability such as dual-core, quad-core, or octo-core.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

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26
Q

Question 76:
Your boss asked you to generate a simple square code that can be easily scanned by a smartphone to access a preconfigured website address or link. Which of the following technologies would BEST meet this requirement?
Barcode
NFC chip
Smart card
QR code

A

BarcodeNFC chipSmart cardCorrect answerQR codeOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: In this case, you should select a QR code to meet this requirement. A QR code is a square that contains a specific graphical pattern that can be read by a smartphone’s camera. When read, the graphical pattern is converted to data, such as a website address or link that can be easily opened. QR codes can also be read by dedicated QR scanners, as well. A barcode is a pattern of different sized parallel bars, typically representing a product number, such as an ISBN, EAN, or UPC. The reader uses a sensor mechanism (typically either a photodiode, laser, or CCD) to read the intensity of light reflected by the barcode. The reader then reports the number back to application software, which links it to a product database. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. A smart card, chip card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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27
Q

Question 77:
Dion Training is upgrading its wired network from an older CAT5e network to a CAT 7 network. The network technician has run out of patch cables and asks you to create a straight-through patch cable. Which of the following tools is used to connect an RJ-45 connector to a patch cable?
Crimper
Cable stripper
Cable tester
Punchdown tool

A

Correct answerCrimperCable stripperCable testerPunchdown toolOverall explanationOBJ-2.8: A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place. The RJ-45 connection is the standard one used for wired ethernet networks. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A cable stripper is used to remove the plastic jacket from an ethernet cable to access its internal wires (twisted pairs). A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable.Domain2 - Networking

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28
Q

Question 78:
Your company has decided to move all of its data into the cloud. Your company is concerned about the privacy of its data due to some recent data breaches that have been in the news. Therefore, they have decided to purchase cloud storage resources that will be dedicated solely for their use. Which of the following types of clouds is your company using?
Private
Public
Hybrid
Community

A

Correct answerPrivatePublicHybridCommunityOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A private cloud is usually managed via internal resources. The terms private cloud and virtual private cloud (VPC) are often used interchangeably. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

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29
Q

Question 79:
Which of the following technologies uses 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequencies to determine your location indoors based on the signal strength received or the angle of arrival of that signal to the mobile device?
Wi-Fi
Bluetooth
Cellular
GPS

A

Correct answerWi-FiBluetoothCellularGPSOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device’s location within 1-4 meters. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device’s location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS). Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device’s GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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30
Q

Question 80:
Which of the following types of networks would be created if a wireless access point, a microwave link, and a satellite link were combined in a mesh?
WAN
WMN
LAN
PAN

A

WANCorrect answerWMNLANPANOverall explanationOBJ-2.3: The 802.11s standard defines a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN). Unlike an ad hoc network, nodes in a WMN (called Mesh Stations) can discover one another and peer, forming a Mesh Basic Service Set (MBSS). The mesh stations can perform path discovery and forwarding between peers, using a routing protocol, such as the Hybrid Wireless Mesh Protocol (HWMP). A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.Domain2 - Networking

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31
Q

Question 81:
Dion Training recently hired a new graphic designer. You have been asked to install a new, high-end PCIe x16 graphics card into one of the standard corporate workstations so the new designer can get to work. After installing the card, you attempt to power on the computer. The computer makes some odd noises when you press the power button, but the monitor displays the words, ‘no source.’ What is MOST likely the issue?
The workstation is overheating due to the graphics card
The processor in the workstation isn’t powerful enough to support the card
The graphics card installed in the workstation was defective
The workstation’s power supply isn’t powerful enough to support the card

A

The workstation is overheating due to the graphics cardThe processor in the workstation isn’t powerful enough to support the cardThe graphics card installed in the workstation was defectiveCorrect answerThe workstation’s power supply isn’t powerful enough to support the cardOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: High-end graphics cards generally require additional power to operate. Most corporate workstations come with minimal power supplies (usually 250-300 watts) that cannot provide the additional power required to operate a high-end graphics card. In this case, the power supply should be upgraded to at least a 500-750 watt power supply to support the new graphics card.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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32
Q

Question 82:
Your office is located in a small office park, and you are installing a new wireless network access point for your employees. The companies in the adjacent offices are using Wireless B/G/N routers in the 2.4 GHz spectrum. Your security system uses the 5 GHz spectrum, so you have purchased a 2.4 GHz wireless access point to ensure you don’t cause interference with the security system. To maximize the distance between channels, which set of channels should you configure for use on your access points?
1, 7, 13
1, 6, 11
3, 6, 9
2, 6, 10

A

1, 7, 13Correct answer1, 6, 113, 6, 92, 6, 10Overall explanationOBJ-2.5: Wireless access points should always be configured with channels 1, 6, or 11 to maximize the distance between channels and prevent overlaps. Each channel on the 2.4 GHz spectrum is 20 MHz wide. The channel centers are separated by 5 MHz, and the entire spectrum is only 100 MHz wide. This means the 11 channels have to squeeze into the 100 MHz available, and in the end, overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11, however, are far enough from each other on the 2.4GHz band that they have sufficient space between their channel centers and do not overlap.Domain2 - Networking

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33
Q

Question 83:
Jason’s cellphone company allows him to use his smartphone as a wireless hotspot with his laptop when traveling. Jason notices that if he runs a speed test from his smartphone, the cellular connection is 8761 kbps. If he runs the same speed test connection from his laptop connected to his cellphone over its wireless hotspot, the speed drops to 243 kbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the drop in the speed test results?
The SSID for the wireless hotspot is not being broadcast
The smartphone’s RFID signal is low
The laptop is out of range of the smartphone’s hotspot
The wireless hotspot feature is throttling the cellular connection speed

A

The SSID for the wireless hotspot is not being broadcastThe smartphone’s RFID signal is lowThe laptop is out of range of the smartphone’s hotspotCorrect answerThe wireless hotspot feature is throttling the cellular connection speedOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: Some cellular companies provide free mobile hotspots as part of their plans, but they will throttle the speeds provided by the hotspot. For example, T-Mobile in the United States can provide extremely fast cellular data connections from your smartphone, but they will throttle your hotspot connectivity to 256 kbps unless you purchase an additional high-speed option for your hotspot. The other options are all incorrect since any of those issues would cause the laptop to have no connectivity instead of the slow connectivity provided in the question.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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34
Q

Question 84:
While working as a technician, you are trying to help a customer whose PC cannot boot up. When the computer is turned on, an error stating “bootable device not found” appears on the screen. What should you attempt first?
Check Disk Management to see if the system drive is recognized
Boot into Recovery Mode and run the Bootrec /fixmbr command to fix the MBR that’s preventing the PC from booting
Verify that either the Molex or SATA cable is connected to the HDD
Press F12 to check the boot order and select the proper HDD to boot from

A

Check Disk Management to see if the system drive is recognizedBoot into Recovery Mode and run the Bootrec /fixmbr command to fix the MBR that’s preventing the PC from bootingCorrect answerVerify that either the Molex or SATA cable is connected to the HDDPress F12 to check the boot order and select the proper HDD to boot fromOverall explanationOBJ-5.3: The very first step we want to check is to check the physical connections. This falls under step two of the troubleshooting methodology (question the obvious). If a PC was recently moved or repaired, the cable may have become disconnected and is no longer powering the hard drive. When working with these cables, it is considered a best practice to ensure connections are present, remove the connection, and then reseat it to fix the issue effectively. If this doesn’t work, then the issue may be with the HDD itself.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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35
Q

Question 85:
Susan sees streaks of toner across her papers when printing documents using the laser printer in her office. What is the MOST likely solution for this problem?
Increase the temperature of the fuser element
Clean the printer’s transfer roller
Replace the toner cartridge in the printer
Change the feed rate of the paper

A

Increase the temperature of the fuser elementCorrect answerClean the printer’s transfer rollerReplace the toner cartridge in the printerChange the feed rate of the paperOverall explanationOBJ-5.6: The transfer roller is one of the most important components inside the printer, as it charges the toner in the drum before it transfers to the paper. If you see streaks of toner on your printouts, this is usually an indication of a dirty transfer roller. Consequently, occasionally cleaning the transfer roller can keep your printed documents clean and streak-free. You may print hundreds or even thousands of pages on your laser printer between toner cartridge changes, so it is prudent to clean the unit whenever you change the toner cartridge to keep used toner from building up and clogging the print mechanism.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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36
Q

Question 86:
What is the first step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Test the theory to determine the cause
Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious)
Identify the problem

A

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutionTest the theory to determine the causeEstablish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious)Correct answerIdentify the problemOverall explanationOBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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37
Q

Question 87:
A client states that their computer is experiencing slow performance when reading or writing to the hard drive. You have already verified that it is not a system (software) performance issue, and the system is not overheating. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take in attempting to fix this problem?
Upgrade the memory of the system
Clean the cooling fans of the system
Backup the hard drive
Run the disk repair tool

A

Upgrade the memory of the systemClean the cooling fans of the systemBackup the hard driveCorrect answerRun the disk repair toolOverall explanationOBJ-5.3: Slow performance can be a symptom of overheating or other problems. Since we eliminated overheating as the cause, the issue is most likely caused by a file system problem. To fix this problem, you should try running the disk repair tool or run the Disk Defragmenter tool (for non-SSD devices) to optimize the file system and read/write performance. Since there are no grinding or clicking sounds being observed, it is unlikely that the hard drive will fail soon making backing up the hard drive a lower priority. The system cooling fans are not the issue otherwise the system would be overheating.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

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38
Q

Question 88:
Your friend just noticed their smartphone’s battery is running low. Unfortunately, your friend isn’t very knowledgeable about computers and smartphones, so they don’t know what type of charging cable they need. They know their phone is running iOS 15. What kind of cable does your friend need to charge their phone?
USB-C
Mini USB
Lightning
Micro USB

A

USB-CMini USBCorrect answerLightningMicro USBOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: Lightning cables are used by Apple’s iPhone, which are the only smartphones that run the iOS software. Since your friend is using iOS, he uses an iPhone (smartphone) or an older iPad (tablet). Lightning is a proprietary computer bus and power connector created by Apple. The lightning cable is used by every iPhone from the 5 to 13 series. Newer iPads have shifted to the use of USB-C for charging instead of the lightning cable, though. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, Mp3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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39
Q

Question 89:
Jason’s cellphone company advertises that they offer unlimited data. The internet at Jason’s studio was not working today, so he turned on his mobile hotspot to upload the videos recorded today. Initially, the data transfer was occurring without any issues and Jason observed that his data was uploading at 25 Mbps. After 20-30 minutes, though, the speed of the connection dropped to only 0.125 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this drop in speed during the upload process?
The smartphone is undergoing a DDoS attack
The smartphone’s battery has been depleted
The smartphone reached the data cap for the month
The smartphone’s 802.11 radio is broken

A

The smartphone is undergoing a DDoS attackThe smartphone’s battery has been depletedCorrect answerThe smartphone reached the data cap for the monthThe smartphone’s 802.11 radio is brokenOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: A data cap or bandwidth cap is a service-provider imposed limitation on the amount of data transferred by a user’s account or device over the cellular network. Many smartphone plans that advertise unlimited data still have a transfer limit. Once the limit is reached, these plans will either prevent all data transfer from occurring or slow down the speeds of data transfer. For example, T-Mobile offers unlimited data in the United States, but if a user transfers over 50GB of data then their data is deprioritized and transmitted at slower speeds. Other carriers will use a data throttling method, instead, which slows down all data sent for the remainder of the customer’s billing cycle. A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is a denial of service attack that uses multiple compromised computers, called zombies, to launch the attack against a target. Based on the scenario, there is no evidence that the smartphone’s battery is depleted since the phone is still online and transmitting data. The smartphone is not using Wi-Fi to transmit the data and there is no evidence that the 802.11 (Wi-Fi) radio is broken.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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40
Q

Question 90:
You are working for a logistics company that needs to get a device that will automatically enter information about a package when it is read using light and a lens. Which of the following devices should you install to BEST support this requirement?
Digitizer
Barcode reader
Touch screen
Webcam

A

DigitizerCorrect answerBarcode readerTouch screenWebcamOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: A barcode scanner or barcode reader is a handheld or pen-shaped device designed to scan barcodes. A barcode is a pattern of different sized parallel bars, typically representing a product number, such as an ISBN, EAN, or UPC. The reader uses a sensor mechanism (typically either a photodiode, laser, or CCD) to read the intensity of light reflected by the barcode. The reader then reports the number back to application software, which links it to a product database. A webcam is a video camera that feeds or streams an image or video in real-time to or through a computer to a computer network, such as the Internet. Webcams are typically small cameras that sit on a desk, attach to a user’s monitor, or are built into a laptop, desktop, or mobile device. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. A touch screen display provides the capability to use tactic actions to send input to a computer by interacting directly with the elements on the display using the person’s fingers.Domain1 - Mobile Devices

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41
Q

Question 1:
After replacing a motherboard on a customer’s laptop for a no-sound issue, a technician realizes that there is intermittent wireless connectivity on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician perform first?
Reinstall the driver of the Wi-Fi card
Check if the Wi-Fi antenna is connected properly to the wireless card
Check to see if there is a wireless switch on the laptop and its current position
Replace the wireless card because it is not fully compatible with the new motherboard

A

Reinstall the driver of the Wi-Fi cardCorrect answerCheck if the Wi-Fi antenna is connected properly to the wireless cardCheck to see if there is a wireless switch on the laptop and its current positionReplace the wireless card because it is not fully compatible with the new motherboardOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Check to make sure that the Wi-Fi antenna is properly connected to the wireless card. A loose connection might be the cause of an intermittent connectivity problem. Incorrect Answers: All the other answers would be solutions for permanent problems, but not intermittent ones.DomainMobile Devices

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42
Q

Question 2:
In a coffee shop, you overhear someone at the table behind you talking about a big project they’re working on to migrate all of the workloads currently handled by their company’s data centers to the cloud. What kind of service model are they most likely to use?
Platform as a service
Infrastructure as a service
Software as a service
Desktop as a service

A

Platform as a serviceCorrect answerInfrastructure as a serviceSoftware as a serviceDesktop as a serviceOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Since they need to effectively transfer everything being handled by their in-house data centers, it’s almost certain that they will need the flexibility and control provided by an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) provider. Incorrect Answer: Software as a service (SaaS) is not at all a suitable replacement for a datacenter. While some companies may get away with replacing their data centers with a platform as a service (PaaS) provider, this will only work if they need very little control over the infrastructure they create, the resources available to it, how it is networked, and so on. The same thing applies to desktop as a service (DaaS) providers; it would only work if their in-house data centers only exist for the purpose of on-premises virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI).DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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43
Q

Question 3:
A technician is working on a PC and notices the error message “CMOS BATTERY LOW.” Exercising best practices, what should he do next?
Replace the battery with a CR-2032
Reseat the battery
Ignore the message and continue on
Disable the warning in CMOS

A

Correct answerReplace the battery with a CR-2032Reseat the batteryIgnore the message and continue onDisable the warning in CMOSOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Head down to your local electronics store and replace it with a CR-2032 battery. Ahhhh, feel that? That is the freshness of a new battery installed. Incorrect Answer: Ignoring the message and disabling the warning can certainly be done, but it would not be “best practices.” Reseating the battery will just lose all your CMOS settings. Since the system is telling you the battery is low, it is best practice to replace it.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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44
Q

Question 4:
What is the minimum capacity of a DVD?
3.47 GB
650 MB
4.37 GB
7.34 GB

A

3.47 GB650 MBCorrect answer4.37 GB7.34 GBOverall explanationCorrect: The minimum capacity of a DVD is 4.37 GB. Incorrect: 650 MB is the minimum capacity of a CD. 3.47 GB has nothing to do with DVD capacity and is made up. 7.34 GB is close to the capacity of a single-sided, dual-layer DVD, which is actually 7.95 GB.DomainHardware

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45
Q

Question 5:
Which port does SSH use?
3389
110
22
25
21

A

3389110Correct answer222521Overall explanationCorrect Answer: SSH uses port 22. Incorrect: POP3 uses port 110. RDP uses port 3389. FTP uses port 21. SMTP uses port 25.DomainNetworking

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46
Q

Question 6:
The finish line at a charity run needs to quickly and cheaply network two laptops using their built-in Ethernet ports. Of the following, which is the best way to do this?
Use a cheap 100BaseT switch.
Connect the two laptops using a crossover cable.
Set up a Bluetooth PAN.
Have each laptop connect to a common 802.11 network.

A

Use a cheap 100BaseT switch.Correct answerConnect the two laptops using a crossover cable.Set up a Bluetooth PAN.Have each laptop connect to a common 802.11 network.Overall explanationCorrect: Connect the two laptops using a crossover cable. A crossover cable is a specially wired cable that allows two Ethernet connections to work as a small network. Incorrect: Have each laptop connect to a common 802.11 network is incorrect. There is a 802.11 SSID mentioned, and the question was limited to the laptops to using Ethernet. Set up a Bluetooth PAN is incorrect. The question stated using Ethernet ports. Use a cheap 100BaseT switch is incorrect due to cost. A crossover cable would be less expensive than adding a switch.DomainHardware

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47
Q

Question 7:
Which kind of cloud service model best enables a small team of developers with no server administrators to develop and maintain a Web application?
DaaS
PaaS
IaaS
SaaS

A

DaaSCorrect answerPaaSIaaSSaaSOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A platform as a service (PaaS) greatly simplifies the available choices and takes on much of the work of managing installed operating systems and other software. Incorrect Answer: Desktop (Daas) and software as a service (SaaS) offerings aren’t focused on supporting software developers. Infrastructure as a service providers can support people developing a Web application, but they’ll still need to understand how to administer the systems they provision.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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48
Q

Question 8:
A technician is troubleshooting a customer’s problem over the phone. What would be the MOST approriate question to ask when troubleshooting the customer’s problem with her mouse?
Are you sure you plugged in the mouse?
Can you make sure all the PS/2 ports are in use?
Can you describe the steps you have taken so far?
Have you tried restarting the computer?

A

Are you sure you plugged in the mouse?Can you make sure all the PS/2 ports are in use?Correct answerCan you describe the steps you have taken so far?Have you tried restarting the computer?Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Can you describe the steps you have taken so far? This would be the best answer. You are asking the customer in a non-judgemental way if she can simply repeat the things she has done thus far to troubleshoot her problem. Knowing this will help you more than any of the other choices in diagnosing the problem. Incorrect Answers: Are you sure you plugged in the mouse? While you might be able to get away asking a family member this type of question. You probably won’t get away with it so easily when talking to a paying customer. This type of question can come across like you are talking to down to them. Can you make sure all the PS/2 ports are in use? Asking a question like this is good, however, we do not know what kind of mouse we are talking about here. It could very well be a USB mouse. Have you tried restarting the computer? We’ve been rocking default mouse drivers on Windows computers since the days of Windows 95. No amount of restarting will help them. Unless of course it is a PS/2 mouse, in which case they should have already have the computer powered down. DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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49
Q

Question 9:
Kenneth has an 802.11n network. He only wants his three computers in the house to be able to access this network. Which of the following technologies would best enable him to do this?
Port filtering
MAC filtering
DMZ filtering
WPA filtering

A

Port filteringCorrect answerMAC filteringDMZ filteringWPA filteringOverall explanationCorrect: MAC filtering. MAC filtering creates allow or deny lists based on MAC addresses. Incorrect: WPA is a form of encryption, WPA is not a form of filtering. Filtering by TCP/UDP port number does not block particular systems. Many firewalls have the ability to filter ports based on IP address or MAC address using an Access Control List (ACL), but this isn’t to be confused with pure port blocking. A Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is used to expose certain systems to the Internet. It does not limit access to wireless clients.DomainNetworking

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50
Q

Question 10:
Which of the following Internet services would you LEAST likely use with VoIP?
Satellite
Dial-up
DSL
Cable

A

Correct answerSatelliteDial-upDSLCableOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Satellite has more latency than just about any other internet connection out there. You should never use it when attempting to use VoIP. Incorrect Answers: Cable and DSL are both super fast. And while dial-up isn’t exactly fast, its latency issues aren’t as bad as satellite connections.DomainNetworking

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51
Q

Question 11:
While investigating a 4-year-old PC that is taking an unusually long time to boot, a technician discovers that the BIOS is rediscovering the hardware system at every boot. What should the technician do to resolve the problem?
Reset the BIOS using the CMOS reset jumper
Press “F9” while the computer is booting, but before the OS starts to load
At the OS level, launch Device Manager and re-scan the hardware
Change out the CMOS battery on the motherboard

A

Reset the BIOS using the CMOS reset jumperPress “F9” while the computer is booting, but before the OS starts to loadAt the OS level, launch Device Manager and re-scan the hardwareCorrect answerChange out the CMOS battery on the motherboardOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The CMOS battery is most likely dead or dying, so replacing it should fix the problem. The technician will also have to make any non-default CMOS settings that the user had previously set up. Incorrect Answers: Since this is a pre-boot problem, nothing in Windows will fix it. Pressing the F9 key during boot will bring up system recovery options for some brands of PC. It’s not really a standard shortcut, though. The BIOS is already resetting every time the PC boots, so manually resetting it won’t do a blessed thing.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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52
Q

Question 12:
Which of the following is the test we use to verify a NIC is sending and receiving packets correctly?
Parity
Loopback
Bit Error Rate Test
Checksum

A

ParityCorrect answerLoopbackBit Error Rate TestChecksumOverall explanationCorrect: A loopback test utilizes a loopback plug which is inserted into the NIC’s RJ-45 port. You then run a PING 127.0.0.1 or PING localhost to instruct the card to ping itself. Incorrect: A Bit Error Rate Test is used on high capacity voice lines such as T1 or T3. In computing, a checksum is most commonly a value placed on computer files to verify they haven’t been altered. Parity is an older testing method, sometimes seen in older high-end RAM, which uses an extra bit to test a set of data bits.DomainNetworking

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53
Q

Question 13:
A printer usually plugs into which of the following ports?
RG-6
USB
Mini-DIN
DB-9

A

RG-6Correct answerUSBMini-DINDB-9Overall explanationCorrect: A printer usually plugs into either a DB-25 or USB port. (Although some can use FireWire, it’s not as common.) Incorrect: Mini-DIN is for mice and keyboards. DB-9 is another name for the serial port, and while there were printers that could use the DB-9, it was much more common to use the DB-25 or USB ports.RG-6 is used for cable and satellite connections.DomainHardware

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54
Q

Question 14:
What connector was designed to connect your PC to a high-end television set?
VGA
HDMI
DB-HD
VESA

A

VGACorrect answerHDMIDB-HDVESAOverall explanationCorrect: HDMI was designed to connect your PC to a high-end television set. Incorrect: VGA is a 640x480 screen resolution. VESA is a type of mount for monitors and televisions. DB-HD is made up.DomainHardware

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55
Q

Question 15:
Which of the following wireless standards uses MIMO?
802.11n
802.11a
802.11g
802.11b

A

Correct answer802.11n802.11a802.11g802.11bOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Multiple-input and multiple-output is the use of multiple antennas at both the transmitter and receiver to improve communication performance. This is a huge part of how 802.11n is able to achieve its theoretical bandwidth of 600 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g do not make use of MIMO technology.DomainNetworking

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56
Q

Question 16:
You have just assembled your first PC. You hit the power button and the computer turns on. As the computer runs through POST, it starts beeping multiple times and you don’t see anything displayed on the LCD. You notice there are no activity lights flashing for the HDD. However, when you check the inside of the computer, you can hear the drive spinning up. What is the NEXT thing you are going to check in order to get the PC functioning?
Replace the LCD with one that functions
Reseat your Front Panel LEDs
Reseat your RAM
Change the jumper settings to C/S

A

Replace the LCD with one that functionsReseat your Front Panel LEDsCorrect answerReseat your RAMChange the jumper settings to C/SOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Reseat your RAM. Amongst the information you were able to gather from this scenario, making multiple beeps is an indication that the RAM is not seated correctly or worse yet… is bad! Incorrect Answers: Changing you hard drive settings to Cable Select (C/S) won’t effect your outcome of POST. Replacing the LCD monitor won’t change the lack of character on the screen because your RAM still needs to be seated. Reseating your Front Panel LED’s, while a good idea considering you don’t see hard drive activity, would not fix a no-boot situation like you are in.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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57
Q

Question 17:
Kenny and Kyle share a Windows system. Kenny installs a locally attached printer and makes Kyle a member of the Print Operator group. Kyle logs out and Kenny logs in. He opens a text file in Notepad and tries to print. Instead of printing on the printer, a dialog box opens asking for a filename. What’s wrong?
Kyle did not install the correct drivers when he was logged in.
Kyle needs to set his default printer to the new printer instead of the virtual XPS Document Writer.
Kenny has to make Kyle a member of the Administrator’s group.
Kyle needs to install the printer separately.

A

Kyle did not install the correct drivers when he was logged in.Correct answerKyle needs to set his default printer to the new printer instead of the virtual XPS Document Writer.Kenny has to make Kyle a member of the Administrator’s group.Kyle needs to install the printer separately.Overall explanationCorrect: Kyle needs to set his default printer to the new printer instead of the virtual XPS Document Writer. While Kyle will have access to the printer (whether he was set as a Printer Operator or not), he still needs to set the new printer as his default. Incorrect: Kenny has to make Kyle a member of the Administrator’s group. All local users have access to a new printer unless specifically denied. Kyle did not install the correct drivers when he was logged in. All local users use the same printer drivers. Kyle needs to install the printer separately. The printer will already be visible to Kyle.DomainHardware

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58
Q

Question 18:
How would you define an accelerometer?
Increases the speed of the CPU
It measures the velocity of the device
It tilts the screen when I rotate my iPad
Gives the device a longer battery life

A

Increases the speed of the CPUCorrect answerIt measures the velocity of the deviceIt tilts the screen when I rotate my iPadGives the device a longer battery lifeOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The definition of an accelerometer is a device that measures proper acceleration (speed, velocity). These devices are built-in to many of our mobile devices, including smart phones and tablets. We also see accelerometers in cars to monitor when a crash has occurred so that 911 can be called. We also see accelerometers in your Nintendo Wii controllers so you can play games! Incorrect Answers: An accelerometer will not give your device longer batter life or increase the speed of your CPU. An accelerometer does not tilt the screen on your iPad. The accelerometer measures and detects the tilt in your screen, iOS then performs a function to tilt the screen for you. DomainMobile Devices

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59
Q

Question 19:
Today’s portable computers invariably use which of the following battery technologies?
Nickel Cadmium (Ni-CD)
Alkaline
Nickel Metal Hydride (Ni-MH)
Lithium Ion (Li-Ion)

A

Nickel Cadmium (Ni-CD)AlkalineNickel Metal Hydride (Ni-MH)Correct answerLithium Ion (Li-Ion)Overall explanationCorrect: Lithium Ion (Li-Ion) is the dominant technology. Incorrect: Nickel Cadmium (Ni-CD) and Nickel Metal Hydride (Ni-MH) are earlier technologies no longer used in portable computers. Alkaline batteries cannot be used with any electronics that need constant voltage.DomainMobile Devices

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60
Q

Question 20:
Because she remembers you talking about your organization replacing its in-house support ticketing system with a monthly per-user subscription the company pays for, your friend Shirali messages to ask how it is working out. Which of the following best describes this subscription?
DaaS
SaaS
PaaS
IaaS

A

DaaSCorrect answerSaaSPaaSIaaSOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Software as a service (SaaS) is typically provided by another company in the form of a monthly or yearly subscription. Incorrect Answer: While some desktop as a service (DaaS) providers do sell something that works more or less like SaaS, this doesn’t describe a software ticketing system. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) and platform as a service (PaaS) are both lower-level services. (Though someone looking to create a new SaaS product could use an IaaS or PaaS to do so.)DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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61
Q

Question 21:
On a CPU, which of the following cache levels is the smallest?
L4
L2
L3
L1

A

L4L2L3Correct answerL1Overall explanationCorrect: The L1 cache is always the smallest and fastest of the CPU caches. Incorrect: The L2 and L3 caches are both larger and slower than the L1 cache. There is no such thing as an L4 cache in mainstream CPUs.DomainHardware

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62
Q

Question 22:
Which program is the best choice to use to clear the SSL cache?
Internet Explorer
Windows Update
Windows Firewall
Regedit

A

Correct answerInternet ExplorerWindows UpdateWindows FirewallRegeditOverall explanationCorrect Answer: While there’s more than one way to access Internet Options, of the choices given, only Internet Explorer is viable. Incorrect Answers: The other three options do not let you clear the SSL cache.DomainMobile Devices

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63
Q

Question 23:
What voltages does an ATX12V P1 connector provide for the motherboard?
3.3 V, 5 V
3.3 V, 5 V, 12 V
5 V, 12 V
3.3 V, 12 V

A

3.3 V, 5 VCorrect answer3.3 V, 5 V, 12 V5 V, 12 V3.3 V, 12 VOverall explanationCorrect: An ATX12V P1 connector provides 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V of power to the motherboard. Incorrect: 4-pin Molex connectors provide 5 V and 12 V of power. AUX connectors provide 3.3 V and 5 V of power.DomainHardware

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64
Q

Question 24:
When upgrading from a very basic graphics card to a powerful gaming graphics card, which of the following would you need to take into consideration first? (Select two.)
Will my power supply be able to support this card?
Do I have enough RAM for the video card?
Will the card fit into my case?
Can my CPU handle the extra work from the video card?

A

Correct selectionWill my power supply be able to support this card?Do I have enough RAM for the video card?Correct selectionWill the card fit into my case?Can my CPU handle the extra work from the video card?Overall explanationCorrect: A high-end gaming card tends to be large and usually needs extra power along with specialized power connectors. Incorrect: Good video cards will often reduce the overhead on your CPU and RAM. However, a new video card also opens up the possibility that you’ll be installing much more powerful games that tax your system.DomainHardware

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65
Q

Question 25:
Many mobile devices are Bluetooth-enabled. In order to use a Bluetooth device, it must be ______ to the mobile device.
Tethered
Linked
Paired
Hooked

A

TetheredLinkedCorrect answerPairedHookedOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Bluetooth devices must be “paired” together to work correctly. Incorrect Answers: All other answers are incorrect. Although they sound like the same idea, the correct term for utilizing Bluetooth is “paired”. Hooked or linked are not correct terms. Tethered generally refers to connection of devices for utilizing internet sharing. Although Bluetooth can be used to share internet, the best answer is paired. DomainMobile Devices

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66
Q

Question 26:
Albert is assembling a new PC from parts. When asked if he needed thermal compound, he glanced at his parts and said, “No.” Why would Albert say such a thing?
He’s using a polished heat sink on his CPU.
His fan comes with thermal compound pre-applied on the bottom of the heat sink.
His CPU doesn’t require thermal compound.
His CPU comes with thermal compound pre-applied on the top.

A

He’s using a polished heat sink on his CPU.Correct answerHis fan comes with thermal compound pre-applied on the bottom of the heat sink.His CPU doesn’t require thermal compound.His CPU comes with thermal compound pre-applied on the top.Overall explanationCorrect: His heat sink and fan come with thermal compound pre-applied on the bottom of the heat sink. Incorrect: All CPU-fan combinations on a modern PC require thermal compound. No heatsinks come with thermal compound pre-applied on the top of the heatsink.DomainHardware

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67
Q

Question 27:
What use does the function (Fn) key on a keyboard serve?
Activates multimedia functions
Enables access to safe mode
Used to turn off the monitor
Provides additional keyboard capabilities

A

Activates multimedia functionsEnables access to safe modeUsed to turn off the monitorCorrect answerProvides additional keyboard capabilitiesOverall explanationCorrect: The function (Fn) key, most common on laptops, is a generic key used to add a number of different keystroke capabilities to your keyboard, such as video output switching and turning wireless on/off. However, there is no fixed standard for the specific uses of this key. Incorrect answers: The other answers are possible functions of the Fn key (in combination with others) but are not the specific function of the Fn key.DomainMobile Devices

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68
Q

Question 28:
What is the first step you should take when replacing a network printer?
Notify all users before unplugging the printer
Delete all print jobs before replacing the printer
Unplug the network printer then notify users
Save all print jobs, replace the printer, and print all saved files

A

Correct answerNotify all users before unplugging the printerDelete all print jobs before replacing the printerUnplug the network printer then notify usersSave all print jobs, replace the printer, and print all saved filesOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Before unplugging any shared network resource, be sure to notify other users who might need to access it. It’s only polite. Incorrect Answers: Unplugging the printer before notifying the other users is not a good practice. Print jobs can stay in queue and can help prevent disruption to users. Saving or deleting print jobs is not a good practice. Networked printer generally have a queue that can prevent disruption to users.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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69
Q

Question 29:
Robert wants to have an Internet connection that will give him the lowest latency when viewing streaming videos. Which of these options should he choose LAST?
Satellite
T-1
Cable
DSL

A

Correct answerSatelliteT-1CableDSLOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Satellite connections have to travel almost 45,000 miles roundtrip, which can cause major latency issues when doing bandwidth-intensive applications. Incorrect Answers: Cable, DSL, and T-1’s are all wired connections. Latency will be lower using them.DomainNetworking

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70
Q

Question 30:
Zoe’s company has been having a recurring issue with systems on their network making mysterious outgoing connections to IP addresses associated with North Korea after hours, and they’ve finally decided to bring in a consultant to analyze all of the software that is present on every one of the systems that has made the outgoing connection. The consultant asks Zoe for a copy of the company’s main Windows disk image so that he can try each program out by itself on a fresh system. Which of the following is he least likely to do with the image?
Reimage a laptop, install the program, monitor the system for a few days, and repeat.
Use a large VM host and the disk image to create a separate virtual machine for every program, install the correct program in each, and leave them all running for monitoring.
Create a virtual machine from the disk image and snapshot it before installing anything, so that he can roll back to the snapshot after testing and analyzing each program.
Use Windows Server to set up many users with the same disk image, install a different program in each user account, and leave them all running for monitoring.

A

Reimage a laptop, install the program, monitor the system for a few days, and repeat.Use a large VM host and the disk image to create a separate virtual machine for every program, install the correct program in each, and leave them all running for monitoring.Create a virtual machine from the disk image and snapshot it before installing anything, so that he can roll back to the snapshot after testing and analyzing each program.Correct answerUse Windows Server to set up many users with the same disk image, install a different program in each user account, and leave them all running for monitoring.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: While separate user accounts on a single instance of Windows Server can be used as a kind of basic virtual desktop, each account isn’t a full VM with its own disk image. Incorrect Answer: While some are more or less efficient, the others are all ways the consultant might try to find the compromised software.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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71
Q

Question 31:
Rhonda’s Café wants to install a wireless network for customers to use. Which standard would enable the customers to enjoy the most bandwidth?
802.11n
802.11g
802.11a
802.11b

A

Correct answer802.11n802.11g802.11a802.11bOverall explanationCorrect: 802.11n is the fastest of the fast, with speeds theoretically in the 600 Mbps range. Incorrect: 802.11a runs at 54 Mbps. 802.11b runs at 11 Mbps. 802.11g runs at 54 Mbps.DomainNetworking

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72
Q

Question 32:
The technician is dispatched to look at a user’s laptop. The user reports the system shuts down after 30 minutes of field use. The technician notices the battery is not fully charging. Which of the following should the technician perform to resolve this?
Replace the battery
Change the power setting on the laptop to use less power
Discharge the battery using a static mat
Remove the battery and connect it to a commercial battery charger

A

Correct answerReplace the batteryChange the power setting on the laptop to use less powerDischarge the battery using a static matRemove the battery and connect it to a commercial battery chargerOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The first thing to do in this case is to replace the problem battery with another one to see if that battery starts charging. Incorrect Answers: It’s far easier and more helpful to test a new battery than to use a commercial charger. Putting a battery on an anti-static mat won’t actually discharge it. Changing the power settings just delays fixing the problem.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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73
Q

Question 33:
A user reports that her desktop PC shuts down 10 minutes after turning it on in the morning. When the technician moves the PC, it sounds like there are loose parts sliding around in the case. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the PC shutting down?
The heat sink retaining clip has broken loose
The CMOS battery is bad
The hard drive cable has become unseated
A memory module has become unseated

A

Correct answerThe heat sink retaining clip has broken looseThe CMOS battery is badThe hard drive cable has become unseatedA memory module has become unseatedOverall explanationCorrect Answer: If the heat sink has come loose, the CPU will gradually build up heat until the it overheats and shuts off. You’d also hear the heatsink clunking around inside the case, letting you know that something’s loose in there! Incorrect Answers: A bad CMOS battery would just result in the CMOS settings resetting to their default values whenever the PC was restarted. An unseated memory module wouldn’t cause a PC to randomly shut down. A PC with a disconnected hard drive wouldn’t shut down; you just wouldn’t be able to access the hard drive in Windows.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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74
Q

Question 34:
Which of the following is the term for fire-resistant UTP cable?
PVC
Halon
Class C
Plenum

A

PVCHalonClass CCorrect answerPlenumOverall explanationCorrect: Plenum-rated cable is designed to resist burning, releasing far less smoke and noxious gasses than unprotected UTP cable. Incorrect: Class C is a rating for fire extinguishers that may be used on electrical fires. Halon is a type of chemical used to extinguish fires. PVC (Poly Vinyl Chloride) is a type of plastic and is also the name of unprotected UTP cabling.DomainHardware

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75
Q

Question 35:
Using your Web browser, you can access a number of Web sites. However, certain sites just give a screen saying, “You may not access this page.” Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?
The problem sites all require usernames and passwords
You do not have HTTPS enabled.
Your Web browser is using a proxy server
DNS is down on those sites.

A

The problem sites all require usernames and passwordsYou do not have HTTPS enabled.Correct answerYour Web browser is using a proxy serverDNS is down on those sites.Overall explanationCorrect: Your Web browser is using a proxy server. One of the main reasons for using a proxy server is to block unacceptable sites. The error described in the question is indicative of a proxy server. Incorrect: If DNS was down, your browser would not be able to find the website and would give an error to that effect. While it is possible to shut down HTTPS on your browser, it is highly unlikely. If the problem sites all required usernames and passwords, you would get a prompt for a username and password.DomainNetworking

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76
Q

Question 36:
A customer calls you and states that her laptop screen is very dim. In order to avoid going to the client’s site, which of the following is the first action you should recommend to the customer to perform?
Reboot the laptop
Increase the resolution
Use the function keys
Go to the Power Options in Control Panel

A

Reboot the laptopIncrease the resolutionCorrect answerUse the function keysGo to the Power Options in Control PanelOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Using the function keys enables you to change the brightness on your LCD screen.As this suggestion is easily the quickest and most simple fix among the bunch, you should try it first. Incorrect Answers: Increasing your resolution will change how many pixels are on the screen. Usually you just want to stick with your native resolution on a laptop, though. This won’t help a dim screen issue. Rebooting always sounds like a good idea, and a reset can solve some issues. Although it does not hurt, it takes a bit of time and would not be the first choice.Going to the power options in the Control Panel enables you to change settings for screen savers, standby, sleep, and other ACPI settings.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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77
Q

Question 37:
You are repairing a PC that won’t boot after you just replaced its PSU. What should you check next? (Choose two.)
HDD
CMOS setup settings
Motherboard
Graphics card
RAM

A

HDDCMOS setup settingsCorrect selectionMotherboardCorrect selectionGraphics cardRAMOverall explanationCorrect Answers: Motherboard & graphics cards have additional connectors that could cause a computer to not boot if they aren’t connected during the Power Supply Unit (PSU) replacement. Incorrect Answers: RAM does not need any additional power other than what the motherboard supplies to it. CMOS settings can’t be entered yet. It won’t boot! A hard disk drive (HDD), while incredibly important, is not necessary in the boot up process. DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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78
Q

Question 38:
Steve adds a second 1-GB 240-pin DIMM to his PC, which should bring the total RAM in the system up to 2 GB. The PC has an Intel Core 2 Duo 3-GHz processor and three 240-pin DIMM slots on the motherboard. When he turns on the PC, however, only 1 GB of RAM shows up during the RAM count. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
Steve failed to seat the RAM properly.
The CPU cannot handle 2 GB of RAM.
Steve put DDR SDRAM in a DDR2 slot.
The motherboard can use only one RAM slot at a time.

A

Correct answerSteve failed to seat the RAM properly.The CPU cannot handle 2 GB of RAM.Steve put DDR SDRAM in a DDR2 slot.The motherboard can use only one RAM slot at a time.Overall explanationCorrect: Steve failed to seat the RAM properly. Incorrect: Different types of RAM are keyed differently, with different amounts of pins as well. It would be difficult to place a DDR stick in a DDR2 slot. The CPU can handle 2 GB of RAM. The motherboard can use more than one RAM slot at a time.DomainHardware

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79
Q

Question 39:
Which type of memory module has 200 pins?
SIMM
RIMM
DIMM
SO-DIMM

A

SIMMRIMMDIMMCorrect answerSO-DIMMOverall explanationCorrect: DDR and DDR2 SO-DIMMs have 200 pins. Incorrect: SIMMs have 30 or 72 pins. DIMMs have 168, 184, or 240 pins. RIMMs have 184 pins.DomainHardware

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80
Q

Question 40:
A user is having a difficult time printing certain types of documents to her laser printer. When she sends complex, mult-page, multi-color PDF files to the printer, it refuses to print. What is most likely the solution?
Flash the firmware of the laser printer
Update her printer driver from PCL to Post Script
Add more RAM to the laser printer
Add more RAM to her PC

A

Flash the firmware of the laser printerUpdate her printer driver from PCL to Post ScriptCorrect answerAdd more RAM to the laser printerAdd more RAM to her PCOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Throw more RAM in that printer. Quite often printers have sufficient RAM as purchased, but large print jobs can require printers to have additional RAM.Incorrect Answers: PCL drivers were created by Hewlett-Packard, while PostScript (PS) drivers are maintained by Adobe. They are both used by Raster Image Processor (RIP) to generate images for the printer. And while this could have an effect on printing, the fact that she is able to print some documents means that driver is working at some level. Flashing the firmware of the printer will not change the outcome of complex documents being printed. Adding more RAM to the PC, while ALWAYS a great idea, would not fix this issue, because this is a problem with the printer, not the computer.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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81
Q

Question 41:
You are troubleshooting a computer that reboots at strange times. Even when you try and access the CMOS setup, the computer will reboot. What should you check FIRST?
Check to see if your operating system is corrupted
Check to see if the case fan is spinning
Replace the CR-2032 battery
Check for blown capacitors

A

Check to see if your operating system is corruptedCheck to see if the case fan is spinningReplace the CR-2032 batteryCorrect answerCheck for blown capacitorsOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Do a google search for “blown capacitor” and you will see exactly what I’m talking about. That is a rough situation there. When this happens, it will short circuit the conductors that are carrying power, causing random reboots, among many other types of errors. Incorrect Answers: While checking to see if your case fan is spinning is a good idea, it’s not the FIRST thing to check for in this scenario. Replacing the CR-2032, or CMOS battery, won’t stop the reboots from happening. The battery only maintains settings in CMOS memory.Since the reboot is not isolated to the operating system, a corrupt operating system does not seem the first choice.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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82
Q

Question 42:
Which of the following is least likely to be a reason a company would choose to use a hybrid cloud setup?
To be prepared to move their services to a different well-known cloud provider if they don’t like a pricing or policy change.
To keep their services reliable during occasional surges of activity.
To limit their in-house data center investment to only enough capacity to handle the baseline workload.
To make their services more resilient during outages.
To take advantage of what each ownership model does best and avoid its weaknesses.

A

Correct answerTo be prepared to move their services to a different well-known cloud provider if they don’t like a pricing or policy change.To keep their services reliable during occasional surges of activity.To limit their in-house data center investment to only enough capacity to handle the baseline workload.To make their services more resilient during outages.To take advantage of what each ownership model does best and avoid its weaknesses.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Since a hybrid cloud ownership model describes mixing two or more of the community, private, and public ownership models, using multiple public cloud providers isn’t technically a hybrid cloud. (Even if it is a good idea!) Incorrect Answer: A hybrid cloud setup can help a company use public cloud resources to handle surges in demand, limit the size of their data center to just what they can keep busy at all times, move services into the cloud if they have a local outage (or vice versa), and take advantage of what each ownership model does well.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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83
Q

Question 43:
Taylor wants to sync her new Android phone with her desktop PC. Which will give her the quickest and most reliable results?
RS-232
Bluetooth
IEEE-1394
USB

A

RS-232BluetoothIEEE-1394Correct answerUSBOverall explanationCorrect Answer: If Taylor wants to be able to connect her sweet new phone to her computer and get the fastest and most reliable connection, she’ll need USB. Incorrect Answers: Bluetooth, while reliable, is not very fast when compared to USB. IEEE-1394, or Firewire, is not supported by any Android phones. RS-232 is the classic serial port connector, but not utilized by modern phones.DomainMobile Devices

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84
Q

Question 44:
Which best illustrates the definition of geotracking?
It provides location information on mobile apps that use mapping functions.
It adds meta data to pictures taken with a mobile phone
It allows you to locate hidden treasures left by others around the world.
It allows you to track the location of a lost phone

A

Correct answerIt provides location information on mobile apps that use mapping functions.It adds meta data to pictures taken with a mobile phoneIt allows you to locate hidden treasures left by others around the world.It allows you to track the location of a lost phoneOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Geotracking provides location information to your mobile apps that make use of mapping functions. Incorrect Answers: Geotracking can find a lost phone using an app such as the Find iPhone app. Geotracking allows locating hidden treasures, also known as geocaching. Geotracking does add meta data to pictures taken with your mobile phone, also known as geotagging.DomainMobile Devices

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85
Q

Question 45:
When cleaning a computer monitor, always spray the cleaning solution on:
The front of the monitor
A thin sponge
A lint-free cloth
A polishing cloth

A

The front of the monitorA thin spongeCorrect answerA lint-free clothA polishing clothOverall explanationCorrect: Always spray the cleaning solution onto a lint-free cloth; never on the monitor itself. Incorrect answers: Polishing cloths and sponges aren’t as good as a simple lint-free cloth in this situation. A cleaning solution should never be sprayed on the monitor itself.DomainMobile Devices

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86
Q

Question 46:
A technician is working on an issue and has identified the problem and worked out the cause. Which of the following would most likely be the next step the technician should make?
Inform the user
Document the cause and solution
Establish a plan of action
Report to the supervisor

A

Inform the userDocument the cause and solutionCorrect answerEstablish a plan of actionReport to the supervisorOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Establish a plan of action is correct. Once you find out the problem, you must find a solution.Incorrect Answers: Documentation comes last. Inform the user after you’ve fixed the problem. Reporting to a supervisor isn’t part of the troubleshooting process. Only do it if you need to escalate a problem you can’t otherwise solve.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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87
Q

Question 47:
Which of the following best describes the shared resources that cloud providers make available to their customers on demand?
A resource-management system that enables users with unused resources free on their VMs to receive a credit on their bills for letting other users who need more capacity to temporarily share them.
A collection of resources supplied by many individual physical systems.
A resource-management system that enables users with their own on-site data centers who join the provider’s virtual private cloud to let the provider lease out their spare capacity in exchange for part of the profit.
A feature that enables users storing identical files to share the cost of hosting a single shared copy.

A

A resource-management system that enables users with unused resources free on their VMs to receive a credit on their bills for letting other users who need more capacity to temporarily share them.Correct answerA collection of resources supplied by many individual physical systems.A resource-management system that enables users with their own on-site data centers who join the provider’s virtual private cloud to let the provider lease out their spare capacity in exchange for part of the profit.A feature that enables users storing identical files to share the cost of hosting a single shared copy.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Cloud providers aggregate the resources of many physical systems into massive pools that their users can draw from as needed. Instead of renting a hard drive or a whole physical server, they can just rent the amount of space they need, or rent a VM supported by a specific amount of RAM and CPU cores. Incorrect Answer: The other features are incorrect. Cloud providers could program their services to do any of these, however they are not the shared resources commonly provided on demand.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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88
Q

Question 48:
Which of the following describes WLAN best?
Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, infared, and cellular
DSL, infared, WiFi, Bluetooth
Wi-Fi, infared, Bluetooth, T-1
Bluetooth, Ethernet, WiFi, cellular

A

Correct answerWi-Fi, Bluetooth, infared, and cellularDSL, infared, WiFi, BluetoothWi-Fi, infared, Bluetooth, T-1Bluetooth, Ethernet, WiFi, cellularOverall explanationCorrect Answer: WiFi, Bluetooth, infrared, and cellular are all wireless. Incorrect Answers: Ethernet, DSL, and T-1 are all wired connections.DomainNetworking

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89
Q

Question 49:
Paul has just finished landing a major order. He needs to get this order to the main office over a thousand miles away. This order is massive and contains a tremendous amount of highly sensitive data. What’s the best way for him to send this data?
E-mail attachment
USB drive
VPN
Public cloud storage

A

E-mail attachmentUSB driveCorrect answerVPNPublic cloud storageOverall explanationCorrect: VPN. A Virtual Private Network can use the Internet to send the data with good security, and at a relatively fast speed. Incorrect answers: A USBdrive would have to be sent by courier or mail and would not be secure.E-mail attachments do not generally have good security.Public cloud storage would be fast and it would allow for fast transfer, however it is not a secure option.DomainMobile Devices

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90
Q

Question 50:
Garol has been asked to work with one of her company’s developers to set up an in-house test server that, as closely as possible, mirrors the environment the app is deployed in. When she asks the developer what kind of database the app uses and what sort of server hosts it, he says it doesn’t quite work like that. He describes how the app’s host automatically manages the database for them, leaving the developers free to focus on the app itself. What kind of cloud service model is the developer most likely describing?
Software as a service
Database as a service
Platform as a service
Infrastructure as a service

A

Software as a serviceDatabase as a serviceCorrect answerPlatform as a serviceInfrastructure as a serviceOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Platform as a service (PaaS) providers help small numbers of developers focus on building cloud applications by greatly simplifying the work it takes to set up and maintain key components like the server and database. Incorrect Answers: If you zoom in on just the database, a database as a service (DaaS) provider does provide a similar experience–but it won’t include hosting the whole application. While they could host this app with an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) provider, they would still need to be fairly involved in choosing, configuring, and maintaining the server and database. Software as a service is not a platform for hosting your own app or database.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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91
Q

Question 51:
Jose is upgrading the memory on his laptop. The laptop has two slots for RAM, but one of them is currently being occupied. He has checked the qualified vendor list to ensure compatibility. After installing the new stick of RAM, the BIOS reports the original amount of memory. What should Jose do NEXT?
Check your Virtual Memory settings
Check for any patches of Microsoft’s website
Replace all of the RAM
Reseat the new stick of RAM

A

Check your Virtual Memory settingsCheck for any patches of Microsoft’s websiteReplace all of the RAMCorrect answerReseat the new stick of RAMOverall explanationCorrect Answers: Reseat the RAM. In a situation like this, when you know the RAM is compatible, the first thing you should do is simply try again. Maybe it wasn’t inserted all the way. Incorrect Answers: Replacing all the RAM is incorrect. The RAMis compatible and it would not be likely they are both bad.Checking Windows Update is incorrect. Windows update would like likely work for a hardware issue. Virtual memory settings is incorrect. It does not affect the RAM which is hardware, it is an operating system concern.DomainMobile Devices

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92
Q

Question 52:
A user is complaining that nothing happens when he tries to print to a shared printer, even though the printer is powered on. What is most likely the cause of the problem?
The ISP service is currently not available
The user’s print drivers are corrupted
The printer is low on toner
The print server does not have network connectivity

A

The ISP service is currently not availableThe user’s print drivers are corruptedThe printer is low on tonerCorrect answerThe print server does not have network connectivityOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The answer to many network printer problems is “the printer has no network connection.” Do yourself a favor and check that first. Incorrect Answers: You’re not sharing a printer over the Internet, so your ISP has nothing to do with it. Network issues are far more common than driver issues. Driver issues can be disruptive, however they usually resolve in print jobs that print but with incorrect characters.If the printer was simply low on toner, it would at least try to print or give an error message.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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93
Q

Question 53:
You run the IPCONFIG command and your computer says you have the IP address 191.168.1.100. What class is your IP address in?
Class D
Class C
Class B
Class A

A

Class DClass CCorrect answerClass BClass AOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The first octect of a class B address will be 128-191 Incorrect Answers: Class A would be between 1-126 Class C would be between 192-223 Class D would be between 224-239DomainNetworking

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94
Q

Question 54:
Jim wants to be able to access his favorite website wirelessly with his new laptop, from anywhere. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for him to install/configure?
Infared card
Bluetooth card
Cellular card
802.11g wireless card

A

Infared cardBluetooth cardCorrect answerCellular card802.11g wireless cardOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A cellular card would allow Jim to be in any location he would like and not have to worry about wires. Unless there’s no cellular signal. Sorry, Montana! Incorrect Answers: Bluetooth and Infared are known for their ability to connect devices wirelessly in short ranges, but not for internet connections. An 802.11g wireless card would be great, however, Jim wants to be able to go anywhere. That includes the middle of the park if he wants.DomainNetworking

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95
Q

Question 55:
A user recently installed an external hard drive in their PC. After installation, they call you because now their existing DVD-RW and the new drive aren’t working. What should you tell them they need to replace?
Power supply
External hard drive
DVD-RW
SATA controller

A

Correct answerPower supplyExternal hard driveDVD-RWSATA controllerOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Time to upgrade that power supply unit. Looks like the addition of a drive just tilted the scale and now your PSU can’t power all your devices. Incorrect Answers: The fact that BOTH your DVD-RW and the external hard drive simultaneously failed is the big clue here. The DVD-RW was probably working just fine before you put the new drive in. And the external hard drive was brand new. The odds of having to replace that are very unlikely. Replacing the SATA controller wouldn’t be the fix here. Most SATA controllers are soldered onto motherboards. DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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96
Q

Question 56:
You have an iOS device that you just recently purchased. Select two ways that you can synchronize your device with your computer. (Select two.)
IEEE-1394
IEEE-1284
Wi-Fi
USB
RS-232

A

IEEE-1394IEEE-1284Correct selectionWi-FiCorrect selectionUSBRS-232Overall explanationCorrect Answers: USB and Wi-Fi are the only methods to connect your iOS phone, music player, or tablet to your PC. Incorrect Answers: Apple does not facilitate syncing using the serial port (RS-232).Apple does not facilitate syncing using parallel port (IEEE-1284)Apple does not facilitate syncing using firewire (IEEE-1394).DomainMobile Devices

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97
Q

Question 57:
HTTPS differs from HTTP in that the traffic is ______ and it uses port number ____ .
Compressed, 110
Encrypted, 443
Password protected, 80
Throttled, 143

A

Compressed, 110Correct answerEncrypted, 443Password protected, 80Throttled, 143Overall explanationCorrect: HTTPS differs from HTTP in that the traffic is encrypted. It uses port number 443. Incorrect: HTTPS does not compress as part of the protocol, but, like HTTP, it supports compressed data such as images. Port 110 is for POP3 e-mail servers. Throttling is the process of reducing bandwidth for certain systems or networks. This is usually done by ISPs to prevent abuse of their bandwidth. Port 143 is for IMAP e-mail servers. A password is commonly used for an HTTPS site’s authentication, but port 80 is for HTTP, not HTTPS.DomainNetworking

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98
Q

Question 58:
If a technician has just replaced a laptop’s motherboard due to video issues, what should he do first if the speakers stop working?
Verify that the speakers are compatible with the replacement motherboard
Replace the speakers
Update the video drivers
Check the speakers’ connection to the motherboard

A

Verify that the speakers are compatible with the replacement motherboardReplace the speakersUpdate the video driversCorrect answerCheck the speakers’ connection to the motherboardOverall explanationCorrect Answer: It’s very likely that the speakers simply didn’t get hooked up correctly. Incorrect Answers: Video drivers probably won’t have much to do with sound issues. Don’t replace the speakers before making sure that they’re hooked up properly. Due to the way laptop hardware works, the replacement motherboard is probably the exact same as the old motherboard.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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99
Q

Question 59:
The term Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) is associated with which of the following?
POST
NAT
DNS
DHCP

A

POSTNATCorrect answerDNSDHCPOverall explanationCorrect: DNS uses the FQDN to resolve a name to an IP address. Incorrect: A DHCP server provides IP addresses and other TCP/IP settings for DHCP clients. NAT enables multiple computers behind a router to use a single IP address. The POST is the first routine that runs when you power on the computer.DomainNetworking

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100
Q

Question 60:
Jim, a user, states that his inkjet printer is not printing as clearly as when he first purchased it. What should you do first to rectify this issue?
Calibrate the printer
Replace the USB cable
Use a different type of paper
Replace the ink cartridges

A

Correct answerCalibrate the printerReplace the USB cableUse a different type of paperReplace the ink cartridgesOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Looks like the ink may have dry up a little and you need to run the maintenance tool. Often times calibrating the printer will include running a printer head cleaning utility. Incorrect Answers: It may come to replacing the ink cartridges, but don’t get too eager. Those bad boys are expensive, after all! Try doing that last if possible. Using a different type of paper might help if you are using a some strange type of paper. Unfortunately, in this scenario, we don’t have any idea what kind of paper Jim is using. Initially, assume he is using the right kind. Replacing the USB cable would be a good idea if we were having connectivity issues with the printer itself. This, however, is a performance issue with the printer. DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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101
Q

Question 61:
You have just turned on your PC. POST runs through all its tests and you receive a message on the screen saying that a SMART error has occurred. What item should be checked FIRST?
Motherboard
Video card
Hard Drive
Power Supply

A

MotherboardVideo cardCorrect answerHard DrivePower SupplyOverall explanationCorrect Answer: SMART is Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology. It is used to tell whether or not your hard drive is going bad or not. Incorrect Answers: SMART is not designed for Power Supply Unit’s (PSU’s), Motherboards, or Video cards. Hard drives only.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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102
Q

Question 62:
You turn on your computer and you get a “Date and Time Not Set” message on the screen immediately after the manufacturer’s logo. What is the most likely cause of this message?
The system BIOS is corrupted
The computer was incorrectly shut down
The OS has stopped sync’ing with the time server
The CR-2032 battery needs to be replaced

A

The system BIOS is corruptedThe computer was incorrectly shut downThe OS has stopped sync’ing with the time serverCorrect answerThe CR-2032 battery needs to be replacedOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The technical name for a CMOS battery is a CR-2032. You can pick them up cheaply at your local electronics store. When you see the message, “Date and Time Not Set,” it usually always points to the CMOS forgetting what time it is because its battery has run out of juice. Get a new one and you’ll be good to go! Incorrect Answers: If you incorrectly shut down your computer, you’d get a message stating something about how Windows experienced an improper shutdown and now needs to do some CHKDSK scans to make sure your files are intact. While it may be possible that your operating system isn’t syncing up with the time server, we haven’t even gotten to a place to view the operating system. As they system cannot pass this bootup error message, the BIOS is most likely not corrupted. This is an error message due to a failure in the CMOS battery.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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103
Q

Question 63:
What does the “chassis intrusion detection” BIOS option do?
It triggers an alarm.
It logs that the chassis (case) has been opened.
It sends an e-mail to the system administrator.
It triggers a system shutdown and locks the drives.

A

It triggers an alarm.Correct answerIt logs that the chassis (case) has been opened.It sends an e-mail to the system administrator.It triggers a system shutdown and locks the drives.Overall explanationCorrect: It logs that the chassis (case) has been opened. Incorrect: The other answers are not anything the BIOS is capable of doing on a system.DomainHardware

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104
Q

Question 64:
What do you plug into a three-row, 15-pin port?
Keyboard
Mouse
VGA Monitor
Joystick

A

KeyboardMouseCorrect answerVGA MonitorJoystickOverall explanationCorrect: You plug a monitor into a three-row, 15-pin port. Incorrect: A joystick uses a two-row, 15-pin port. Keyboards and mice use round, mini-DIN connectors or USB.DomainHardware

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105
Q

Question 65:
You are troubleshooting a user’s computer with a recently-upgraded video card which now just reboots at random times. You ask the user to keep track of when they notice the reboots happening. After a day, the user reports that it happens when they start up a game or when they start streaming HD video. What is causing these random restarts?
The video card needs a more powerful power supply
The game and video streaming applications are incompatible with the video card
They have a corrupt graphics card driver
The graphics card they upgraded to is not on the HCL

A

Correct answerThe video card needs a more powerful power supplyThe game and video streaming applications are incompatible with the video cardThey have a corrupt graphics card driverThe graphics card they upgraded to is not on the HCLOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The video card needs a more powerful power supply. It sounds like only when the user is pushing their computer with complex graphics processing that it is running out of power and simply quitting. Upgrading the PSU would most likely resolve this issue and give the graphics card all the energy it needs. Incorrect Answers: The graphics card not showing up on the Hardware Compatbility List (HCL) couldn’t be it because it seems like they only have the problem when they are running “intense” applications. At all other times, the video card is doing fine. A corrupt graphics driver would most likely make the image on the screen disfigured, blurry, discolored, wavy lines, etc. If you have video card drivers installed, then your system should be able to play a streaming video or play a game without having to worry about compatibility issues. Depending on the graphics card you purchased, your performance can be greatly affected in video playback and gaming.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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106
Q

Question 66:
The accelerometer in a mobile device makes which of the following possible? (Select two.)
Protection of the device when it’s dropped
Downloads go faster
Game controller input
Automatic rotation of the screen when it’s flipped
High speed communication from other devices

A

Protection of the device when it’s droppedDownloads go fasterCorrect selectionGame controller inputCorrect selectionAutomatic rotation of the screen when it’s flippedHigh speed communication from other devicesOverall explanationCorrect Answers: The accelerometer enables software (like games) to use the orientation of the device as input, like a steering wheel or game controller. It is also what tells the device that the user has rotated the orientation from portrait to landscape, causing the device to rotate the screen correctly. Incorrect Answers: The accelerometer has nothing to do with downloads or communication with other devices. Many hard drives may contain an accelerometer that will protect it in the event of being dropped, but the mobile devices discussed have no hard drives.DomainMobile Devices

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107
Q

Question 67:
While any form of electronic communication suffers from some amount of latency, which of the following technologies is particularly notorious for this problem?
POTS
SDSL
1000BaseT
Satellite

A

POTSSDSL1000BaseTCorrect answerSatelliteOverall explanationCorrect: Satellite. Geo-stationary satellites orbit at 22000 miles above the earth. The physical distance makes latency an inherent issue for satellite communication. Incorrect: Neither 1000BaseT, SDSL, or POTS have as much latency as satellite.DomainNetworking

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108
Q

Question 68:
Which of the following are not technically necessary to run a virtual machine? (Select two.)
A multicore CPU
A PCIe virtual machine manager
A CPU with virtualization support
A hypervisor

A

Correct selectionA multicore CPUCorrect selectionA PCIe virtual machine managerA CPU with virtualization supportA hypervisorOverall explanationCorrect Answer: While a multicore CPU will definitely help with the multitasking associated with running VMs (and multicore CPUs are now the norm), it isn’t a hard requirement. A virtual machine manager does help you manage running VMs, but the VMM is software–not a PCIe card. Incorrect Answer: While CPU support for virtualization is now ubiquitous, it is still technically a requirement (most likely to be a problem if the CPU feature is inadvertently disabled in the system setup utility).DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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109
Q

Question 69:
Which of the following devices is probably the safest and easiest to hot-swap on a PC?
A mini-PCI NIC
A USB camera
A PS/2 Mouse
A modular CD-ROM drive
A USB hard drive

A

A mini-PCI NICCorrect answerA USB cameraA PS/2 MouseA modular CD-ROM driveA USB hard driveOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Nothing, not even a modular drive, beats USB for hot-swap ease and safety. Incorrect Answers: Either USB device might be easily swapped, but you could lose data on a USB hard drive if you didn’t close any open files first. A mini-PCI NIC would not be hot-swappable, nor would a PS/2 mouse.DomainMobile Devices

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110
Q

Question 70:
How many pins does a DDR2 DIMM have?
240
168
184
200

A

Correct answer240168184200Overall explanationCorrect: A DDR2 DIMM has 240 pins. Incorrect: DDR2 SO-DIMMs have 200 pinsDDR DIMMs have 184 pinsSDR DIMMS use 168 pins.DomainHardware

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111
Q

Question 71:
Which of the following best represent valid IPv6 addresses? (Select two)
2001:4860:4002:0802
2001::eca5:2048:g34a
2620:0000:1c18:0000:face:b00c:0000:0003
10.12.14.100
fe80:02a0::0260:8ce9
70-F1-A1-91-EB-E4

A

2001:4860:4002:08022001::eca5:2048:g34aCorrect selection2620:0000:1c18:0000:face:b00c:0000:000310.12.14.100Correct selectionfe80:02a0::0260:8ce970-F1-A1-91-EB-E4Overall explanationCorrect Answer: IPv6 is a 128-bit addressing scheme written in hexadecimal format. When you see an IPv6 address, it will be eight quartets seperated by colons. Strings of zeros can be written by the shortcut “::” Incorrect Answers: 10.12.14.100 is a class A private IPv4 address. 70-F1-A1-91-EB-E4 is a great example of a MAC address. 2001:4860:4002:0802 is half of an IPv6 address. It’s missing the second half, otherwise known as an EUI-64. 2001::eca5:2048:g34a has “g” in the sequence. 0-9 and a-f are the only valid characters in an IPv6 address. But we’ll talk about that more in Network+!DomainNetworking

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112
Q

Question 72:
A technician troubleshoots a broken PC only to find that a strong burning odor is coming from inside the case. Which of the following parts most likely experienced a level of electrical burn?
PSU
Hard drive
CMOS battery
Processor

A

Correct answerPSUHard driveCMOS batteryProcessorOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The power supply unit (PSU) is the most likely thing to experience electrical burn. Incorrect Answers: Although other components could experience electrical burn, the question asked for the most likely to experience electrical burn. The power supply regulates the incoming power.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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113
Q

Question 73:
You are troubleshooting a laptop that was just recently diagnosed with trouble holding power. When you turn the laptop on to troubleshoot, you notice that even while connected to the AC power adapter, the laptop will still use battery power. What could be causing something like this to happen? (Choose two.)
The internal power circuity on the motherboard is faulty
The power adapter that plugs into the wall is malfunctioning
The battery is incompatible with the laptop
The LCD’s power inverter is malfunctioning
You have selected a power scheme in your OS that disables charging

A

Correct selectionThe internal power circuity on the motherboard is faultyCorrect selectionThe power adapter that plugs into the wall is malfunctioningThe battery is incompatible with the laptopThe LCD’s power inverter is malfunctioningYou have selected a power scheme in your OS that disables chargingOverall explanationCorrect Answers: The internal power circuity and the power adapter are the two pieces to this mystery that need to be checked out. Either one could be at fault, or worse… both! Incorrect Answers: If the LCD’s power inverter was malfunctioning, we would have a working laptop, we just wouldn’t see anything on the laptop’s screen. There is no power scheme in your OS that will disable battery charging. The battery being incompatible with system is unlikely. Laptops always come with a battery when purchased. Batteries are also very proprietary to the unit.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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114
Q

Question 74:
Dave has a newly installed locally connected printer. When he tries to print a test page, he gets no error, but the printer fails to print. Which of the following would he want to check first?
Print Spooler Service
Task Scheduler
DHCP Service
Network connection

A

Correct answerPrint Spooler ServiceTask SchedulerDHCP ServiceNetwork connectionOverall explanationCorrect: He would want to check the Print Spooler Service first. Incorrect: This is a locally connected printer, so both DHCP service and Network connection are network features. DHCPand Network connections are not applicable to locally connected printers.Task scheduler is incorrect. Task scheduler is in a Windows app that performs routine tasks.DomainHardware

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115
Q

Question 75:
You are replacing your old 802.11b wireless router with a new 802.11g wireless router. You have just changed the SSID, you enabled WPA2, and finally, you set a passphrase for the level of encryption chosen. What should you do NEXT?
Enable AES on the router
Configure WEP
Change the administrator password
Update your firmware

A

Enable AES on the routerConfigure WEPCorrect answerChange the administrator passwordUpdate your firmwareOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Change the administrator password to access the wireless router’s web interface. Incorrect Answers: AES is enabled already whey you set up WPA2. WEP is not a correct answer. It is not as good as the already enabled WPA2. Updating your firmware is only necessary when you want new features or the firmware update fixes a particular issue with your device.DomainNetworking

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116
Q

Question 76:
You are working on a laptop with an LCD screen that has dead pixels. What is the best way to get rid of them?
Replace the inverter
Replace the LCD panel
Replace the back bezel
Replace the backlight

A

Replace the inverterCorrect answerReplace the LCD panelReplace the back bezelReplace the backlightOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The pixels are defective and the LCD is failing to reproduce light levels correctly. The only way to fix this is to replace the LCD panel itself. Incorrect Answers: You should replace the inverter when you see nothing but a faint image on a dark screen. Replace the backlight(s) when the LCD screen starts to go dim or eventually just goes black. Replacing the back bezel might make your laptop look brand new again, but it won’t fix a dead pixel.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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117
Q

Question 77:
What is the correct boot sequence for a PC?
POST, power good, CPU, boot loader, operating system
Power good, CPU, POST, boot loader, operating system
Power good, boot loader, CPU, POST, operating system
CPU, POST, power good, boot loader, operating system

A

POST, power good, CPU, boot loader, operating systemCorrect answerPower good, CPU, POST, boot loader, operating systemPower good, boot loader, CPU, POST, operating systemCPU, POST, power good, boot loader, operating systemOverall explanationCorrect: The correct boot sequence: Power good, CPU, POST, boot loader, operating system. Incorrect: All three other options are not the correct boot sequence.DomainHardware

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118
Q

Question 78:
Taryn needs to make a list of what her company will need to set up an on-premises VDI system to pilot desktop virtualization for all 21 Windows users in the accounting department. Which of the following is least likely to be on her list?
3 new full-height equipment racks and 21 rails for mounting the users’ existing desktop PCs in the new racks.
A SAN server with along with SSDs for it to manage.
One or two large servers that will go in an existing rack.
A number of new Windows licenses

A

Correct answer3 new full-height equipment racks and 21 rails for mounting the users’ existing desktop PCs in the new racks.A SAN server with along with SSDs for it to manage.One or two large servers that will go in an existing rack.A number of new Windows licensesOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Taryn’s company certainly could set up desktop virtualization in a way that involves taking the user’s existing desktops, sticking them in new racks, and making the users access them via remote desktop. Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI), however, describes an arrangement where user desktops are automatically-managed VMs running on a central server–not desktop systems mounted in a rack. Incorrect Answer: All other answers are incorrect. To implement traditional VDI for 27 Windows users, Taryn will likely need some hefty servers and new Windows licenses. A SAN server, while not essential, would still be a great way to manage the storage needed for the virtual desktops.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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119
Q

Question 79:
What does registration do for color laser printers?
Realigns each color to make a focused image
Sends your purchase information to the manufacturer
Increases the color depth
Formats the printer’s memory storage to support each color.

A

Correct answerRealigns each color to make a focused imageSends your purchase information to the manufacturerIncreases the color depthFormats the printer’s memory storage to support each color.Overall explanationCorrect: Registration realigns the individual colors to create a sharper focus of the printed image. Incorrect: Increases the color depths is incorrect. Saturation would increase the color depth. Sends your purchase information is incorrect. Registration generally applies to software, though it could apply to hardware. Formatting a printer’s memory is not a valid choice.DomainHardware

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120
Q

Question 80:
You just upgraded the RAM on your older PC at home. When you boot up the computer, it doesn’t recognize the new memory even though it was on the Qualified Vendor’s List (QVL) on the manufacturer’s website. What are you going to need to do to solve this problem?
Change the jumpers on your motherboard to allow for the RAM upgrade
Replace your CR-2032 battery
Flash your BIOS
Go to Windows Update and search for any latest patches

A

Change the jumpers on your motherboard to allow for the RAM upgradeReplace your CR-2032 batteryCorrect answerFlash your BIOSGo to Windows Update and search for any latest patchesOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Time for a BIOS flash. The website said it is compatible, but if technology has changed, your BIOS version on your motherboard may be dated. The site will often also show the BIOS version required for the hardware. Incorrect Answers: This isn’t a Microsoft problem yet, so visiting the Windows Update site won’t do much good. Changing jumpers on a motherboard is an old technology. The only only jumpers relevant in modern motherboards are for clearing CMOS settings. A bad CR-2032 battery, or CMOS battery, will only cause a system to lose settings.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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121
Q

Question 81:
Hubs, by definition, broadcast every packet they receive out to all of their connected ports, causing occasional data collisions. Which device eliminates data collisions by not broadcasting to every port?
NetBEUI
Switch
Router
STP

A

NetBEUICorrect answerSwitchRouterSTPOverall explanationCorrect: A switch eliminates data collisions by directly connecting traffic between two devices. Incorrect: Routers forward traffic based on IP address and are used to separate networks. They have nothing to do with collisions. NetBEUI is a legacy protocol used in the Microsoft world for file sharing. It is extremely fast, but is not routable. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) is used to connect networked devices such as computers, hubs, switches, and routers where there is a large amount of electro magnetic interference (EMI).DomainNetworking

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122
Q

Question 82:
In which of the following situations is a registration procedure often required on a color printer?
After moving the printer
Every 30 days
At every reset
Registration is only done once after initial purchase.

A

Correct answerAfter moving the printerEvery 30 daysAt every resetRegistration is only done once after initial purchase.Overall explanationCorrect: After moving a printer, it is common for it to lose registration, requiring a registration procedure to keep the image sharp. Incorrect: There is no common procedure to register a printer at set time intervals or at reset. Registration is done on an as-needed basis, not just once at the factory.DomainHardware

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123
Q

Question 83:
Which of the following cloud characteristics gives cloud customers the incentive to release resources they aren’t actively using?
Shared resources
Rapid elasticity
High availability
Metered utilization
File synchronization

A

Shared resourcesRapid elasticityHigh availabilityCorrect answerMetered utilizationFile synchronizationOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Metered utilization, which bills users based on how much of a resource they consume, gives them an incentive to release resources when they aren’t needed. Incorrect Answer: As cloud characteristics, shared resources, rapid elasticity, high availability, and file synchronization provide no specific incentive to release an unused resource.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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124
Q

Question 84:
Which of the following is a proper name for a stick of RAM?
DIMM
LGA
VGA
CRIMM

A

Correct answerDIMMLGAVGACRIMMOverall explanationCorrect: Modern computers use DIMMs for RAM. Incorrect: CRIMMs were used to fill empty slots when using RDRAM. LGA stands for Land Grid Array and is a type of CPU package. BGA stands for Ball Grid Array and is a type of CPU package.DomainHardware

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125
Q

Question 85:
You are troubleshooting a desktop computer. You have just removed every component, except for the bare essentials, but the computer still won’t boot up. When you turn on the computer, all you receive from the system is a repetitive series of beeps. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
The keyboard
The CPU
The memory
The video card

A

The keyboardThe CPUCorrect answerThe memoryThe video cardOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The ongoing series of beeps is the wonderful sound of bad RAM. Swap the RAM out and get some that is working and compatible with your system. Incorrect Answers: The keyboard being bad or disconnected will usually show a prompt on your screen. The video card being bad or disconnected will usually be 1 long beep followed by 2 short ones. The CPU being missing or bad will prevent your computer from booting and beeping.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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126
Q

Question 86:
When walking past a server with a RAID 5 array, a technician hears a loud clicking noise. Which of the following could most likely occur?
OS not found on boot
BSOD
RAID array failure
Hard drive failure

A

OS not found on bootBSODRAID array failureCorrect answerHard drive failureOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A clicking disk based hard drive means a dying hard drive. Get that hard drive out of the raid and replaced as quick as possible. Incorrect Answers: None of the other answers cause clicking. The are all software based issues that will normally cause error messages or a system to no boot.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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127
Q

Question 87:
A user has just dropped off his laptop reporting that the screen is very dim and it’s difficult to make out the icons on the desktop. When you plug in an external monitor to the system, it brings up the desktop perfectly. Which of the following needs to be replaced?
The LCD inverter
The external monitor
The VGA card
The LCD panel

A

Correct answerThe LCD inverterThe external monitorThe VGA cardThe LCD panelOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The LCD inverter is likely not supplying voltage to the backlights (CCFLs) and will need to be replaced. Incorrect Answers: The external monitor was there to help us diagnose this malfunctioning laptop. And it did its job perfectly. While the LCD panel may seem like a good answer, it’s probably not the BEST answer. We can still see the icons—they are just very dim and hard to make out. It’s more likely a problem with the backlights or the inverters that power the backlights. The VGA card is working just fine, if it wasn’t, we would have had nothing on the external monitor we connected.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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128
Q

Question 88:
Which end of the USB cable plugs into the PC?
A
Mini-A
B
Mini-B

A

Correct answerAMini-ABMini-BOverall explanationCorrect: Plug the A connector into the PC. Incorrect: The B connector and mini-B connectors are used on the peripherals themselves. Mini-A is not a valid connection type.DomainHardware

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129
Q

Question 89:
Jim wants to create a secure connection with a remote host. Which of the following would you recommend that he use?
Telnet
FTP
SSH
HTTP

A

TelnetFTPCorrect answerSSHHTTPOverall explanationCorrect Answer: SSH is known as Secure Shell. If you want a secure connection between two hosts, this should be your go-to service. Incorrect Answers: Telnet, FTP, and HTTP are all excellent ways to connect to remote hosts, but they are completely insecure.DomainNetworking

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130
Q

Question 90:
Both CD and DVD drive speeds are based on multiples of the original CD-ROM drive speed. What is that speed?
150 MBps
100 MBps
150 KBps
100 KBps

A

150 MBps100 MBpsCorrect answer150 KBps100 KBpsOverall explanationCorrect: The original CD-ROM drive speed was 150 KBps. Incorrect: 100 MBps was the maximum data transfer rate of ATA-6. 150 MBps is the maximum throughput of the 1.5Gb variety of SATA drives. 100 KBps is meaningless and made up.DomainHardware

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131
Q

Question 1:
What component can you not typically upgrade on a laptop?
RAM
Wireless card
Video card
Hard drive

A

RAMWireless cardCorrect answerVideo cardHard driveOverall explanationCorrect Answer: It’s not possible to upgrade video cards in most laptops. Incorrect Answers: You can upgrade hard drives, RAM, or wireless cards in most laptops.DomainMobile Devices

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132
Q

Question 2:
Ronnie’s on a call to a customer who’s complaining that his Blu-ray Disc-equipped home theater PC “isn’t working right.” Talking to the customer, Ronnie discovers that the Blu-ray Disc image isn’t in high definition, but instead looks like a standard TV signal. He notices the connection between the computer and monitor is an old component connection. He thinks to himself: “That Blu-ray Disc device requires an HDMI cable for high-resolution.” Based on the CompTIA troubleshooting theory, what should he do next?
Establish a theory of probable cause
Verify full system functionality
Document findings
Test the theory

A

Establish a theory of probable causeVerify full system functionalityDocument findingsCorrect answerTest the theoryOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Based on CompTIA’s troubleshooting theory, he should test the theory next. Incorrect: The technician had followed the first two steps in the troubleshooting theory: identify the problem and establish a theory of probable cause. The third step in the process is to test the theory. The next three steps in order: 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem 5. Verify full system functionality 6. Document findingsDomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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133
Q

Question 3:
John’s laptop won’t recharge and he suspects the AC adapter is the problem. Which tool should he use to test it?
Paper clip
Induction toner
Power supply tester
Multimeter

A

Paper clipInduction tonerPower supply testerCorrect answerMultimeterOverall explanationCorrect: Use a multimeter to test the AC adapter’s output voltage. Incorrect: An induction toner enables you to locate specific network cables, often inside a wiring closet. A power supply tester enables you to test a power supply when it’s not plugged into a computer—a handy device, but not for testing an AC adapter. While you might be successful testing with a paper clip, it’s probably not a good idea!DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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134
Q

Question 4:
Mike is setting up a new Internet connection. When he types PING 209.29.33.25, he is successful. When he types www.totalsem.com, he is not. Which TCP/IP setting should he check first?
Default Gateway
WINS
Subnet Mask
DNS

A

Default GatewayWINSSubnet MaskCorrect answerDNSOverall explanationCorrect Answer: He should check his DNS (Domain Name System) server address first. Incorrect Answers: The subnet mask isn’t the problem if he is able to PING a server on the Internet. WINS is like DNS, but for working with NetBIOS names, not domain names like www.totalsem.com. The Default Gateway is working if he is able to PING a server on the Internet.DomainNetworking

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135
Q

Question 5:
A company uses a proxy server for FTP and HTTP traffic. What port number needs to be set on the client’s FTP applications to enable users to use FTP?
110
21
25
80

A

110Correct answer212580Overall explanationCorrect: 21, FTP uses ports 20 and 21. However, port 20 isn’t listed, so go with port 21. Incorrect: HTTP (the Web) uses port 80. SMTP (outgoing mail) uses port 25POP3 (incoming mail) uses port 110DomainNetworking

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136
Q

Question 6:
If a device is hot-swappable, why should you use the Safely Remove Hardware Tool?
It prevents ESD.
It enables any open files on the device to be closed.
It enables the device to recover from a power management mode if the device should be in one.
It allows Windows to store information about the device.
It enables the device to cool down.

A

It prevents ESD.Correct answerIt enables any open files on the device to be closed.It enables the device to recover from a power management mode if the device should be in one.It allows Windows to store information about the device.It enables the device to cool down.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Safely Remove Hardware enables open files on the removable device to close. Incorrect Answers: It enables the device to cool down is incorrect.It enables the device to recover from a power management mode if the device should be in one is incorrect.It prevents ESD is incorrect. ESD is prevented by using anti static mats and wrist guards. DomainHardware

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137
Q

Question 7:
A user comes to work and turns on their computer. During startup they receive a “SMART error.” Which of the following devices will cause this message to appear?
Hard Drive
CD-ROM
Power Supply
Video Card

A

Correct answerHard DriveCD-ROMPower SupplyVideo CardOverall explanationCorrect Answer: SMART is a BIOS based check for your hard drive. If it detects errors in one of its hard drive tests, your system will show a SMART error. Incorrect Answers: SMART is an interface between BIOS and the hard drive. It does not work with any other hardware.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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138
Q

Question 8:
Which type of flash memory card is the oldest?
CompactFlash
Secure Digital
Memory Stick
SmartMedia

A

Correct answerCompactFlashSecure DigitalMemory StickSmartMediaOverall explanationCorrect: CompactFlash is the oldest type of flash memory card. Incorrect: Memory Stick is Sony’s proprietary memory format. Secure Digital cards are the most common type of flash memory cards used today. SmartMedia came out as a competitor to CompactFlash, but is no longer used in newer devices.DomainHardware

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139
Q

Question 9:
Tommy sent a print job to his printer, but then he realized the printer was out of paper. He adds paper, but the print job does not automatically print. He opens the Print queue and sees his print job shows an error. He right-clicks on the print job and a menu appears. What does he need to select in this menu to get the print job on its way to the printer?
Start
Restart
Pause
Open

A

StartCorrect answerRestartPauseOpenOverall explanationCorrect: You would press the Restart option. Incorrect: Neither Open nor Start are valid options for a print job menu. Pause is a valid option, but it simply pauses a print job. It does not restart a print job.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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140
Q

Question 10:
There are only two issues that take place on a modern PC that generate beep codes. What are they? (Select two.)
No video card detected
Problem with CPU
Bad or Missing RAM
BIOS needs updating

A

Correct selectionNo video card detectedProblem with CPUCorrect selectionBad or Missing RAMBIOS needs updatingOverall explanationCorrect: The only two common POST beep codes are: No video card detected and Bad or Missing RAM. Incorrect: If the CPU is bad, then the POST can’t start. There is no error code for an outdated BIOS.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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141
Q

Question 11:
A user’s video card is starting to show random colors on the screen. Before replacing the card, which of the following troubleshooting steps should you do?
Nothing, just implement the solution
Establish a theory of probable cause
Identify the problem
Document your findings

A

Nothing, just implement the solutionCorrect answerEstablish a theory of probable causeIdentify the problemDocument your findingsOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Check to see what caused this random color phenomenon by establishing a theory. Incorrect Answers: You’ve already identified the problem… random colors.You don’t want to implement a solution yet, because you don’t know what caused it (is it a software or hardware issue?) Document your findings is incorrect, you have not found the issue. You’ll handle that part later in the troubleshooting process.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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142
Q

Question 12:
What is the best way to determine the total capacity and specific type of RAM your system can handle?
Open the case and inspect the RAM.
Check the motherboard book.
Check the System utility in the Control Panel.
Check the Device Manager.

A

Open the case and inspect the RAM.Correct answerCheck the motherboard book.Check the System utility in the Control Panel.Check the Device Manager.Overall explanationCorrect: The best way to determine the total capacity and specific type of RAM your system can handle is to check the motherboard book. Incorrect: The other answers won’t tell you the total capacity or specific type of RAM your system can handle.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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143
Q

Question 13:
What is the best way to toggle between a laptop’s screen and an external monitor?
Function keys on keyboard
Task Manager
Turn the monitors on and off
Display settings in Control Panel

A

Correct answerFunction keys on keyboardTask ManagerTurn the monitors on and offDisplay settings in Control PanelOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The function keys on the keyboard enable users to do things like change the brightness and contrast of the screen, change the speaker volume, and toggle to an external monitor. Incorrect Answers: Task Manager enables you to end unresponsive processes, start and stop services, and check your computer’s performance. The display settings won’t enable you to toggle a monitor on or off. Turning the monitor on and off won’t do anything if the PC isn’t outputing any video to it.DomainMobile Devices

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144
Q

Question 14:
What is the simplest way to change the brightness on a laptop’s monitor?
In the video display drivers
In the Device Manager of the operating system
In the BIOS
Fn key

A

In the video display driversIn the Device Manager of the operating systemIn the BIOSCorrect answerFn keyOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Almost every laptop has a function key for controlling brightness. Incorrect Answers: Neither Device Manager nor BIOS contain settings for screen brightness. You might be able to change brightness in the display drivers, but the question is looking for the simplest option available.DomainMobile Devices

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145
Q

Question 15:
What happens when you attempt to print to a phantom print device?
Nothing. The print job goes to the printer, but no output occurs.
Windows will display an “Invalid print device” error.
Windows will display an “Invalid print device” error and prompt for a valid print device.
Windows will display a “Print device not found” error.

A

Correct answerNothing. The print job goes to the printer, but no output occurs.Windows will display an “Invalid print device” error.Windows will display an “Invalid print device” error and prompt for a valid print device.Windows will display a “Print device not found” error.Overall explanationCorrect: When you print to a phantom or virtual print device, the software printer takes the print job and processes it. Then nothing else happens. Incorrect: As long as the printer software is valid, Windows will not report anything unusual or missing.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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146
Q

Question 16:
Thermal printers have a major disadvantage compared to other printer technologies: thermal printing __________ .
Is far too slow for most functions.
Is unsuitable for archival purposes.
Costs much more in terms of consumables.
Is limited to 16 colors.

A

Is far too slow for most functions.Correct answerIs unsuitable for archival purposes.Costs much more in terms of consumables.Is limited to 16 colors.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Thermal paper is sensitive to heat, making it unsuitable for archival printing. Incorrect Answers: Thermal printing uses one color, not 16, nor is it too slow. Its cost is not its main disadvantage, either.DomainHardware

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147
Q

Question 17:
802.11g uses the _______ radio band and transmits at a maximum speed of ______ .
2.4GHz, 11Mb/sec
5GHz, 11Mb/sec
2.4GHz, 54Mb/sec
5GHz, 54Mb/sec

A

2.4GHz, 11Mb/sec5GHz, 11Mb/secCorrect answer2.4GHz, 54Mb/sec5GHz, 54Mb/secOverall explanationCorrect: 802.11g uses the 2.4GHz radio band and transmits at a maximum speed of 54Mb/sec. Incorrect: 2.4GHz, 11Mb/sec is 802.11b. 5GHz, 11Mb/sec is not associated with a standard.5 GHz, 54Mb/sec is 802.11a.DomainNetworking

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148
Q

Question 18:
Jim’s parents want to use a wireless keyboard for their Home Theater PC running Windows Media Center. Which technology would best meet their needs?
Bluetooth
Ethernet
802.11
Serial

A

Correct answerBluetoothEthernet802.11SerialOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Of the choices given, only Bluetooth is a viable option as there are no wireless keyboards that use the other wireless choice, 802.11. Incorrect Answers: Serial and Ethernet are not wireless technologies.DomainNetworking

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149
Q

Question 19:
Your primary hard drive starts to make a clicking noise. There are some very important files on the drive. How do you make sure the data can be saved?
Run anti-virus software on it.
Take it to a professional data recovery company.
Run Disk Defragmenter on it.
Run CHKDSK on it.

A

Run anti-virus software on it.Correct answerTake it to a professional data recovery company.Run Disk Defragmenter on it.Run CHKDSK on it.Overall explanationCorrect: The only people who have the equipment and knowledge to open hard drives for data retrieval are professional data recovery centers. Incorrect: CHKDSK will only scan for errors. Anti-virus software will only search for and attempt to stop viruses. Disk Defragmenter defragments drives.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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150
Q

Question 20:
Any network using hubs can be substantially improved simply by replacing the hubs with:
Bridges
CAT6
Routers
Switches

A

BridgesCAT6RoutersCorrect answerSwitchesOverall explanationCorrect: Switches work at layer 2 of the OSI networking model—a standard in network communication that you will learn more about in Network+. By existing at layer 2, switches remember communication between nodes based on MAC addresses, creating direct connections instead of a single shared connection for the entire network in the case of hubs. Incorrect: A bridge connects multiple network segments, but only has one incoming port and one outgoing port. A router is a different kind of networking device. Where switches connect computer together, routers connect networks together based on IP addresses rather than MAC addresses. CAT6 is Category 6 network cabling. This particular type of network cabling can go at speeds up to 10Gbps.DomainNetworking

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151
Q

Question 21:
Which of the following is a private IP address?
192.1.1.1
10.1.1.1
1.1.1.1
172.1.1.1

A

192.1.1.1Correct answer10.1.1.11.1.1.1172.1.1.1Overall explanationCorrect: 10.1.1.1 is a private IP address. There are three private IP address ranges: Class A: 10.X.X.X Class B: 172.16.X.X - 172.31.X.X Class C: 192.168.X.X Incorrect: The other three answers are not valid private IPaddresses.DomainNetworking

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152
Q

Question 22:
A retail-boxed CPU usually comes with a ________ fan.
Overdrive
Specialized
OEM
Large

A

OverdriveSpecializedCorrect answerOEMLargeOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The fans that come with retail-boxed CPUs are known as Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) fans. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are aftermarket fans that are designed when using the CPU beyond its normal intent. Manufacturers provide a fan that will support normal usage on a CPU.DomainHardware

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153
Q

Question 23:
What component is in charge of powering an LCD screen?
PCMCIA card
Backlight
Inverter
PCIe card

A

PCMCIA cardBacklightCorrect answerInverterPCIe cardOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The inverter provides power to an LCD screen. Incorrect Answers: PCMCIA cards are used as expansion slots on laptops. Backlights are also powered by the inverter. PCIe is a type of expansion slot, and has nothing to do with powering LCD screens.DomainMobile Devices

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154
Q

Question 24:
A technician arrives to troubleshoot a problem. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the technician perform AFTER identifying the problem?
Establish a theory of probable cause.
Verify full functionality and implement preventative measures.
Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Establish a plan of action and implement a solution.

A

Correct answerEstablish a theory of probable cause.Verify full functionality and implement preventative measures.Document findings, actions, and outcomes.Establish a plan of action and implement a solution.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Figure out what caused the problem in the first place. Incorrect Answers: You can’t establish a plan of action without first identifying the problem. Documenting is the last thing in the troubleshooting process. Verifying functionality is to be done right before the documentation.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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155
Q

Question 25:
What device enables a laptop with a single video output port to support multiple monitors?
Docking station
Adjustable monitor arm
VGA to DVI converter
PCMCIA card

A

Correct answerDocking stationAdjustable monitor armVGA to DVI converterPCMCIA cardOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A docking station enables you to add additional ports and features that a laptop would otherwise not have. Incorrect Answers: A VGA to DVI converter just enables you to hook a DVI cable up to a VGA port. A monitor arm enables you to reposition your monitor. A PCMCIA card is a type of expansion card for a laptop.DomainMobile Devices

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Q

Question 26:
Which of the following best describes the difference between an on-site data center containing servers and other computing resources and a private cloud?
A private cloud is not on-site, but is created by joining public cloud resources to the local network with a virtual private network (VPN).
A simple on-site data center is not integrated with any cloud resources, while a private cloud is created by integrating data center and public cloud resources.
A private cloud is not on-site, but is created by joining public cloud resources into a virtual private cloud (VPC).
A private cloud enables internal users to provision and release computing resources from the on-site data center more or less the same way they would with public cloud resources.

A

A private cloud is not on-site, but is created by joining public cloud resources to the local network with a virtual private network (VPN).A simple on-site data center is not integrated with any cloud resources, while a private cloud is created by integrating data center and public cloud resources.A private cloud is not on-site, but is created by joining public cloud resources into a virtual private cloud (VPC).Correct answerA private cloud enables internal users to provision and release computing resources from the on-site data center more or less the same way they would with public cloud resources.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Much like a public cloud, a private cloud’s secret sauce is the software layer that makes it easy for users to provision and release resources on demand. Incorrect Answer: A private cloud is often (but does not have to be) located on site. Creating a private cloud does not require integrating with any public cloud resources.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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157
Q

Question 27:
When you ask your friend Meda what she’s been up to at work lately, she says she’s in the middle of a big push to move an important company database from the cloud to an on-site data center. You ask why, and she says a new data regulation going into effect in three months forbids using shared resources to host certain kinds of data. What is she likely refering to?
Hosting services, including cloud platforms, typically use the same hardware to host services for multiple customers at the same time.
Resources hosted on public cloud platforms are accessible to anyone with an Internet connection.
Cloud platforms have less-granular access controls than local servers, so every application running in the customer’s account would have access to the database.
While cloud providers don’t host multiple customers on the same hardware simultaneously, they do lease the hardware to new customers as soon as one customer is done with it.

A

Correct answerHosting services, including cloud platforms, typically use the same hardware to host services for multiple customers at the same time.Resources hosted on public cloud platforms are accessible to anyone with an Internet connection.Cloud platforms have less-granular access controls than local servers, so every application running in the customer’s account would have access to the database.While cloud providers don’t host multiple customers on the same hardware simultaneously, they do lease the hardware to new customers as soon as one customer is done with it.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Cloud providers typically host multiple users on the same hardware (unless they pay a significant premium for dedicated instances). If one customer using the hardware exploits security faults in the host system, they may gain access to the data of other customers hosted on that hardware. Incorrect Answer: Resources hosted in the cloud may or may not be accessible to the general public. Cloud platform access controls can be just as granular as on local servers. In addition to hosting multiple customers on the same hardware, providers also re-use that hardware to host other customers later. They typically scrub customer data from the hardware first, so this isn’t as risky as simultaneously sharing the same hardware with other customers.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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158
Q

Question 28:
Mike’s newly configured computer (using manual IP settings) can’t access a Web site by its fully-qualified domain name (FQDN), but he can access it by the Web site’s IP address. Everyone else on the network can access the site by the FQDN. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
The computer’s DNS settings are incorrect.
The computer’s DNS server is down.
The computer’s DNS Client service is disabled.
The computer does not have DNS permissions enabled on the default gateway.

A

Correct answerThe computer’s DNS settings are incorrect.The computer’s DNS server is down.The computer’s DNS Client service is disabled.The computer does not have DNS permissions enabled on the default gateway.Overall explanationCorrect: Your DNS settings are incorrect. Given that most systems use DHCP, it’s rare to have a problem like this, but if you typed in invalid manual DNS settings into your NIC’s Properties, this can happen. Incorrect: If you were to turn off the DNS Client service on your computer, you would get this problem. However, there is a much smaller chance that this service would be disabled than that someone had entered an invalid DNS service IP address. In a single network, everyone USUALLY uses the same DNS server, so if the DNS server is down for you, it’s down for everyone else. Granted, you might have a different DNS server, so this answer is valid, but not as valid as entering an invalid DNS server IP address. Routers don’t have an item in their Access Control Lists called “DNS permissions”. You COULD block DNS from getting through your router by blocking port 53 (DNS), but then no one could get DNS access. Most routers have the ability to block a port number for a single IP or MAC address, but, again, it’s simply too unlikely.DomainNetworking

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159
Q

Question 29:
Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of a bad sensor on a laser printer?
Paper jam error but no jammed paper
Blank pages printed without errors
Paper is picked up in twos and threes
Spontaneous printer reboots

A

Correct answerPaper jam error but no jammed paperBlank pages printed without errorsPaper is picked up in twos and threesSpontaneous printer rebootsOverall explanationCorrect: A paper jam error with no jammed paper is a clear sign of a faulty sensor. Incorrect: Paper picked up in twos and threes is indicative of too much moisture in the paper. Blank pages are most likely due to nothing more than low toner. Spontaneous printer reboots, just like with PCs, points to a bad power supply.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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160
Q

Question 30:
A PCIe video power connector has how many pins? (Choose two.)
8
20
4
24
6

A

Correct selection820424Correct selection6Overall explanationCorrect Answers: PCIe power connectors can come in 6-pin and 8-pin varieties depending on what is needed. Both deliver an additional 12 volts for advanced video cards. The 6-pin connector officially supplies 75 watts of extra power for video cards, while the 8-pin connector supplies up to 150 watts. While installing an 8-pin PCIe power connector, be careful not confuse it with the 8-pin EPS connector for your motherboard. You might just see some sparks fly! Incorrect Answers: The 4-pin power connector is for the traditional Molex connector. The 20- & 24-pin power connectors are known as the ATX power connector, or sometimes the “P1” connector. Which one you have usually depends on the age of your motherboard and power supply and what their requirements are.DomainHardware

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161
Q

Question 31:
What is the “DDRXXX” rating for PC3200?
400MHz
100MHz
320MHz
200MHz

A

Correct answer400MHz100MHz320MHz200MHzOverall explanationCorrect Answer: 400MHz. The term “PC3200” tells us this is DDR. You can calculate the DDR rating simply by dividing by eight. Incorrect Answers: 320MHz would be PC2560, which doesn’t exist. 200MHz would be PC1600. 100MHz would be PC800, which doesn’t exist.DomainHardware

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162
Q

Question 32:
Which of the following statements is true regarding scanners?
The higher the scanner resolution, the larger the image file.
Scanners might need more internal memory to scan at higher resolutions.
The higher the resolution, the faster the image scans.
The brighter the image, the brighter the imaging lamp.

A

Correct answerThe higher the scanner resolution, the larger the image file.Scanners might need more internal memory to scan at higher resolutions.The higher the resolution, the faster the image scans.The brighter the image, the brighter the imaging lamp.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Increasing the resolution makes for more pixel data to store, and therefore larger image files. Incorrect Answers: The other statements are false, the correct statements would be:The higher the resolution, the slower the image scans.Scanners do require more internal memory to scan at higher resolutions.Imaging lamps can vary brightness, but it adjust for quality and clarity, not brightness of the image.DomainHardware

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163
Q

Question 33:
New smart phones have features that enable them to be backed up to a remote location. Of which of the following is this an example?
Desktop Manager
iCloud
iOS
App Market

A

Desktop ManagerCorrect answeriCloudiOSApp MarketOverall explanationCorrect Answer: iCloud is an example of a remote backup solution for iOS mobile devices. Incorrect Answers: Desktop Manager is synchronization software for Blackberry devices. iOS is the operating system running on Apple mobile devices. App Market is a made-up term.DomainMobile Devices

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164
Q

Question 34:
You are called to check on a printer that is printing out gibberish. Of the following problems, which should you first suspect?
Bad printer power supply
Corrupted printer driver
Bad primary corona
Bad printer connection

A

Bad printer power supplyCorrect answerCorrupted printer driverBad primary coronaBad printer connectionOverall explanationCorrect: Gibberish printing is the classic symptom of a corrupted printer driver. Delete the printer and reinstall it. Incorrect: In rare circumstances, a bad printer connection could cause gibberish, but it’s incredibly rare. Usually, a bad connection simply prevents printing. Depending on the printer, a bad primary corona would make a completely black or completely blank printout. A bad printer power supply would keep the printer from turning on.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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165
Q

Question 35:
Which of the following is an example of an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA)?
196.254.3.4
169.254.3.17
192.254.4.17
192.168.5.3

A

196.254.3.4Correct answer169.254.3.17192.254.4.17192.168.5.3Overall explanationCorrect Answer: 169.254.3.17 is an example of an Automatic Private IP Address. All APIPA addresses must start with 169.254. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are incorrect as all APIPAaddress must begin with 169.254.DomainNetworking

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166
Q

Question 36:
Which of the following components would be utilized most when using virtualization? (Select two.)
Dual-rail 1000w PSU
High-end sound card
Quad core CPU
High-end video card
Maximum memory

A

Dual-rail 1000w PSUHigh-end sound cardCorrect selectionQuad core CPUHigh-end video cardCorrect selectionMaximum memoryOverall explanationCorrect Answers: In order to properly manage and run all of the virtual machines, the virtualization server will need to have as much memory as possible as well as a multi-core CPU. Incorrect Answers: Having a high-end graphics card and high-end sound card is more important for a gaming PC. Those features are not needed in a virtualization server. A dual-rail 1000w PSU would also probably be needed in a gaming computer where you have multiple graphics cards that require a lot of extra power.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

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167
Q

Question 37:
Under outdoor conditions, the 802.11g standard supports data throughput of up to _______________ and has a range of up to _______________.
54 Mbps / 250 meters
11 Mbps / 140 meters
11 Mbps / 120 meters
54 Mbps / 140 meters

A

54 Mbps / 250 meters11 Mbps / 140 meters11 Mbps / 120 metersCorrect answer54 Mbps / 140 metersOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Under ideal, outdoor conditions, the 802.11g standard supports data throughput of up to 54 Mbps and has a range of up to 140 meters. Incorrect Answers: 802.11b has a data throughput of 11 Mbps at 140 meters. 802.11a has a data throughput of 54 Mbps at 120 meters. 802.11n has a data throught of 150+ Mbps at 250 meters.DomainNetworking

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168
Q

Question 38:
Gregor installed a third stick of known-good RAM into his Core i7 system, bringing the total amount of RAM up to 3 GB. Within a few days, though, he started having random lockups and reboots, especially when doing memory intensive tasks such as gaming. What is most likely the problem?
Gregor installed DDR2 RAM into a DDR3 system.
Gregor installed RAM that exceeded the speed of the RAM in the system.
Gregor installed RAM that didn’t match the speed or quality of the RAM in the system.
Gregor installed DDR RAM into a DDR2 system.

A

Gregor installed DDR2 RAM into a DDR3 system.Gregor installed RAM that exceeded the speed of the RAM in the system.Correct answerGregor installed RAM that didn’t match the speed or quality of the RAM in the system.Gregor installed DDR RAM into a DDR2 system.Overall explanationCorrect: Most likely, Gregor installed RAM that didn’t match the speed or quality of the RAM in the system. Incorrect: Installing one type of RAM into a another type of RAM slot is very difficult due to pin differences and keying differences. Although you can install more RAMthat a motherboard will run, it would not report the RAMamount correctly.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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169
Q

Question 39:
When putting a mobile device into airplane mode, which of the following features is typically disabled? (Select two.)
Multi-touch ability
Wireless
Data encryption
Cellular data
SD storage

A

Multi-touch abilityCorrect selectionWirelessData encryptionCorrect selectionCellular dataSD storageOverall explanationCorrect Answers: Airplane mode disables all networking abilities, such as cellular data and Wi-Fi. This prevents the phone from disrupting the airplane’s communications. Incorrect Answers: Airplane mode doesn’t disable any of the other listed features because they don’t interfere with airline communication.DomainMobile Devices

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170
Q

Question 40:
The link light on the NIC of Rob’s desktop normally glows yellow, but when he moved the PC to a construction trailer and plugged it in, it glowed green. The PC and networking run well, but Rob is confused about the color change. What could cause this?
There’s too much network activity.
Moving the system has affected the color of the link light.
He’s on a different speed LAN.
He’s not on the Internet.

A

There’s too much network activity.Moving the system has affected the color of the link light.Correct answerHe’s on a different speed LAN.He’s not on the Internet.Overall explanationCorrect: Many multispeed NICs show their connection speed by the color of the link light. Incorrect: The PC and networking are stated as working fine, so too much network activity or an inability to access the Internet are the cause.Moving the system would not affect the link light color.DomainHardware

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171
Q

Question 41:
What is “duplex printing”?
Automatic printer collation
Inline binding of the paper
Two-way printer communication
Printing on both sides of the paper

A

Automatic printer collationInline binding of the paperTwo-way printer communicationCorrect answerPrinting on both sides of the paperOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Duplex printing is the process of printing on both sides of a sheet of paper. Incorrect Answers: Collation is to stack in an organized fashion. Binding is to create something like a book or magazine. Inline biding of the paper is not a valid printing option.DomainHardware

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172
Q

Question 42:
Virtually all home routers today are configured using:
Telnet
A web interface
Their own keyboard and mouse
BIOS

A

TelnetCorrect answerA web interfaceTheir own keyboard and mouseBIOSOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Almost all modern home routers use a web interface. Incorrect Answers: There may be some old routers that use telnet or even their own keyboard and mouse, but modern home routers use a web interface. BIOSis not a way to configure a home router, it is used to perform hardware initialization during the boot process.DomainNetworking

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173
Q

Question 43:
Which of the following is always a feature of a riser card?
Riser cards always contain multiple expansion slots
Riser cards only work with PCI
Riser cards are limited to 1/2 CPU speed
Riser cards do not work with PCIe

A

Correct answerRiser cards always contain multiple expansion slotsRiser cards only work with PCIRiser cards are limited to 1/2 CPU speedRiser cards do not work with PCIeOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The primary function of a riser card is to provide multiple expansion slots from a single slot. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are incorrect. Riser cards come in both PCI and PCIe flavors.Riser cards are not limited to 1/2 CPUspeed.DomainHardware

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174
Q

Question 44:
According to the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting methodology, at what point during the troubleshooting process should you back up the computer?
When identifying the problem.
When establishing a theory of probable cause.
When testing the theory to determine cause.
When establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem and implementing the solution.

A

Correct answerWhen identifying the problem.When establishing a theory of probable cause.When testing the theory to determine cause.When establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem and implementing the solution.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: When identifying the problem is the best time to do some back ups. Before making any changes to the system, you should always back it up. Incorrect: When you establishing a theory, testing your theory, or implementing a plan of action, you are more likely to be doing some significant changes to their computer. Back up before any of that!DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

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175
Q

Question 45:
The IP address 3.4.15.124 is an example of which of the following class licenses?
Class C
Class A
Class D
Class B

A

Class CCorrect answerClass AClass DClass BOverall explanationCorrect: This is a Class A address. The Class A first octet is from 1 to 126. Incorrect: The Class B first octet is from 128 to 191. The Class C first octet is from 192 to 223. The Class D first octet is from 224 to 239.DomainNetworking

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176
Q

Question 46:
To push a CPU faster than its rated speed is to _______ the CPU.
Overdrive
Overclock
Overspeed
Overpower

A

OverdriveCorrect answerOverclockOverspeedOverpowerOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The correct term is overclock. Incorrect Answers: OverDrive was an ancient type of CPU. Overspeed and Overpower are not valid common terms for pushing a CPUs speed.DomainHardware

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177
Q

Question 47:
A user who travels a lot wants 24/7 Internet access on her laptop. Which of the following would you recommend for her connection?
Bluetooth
802.11
Cellular WAN
Infrared

A

Bluetooth802.11Correct answerCellular WANInfraredOverall explanationCorrect Answers: Of the choices given, only cellular WANs have the ability to provide 24/7 Internet access virtually anywhere she goes that has cell reception. Incorrect Answers: The other three options have limited range compared to cellular WANs and would not be as effective. Cellular WANs offer the longest wave length for reception.DomainNetworking

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178
Q

Question 48:
Your PC’s power supply is rated by its output _________ .
Joules
Amps
Watts
Farads

A

JoulesAmpsCorrect answerWattsFaradsOverall explanationCorrect: PC power supplies are measured by their output watts. This number is the maximum wattage the power supply can provide. Incorrect: An amp is the amount of electrons moving past a certain point on a wire. A joule is the amount of work done by a force of one Newton moving an object through a distance of one meter. Surge suppressors are often rated in joules. A farad is the charge a capacitor will accept for the potential across it to change 1 volt. More importantly, it is not how power supplies are rated.DomainHardware

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179
Q

Question 49:
A technician, trying to upgrade the RAM in a laptop, opens the bottom of the case to discover that there is only one RAM slot when there are supposed to be two. Where might the other slot be?
Above the PC card slot
Under the keyboard
Second hard drive bay
Inside the display bezel

A

Above the PC card slotCorrect answerUnder the keyboardSecond hard drive bayInside the display bezelOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Laptops are designed to be small, so component placement is not always convenient for a tech. The second RAM slot is commonly under the keyboard. Some modern laptops may also have RAMintegrated in the motherboard which makes upgrading impossible.Incorrect Answers: The other locations usually do not hide a RAM slotDomainMobile Devices

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180
Q

Question 50:
Margarita has seen plenty of System setup screens over the years, but when she presses DEL at boot on her new laptop, she sees two password options: “Setup” and “System.” What are the more common terms for “Setup” and “System,” respectively?
User and Root
User and Supervisor
Administrator and User
Supervisor and User

A

User and RootUser and SupervisorAdministrator and UserCorrect answerSupervisor and UserOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Some computer manufacturers use the terms “Setup” and “System” rather than the classic terms “Supervisor” and “User,” but the options still perform the same functions. Incorrect Answers: Administrator and user passwords are used with Windows. User and Root passwords are more commonly associated with Linux systems. User and Supervisor is just a made-up answer for your benefit.DomainHardware

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181
Q

Question 51:
You are installing a new video card in a PC. What is the most reliable place to get the most up-to-date driver?
The default PnP driver
The installation disc that came with your new video card
The Windows driver library on the OS installation disc
The manufacturer’s Web site

A

The default PnP driverThe installation disc that came with your new video cardThe Windows driver library on the OS installation discCorrect answerThe manufacturer’s Web siteOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The best place to find the most up-to-date driver is the manufacturer’s Web site. Incorrect Answers: Drivers may change after the card is made and shipped, so the installation disc is a no-go. Windows has a good library of drivers, but they will not be as up-to-date as the manufacturer’s latest drivers. Any default driver is just a very basic driver designed for the lowest common denominator; such a driver will never be the most-up-to date.DomainHardware

182
Q

Question 52:
Which of the following symptoms is indicative of a misconfigured BOOT.INI file?
Error at boot: “No boot device present”
Error at boot: “Windows could not start”
Error at boot: “NTLDR is missing”
Windows boots into Safe Mode only.

A

Error at boot: “No boot device present”Correct answerError at boot: “Windows could not start”Error at boot: “NTLDR is missing”Windows boots into Safe Mode only.Overall explanationCorrect: Error at boot: “Windows could not start.” BOOT.INI’s main job is to point to a valid copy of Windows, usually stored in a folder called \WINNT or \WINDOWS. If BOOT.INI doesn’t point out a valid copy, this is the error you’ll get. Incorrect: Error at boot: “NTLDR is missing.” Your Master Boot Record points to NTLDR. If there’s a problem with the MBR, if it’s corrupt or if the boot order is incorrect, then you’d get this error. Error at boot: “No boot device present”. This happens when the BIOS is pointing to a drive that has no bootable partitions. Windows boots into Safe Mode only. While many issues may cause this to happen, if you’re able to boot into Safe Mode, you have a bootable copy of Windows and your BOOT.INI is fine.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

183
Q

Question 53:
Johan needs to finish a presentation before his plane lands, but the underside of his laptop is scorching his legs. What should he do?
Ask the flight attendant for a pillow.
Nothing, all laptops are warm on the bottom.
Put the laptop into sleep mode.
Place the laptop on a hard, smooth surface.

A

Ask the flight attendant for a pillow.Nothing, all laptops are warm on the bottom.Put the laptop into sleep mode.Correct answerPlace the laptop on a hard, smooth surface.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Laptops need a flat, smooth surface for proper airflow. Incorrect Answers: Nothing, all laptops are warm on the bottom is incorrect. Most laptops get a little warm, but he shouldn’t be burned by one! Ask the flight attendant for a pillow is incorrect. A pillow is not a good solution as a barrier for the heat. Put the laptop into sleep mode. This would cool it down, but then he couldn’t finish his work.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

184
Q

Question 54:
Sahale helps maintain an on-site data center that serves every department in his organization. Members of the individual departments are able to provision storage space, servers, databases, and control how they are networked together (usually without bugging Sahale or anyone else in the data center). The departments even pay for these resources out of their own budgets. Which of the following options best describe the service Sahale operates? (Select two.)
Infrastructure as a service
Hybrid cloud
Private cloud
Community cloud
Platform as a service
Public cloud

A

Correct selectionInfrastructure as a serviceHybrid cloudCorrect selectionPrivate cloudCommunity cloudPlatform as a servicePublic cloudOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Sahale helps run a private IaaS service. Incorrect Answer: The cloud service isn’t available to users outside of the organization, so it cannot be a hybrid cloud, public, or private cloud resources. The service enables users to provision infrastructure building blocks, not a simplified platform or a software application.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

185
Q

Question 55:
The network connection in Shirley’s new office doesn’t work. What tool would enable a tech to find the specific network cable for Shirley’s office inside the wiring closet?
Cable tester
Wire puller
Multimeter
Toner probe

A

Cable testerWire pullerMultimeterCorrect answerToner probeOverall explanationCorrect: A Fox and Hound, or toner probe and tone generator, enables you to locate specific network cables. Incorrect: Neither a multimeter nor cable tester enable you to locate a specific cable. They are tools used for testing.A wire puller, or fish tape, enables cable installers to run new wires through conduits.DomainNetworking

186
Q

Question 56:
Which is not a cloud ownership model?
Hybrid
Public
Corporate
Private

A

HybridPublicCorrect answerCorporatePrivateOverall explanationCorrect Answer: There is no cloud ownership model known as a corporate cloud. Incorrect Answers: While most of the physical equipment that makes up the cloud is owned by corporations, cloud ownership models focus on who is able to use services provided by a given cloud. Public, private and hybrid are each cloud ownership models.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

187
Q

Question 57:
What kind of network connection can you make with a crossover cable? (Select two.)
Hub to hub (without uplink port)
PC NIC to a hub
Hub to modem
PC NIC to PC NIC

A

Correct selectionHub to hub (without uplink port)PC NIC to a hubHub to modemCorrect selectionPC NIC to PC NICOverall explanationCorrect Answers: Normal patch cables won’t work when connecting two PCs directly by their NICs. You can also use a crossover cable to connect two hubs that aren’t using an uplink port. Incorrect Answers: Crossover cables would not be used for connecting a PC NIC to a hub or a hub to a modem.DomainHardware

188
Q

Question 58:
Janice calls the tech support line and reports that she can’t hear any music from her computer. She says she was able to listen fine last week. Which of the following should you check? (Select two.)
Check that the sound card driver is installed correctly
Verify the PC has enough hard disk space
Ensure the SPDIF driver is up to date
Check to see if the speakers are muted
Check to see if the speakers are on the Hardware Compatiblity List

A

Correct selectionCheck that the sound card driver is installed correctlyVerify the PC has enough hard disk spaceEnsure the SPDIF driver is up to dateCorrect selectionCheck to see if the speakers are mutedCheck to see if the speakers are on the Hardware Compatiblity ListOverall explanationCorrect Answers: Check to see if she has muted the sound or the speakers. Also, check to see if the sound driver is installed correctly. Incorrect Answers: Speakers won’t be on any Hardware Compatibility List from Microsoft. The sound card might be, though. There really isn’t anything called a SPDIF driver. Not having enough hard drive space won’t effect the ability to play sound. It will, however, inhibit your ability to download music and videos that have sound.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

189
Q

Question 59:
What kind of cloud computing service model would you most likely use to provision 3 virtual servers of different capacities for different purposes?
DaaS
IaaS
SaaS
PaaS

A

DaaSCorrect answerIaaSSaaSPaaSOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) gives you granular control over the infrastructure (like servers) you create and the resources allocated to them. Incorrect Answer: While platform as a service (PaaS) providers do let you provision a number of servers, they generally don’t give you very granular control over the resources allocated to them. Software as a service (SaaS) and desktop as a service (DaaS) providers don’t typically enable you to provision servers.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

190
Q

Question 60:
Which of the following printers is most likely to have a cartridge alignment feature?
Monochrome LaserJet
Color Inkjet
Monochrome Inkjet
Color Thermal

A

Monochrome LaserJetCorrect answerColor InkjetMonochrome InkjetColor ThermalOverall explanationCorrect: Color inkjet. The individual cartridges in color inkjets can lose their alignment over time, causing fuzzy printouts. To readjust the printer, you need to print an alignment page. Incorrect: Inkjet printers are the only ones with cartridges that need to be aligned to work properly.DomainHardware

191
Q

Question 61:
In general, how should a person install a stick of RAM on a desktop?
Straight down into the slot
At a 45 degree angle
Through the ZIF socket
One side into the retaining clips, then the other

A

Correct answerStraight down into the slotAt a 45 degree angleThrough the ZIF socketOne side into the retaining clips, then the otherOverall explanationCorrect Answer: All current desktop RAM gets inserted straight down into the slot. You must apply even pressure along the entire stick. Incorrect Answers: Installing the RAM at a 45 degree angle might break or damage the stick of RAM. Installing the RAM from one end to the other might break or damage the stick of RAM. The ZIF socket is for CPUs, not RAM.DomainHardware

192
Q

Question 62:
When connecting a Bluetooth device to a mobile device, which of the following best describes the purpose of discovery mode?
Allows a peripheral to be contacted by the mobile device
Allows two Bluetooth devices to connect to each other without a mobile device
Instructs the phone to seek out all nearby devices and connect to them
Disconnects all devices and connects to the closest powered on device

A

Correct answerAllows a peripheral to be contacted by the mobile deviceAllows two Bluetooth devices to connect to each other without a mobile deviceInstructs the phone to seek out all nearby devices and connect to themDisconnects all devices and connects to the closest powered on deviceOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Discovery mode enables a mobile device to “discover” a bluetooth peripheral so they can connect. Incorrect Answers: Discovery mode doesn’t do any of the other things.DomainMobile Devices

193
Q

Question 63:
Which characteristic of cloud computing is best represented by the ability to start up additional servers in the cloud when a service is in high demand and releas them when demand is low?
High availability
Shared resources
Rapid elasticity
Metered utilization

A

High availabilityShared resourcesCorrect answerRapid elasticityMetered utilizationOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Rapid elasticity describes the ability to quickly provision and later release cloud resources based on what you need at the time. Incorrect Answer: While shared resources do play a role in how the cloud supports rapid elasticity, traditional hosting services used shared resources long before rapid elasticity entered the picture. Metered utilization describes the billing framework that supports rapid elasticity (by enabling the provider to bill you for exactly what you use), but you can have metered utilization without rapid elasticity. High availability describes how cloud providers enable a service to remain online when things go wrong–not how to quickly respond to shifts in demand.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

194
Q

Question 64:
Peter’s computer at the bakery keeps overheating. What should he do until he can install a better cooling system?
Install a faster CPU that won’t have to work as hard and thus would generate less heat.
Open the side of the case to allow more air flow.
Move the computer to a cooler room.
Change the temperature warning in CMOS.

A

Install a faster CPU that won’t have to work as hard and thus would generate less heat.Open the side of the case to allow more air flow.Correct answerMove the computer to a cooler room.Change the temperature warning in CMOS.Overall explanationCorrect: Get that computer out of the oven! Seriously though, simply move it into another room. Explain to Pete that a good heatsink and fan (active cooling) may help the overheating. Incorrect: Opening the side of the case would ruin the airflow of his system. Faster CPUs usually generate more heat than slower CPUs. If you change the temperature warning in CMOS, you are likely to have a much bigger problem that could result in letting the smoke out of the computer. DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

195
Q

Question 65:
John’s client needs to connect an external monitor to his laptop. Which connection types is the laptop most likely to have to accomplish this goal? (Select TWO).
HDMI
PS/2
Serial
VGA
RCA

A

Correct selectionHDMIPS/2SerialCorrect selectionVGARCAOverall explanationCorrect answers: Most laptops have a VGA port. Many new ones also have an HDMI port. Incorrect answers: PS/2 ports enable you to connect a keyboard or pointing device (like a mouse) to a computer. Serial ports are ancient and were used to connect mice. RCA jacks are for audio, not video.DomainMobile Devices

196
Q

Question 66:
Which of the following is the LAST step when troubleshooting an issue?
Verify system works.
Establish a theory of probable cause.
Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Identify the problem.

A

Verify system works.Establish a theory of probable cause.Correct answerDocument findings, actions, and outcomes.Identify the problem.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Document, document, document! The last thing you should ever do when working on a user’s equipment is to leave a paper trail. Incorrect Answers: Identify the problems is first. Establish a theory is second. Verify system functionality is fifth.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

197
Q

Question 67:
A technician is on-site fixing a keyboard problem. Apparently, the user can’t use Microsoft Word to type any documents. After a few questions with the user, the tech finds out that the user spilled soda on the keyboard. According to the troubleshooting theory, what should the technician do next?
Replace the keyboard with a new keyboard.
Document the repair.
Verify the system functionality.
Ask the user open-ended questions.

A

Correct answerReplace the keyboard with a new keyboard.Document the repair.Verify the system functionality.Ask the user open-ended questions.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Time to swap out the keyboard! Incorrect Answers: Looks like you’ve already done an excellent job asking open-ended questions. You found out about the soda spill. After you install that new keyboard, you’ll want to check to make sure that it fixed the problem by verifying functionality. The last step in the theory is to document the whole experience.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

198
Q

Question 68:
How often should you reapply thermal compound on your CPU?
Reapply every two years.
It’s a good idea to reapply thermal paste whenever you clean the inside of the system unit.
Reapply yearly.
Applying thermal paste is not a maintenance issue.

A

Reapply every two years.It’s a good idea to reapply thermal paste whenever you clean the inside of the system unit.Reapply yearly.Correct answerApplying thermal paste is not a maintenance issue.Overall explanationCorrect Answers: Applying thermal paste is not a maintenance issue is correct. Once it’s on, you don’t need to touch it again unless you remove the CPU fan. Incorrect Answers: All other answer are incorrect. You never reapply thermal paste as a maintenance issue. DomainHardware

199
Q

Question 69:
Jacy, one of only six employees at a small company, tells you that he’s in the process of moving an important database to the cloud because it will enable them to obtain high availability without a larger workforce. Which of the following best describes the cloud characteristic his company wants to take advantage of?
Using redundant services to ensure the database remains available even if one instance crashes or needs to go down for maintenance.
Using auto-scaling services to ensure the database always has a certain number of available connection slots.
Using multi-location cloud services to ensure the database is available in multiple countries.
Using cloud-scale services to increase the number of available database connections.

A

Correct answerUsing redundant services to ensure the database remains available even if one instance crashes or needs to go down for maintenance.Using auto-scaling services to ensure the database always has a certain number of available connection slots.Using multi-location cloud services to ensure the database is available in multiple countries.Using cloud-scale services to increase the number of available database connections.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: High availability refers to steps taken to ensure a service remains online despite common problems such as hardware or network failures. Incorrect Answer: Using cloud-scale and auto-scaling services are both incorrect. While ensuring there are enough connection slots is important for managing an important database, availability here refers to whether the database is online and working–not whether it is at capacity. With a few exceptions, multi-location services aren’t essential for making a databases usable from multiple countries (they just improve access times for users in those countries).DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

200
Q

Question 70:
Which of the following home computer synchronization methods are possible with an iOS device? (Select two.)
FireWire
Wi-Fi
Infrared
USB
Parallel

A

FireWireCorrect selectionWi-FiInfraredCorrect selectionUSBParallelOverall explanationCorrect Answer: iOS devices can sync using USB or W-Fi only. Incorrect Answer: No iOS device has ever used infrared for synchronization, and none have used FireWire for several years.DomainMobile Devices

201
Q

Question 71:
A client’s PC often gets an “Out of Disk Space” error. What can you do to address this problem? (Select two.)
Install a larger hard drive.
Delete unneeded files.
Add more RAM.
Increase the size of the virtual memory.

A

Correct selectionInstall a larger hard drive.Correct selectionDelete unneeded files.Add more RAM.Increase the size of the virtual memory.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: This is a hard drive storage problem. You must either add more hard drive space or clean up what you have. Incorrect Answers: More RAM will not help. A larger virtual memory will try to use more hard drive space, not make more space available.DomainHardware

202
Q

Question 72:
The technician on call has just finished working on a PC by creating a plan of action and implementing a solution. What is his next step according to the troubleshooting theory?
Formulate a theory.
Verify the system works.
Identify the problem.
Document the actions.

A

Formulate a theory.Correct answerVerify the system works.Identify the problem.Document the actions.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Right after you implement a solution, verify that your solution worked by checking that the system functions properly. Incorrect Answers: You have just implemented a solution, so you already identified the problem and formulated your theories. You’ll want to document everything right after you’ve verified that the system works.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

203
Q

Question 73:
Which of the following protocols could a technician use to connect a smartphone to an e-mail server? (Select Two.)
SNTP
HTTP
SMTP
POP3
ICMP

A

SNTPHTTPCorrect selectionSMTPCorrect selectionPOP3ICMPOverall explanationCorrect Answer: SMTP is for sending e-mail, and POP3 is for receiving it. This is just as true for smartphones as anything else. Incorrect Answers: HTTP is the protocol for transmitting Web pages. SNTP is used for online clock synchronization. ICMP is part of the TCP/IP suite and is generally used for transmitting error messages.DomainMobile Devices

204
Q

Question 74:
Which of the following best describes how virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) is used?
A type of virtual office network that makes it easy for dozens of remote workers to join the same network as if they were in a building with each other without having to set up and manage a powerful VPN server.
An arrangement where users perform most of their work by remotely connecting to a virtual machine hosted on one or more centralized servers.
A licensing arrangement that enables companies to pay a monthly or yearly fee to license the use of Windows and any applications their users need without having to permanently purchase the software.
File sharing and synchronization services that enable users to have access to the same files on each system they use.

A

A type of virtual office network that makes it easy for dozens of remote workers to join the same network as if they were in a building with each other without having to set up and manage a powerful VPN server.Correct answerAn arrangement where users perform most of their work by remotely connecting to a virtual machine hosted on one or more centralized servers.A licensing arrangement that enables companies to pay a monthly or yearly fee to license the use of Windows and any applications their users need without having to permanently purchase the software.File sharing and synchronization services that enable users to have access to the same files on each system they use.Overall explanationCorrect Answer:VDI involves replacing an organization’s user workstations with virtual machines that run on powerful centralized servers. Incorrect Answer: All of the other answers do describe practices that organizations may use to support a remote workforce–but they may not find them used in conjunction with VDI.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

205
Q

Question 75:
Which of the following components must be installed while a laptop is completely powered off?
PCMCIA device
Express card 54 device
SO-DIMM chip
USB expansion hub

A

PCMCIA deviceExpress card 54 deviceCorrect answerSO-DIMM chipUSB expansion hubOverall explanationCorrect Answer: To install SO-DIMM RAM chips into a laptop, you must turn the laptop off. Incorrect Answers: PCMCIA cards, Express cards, and USB hubs can all be installed while the laptop is running.DomainMobile Devices

206
Q

Question 76:
Which of these is an advantage that using virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in the cloud has over VDI on premises?
It is more secure.
It is easier to set up and maintain.
It will have better performance.
It is cheaper.

A

It is more secure.Correct answerIt is easier to set up and maintain.It will have better performance.It is cheaper.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Setting up VDI in the cloud won’t require in-house virtualization servers to host the VMs, and it won’t require ongoing maintenance of those servers and the software that supports them. Incorrect Answer: Cloud-based VDI may be easier for an attacker to compromise, will likely have higher long-term costs, and will likely be a little slower (at least for on-site users).DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

207
Q

Question 77:
Which of the following authentication protocols is unique to DSL?
PPP
VPN
PPPoE
WPA

A

PPPVPNCorrect answerPPPoEWPAOverall explanationCorrect: DSL connections use the PPPoE authentication protocol. Incorrect: Dial-up networking uses the PPP protocol. WPA is a wireless encryption standard. VPN uses authentication and encryption, but not PPPoE.DomainNetworking

208
Q

Question 78:
If a port on a network switch does not have anything plugged into it, what should the link lights on the port look like?
Steady flashing
Rapid, erratic flashing
No lights
Link Speed flashing

A

Steady flashingRapid, erratic flashingCorrect answerNo lightsLink Speed flashingOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Link lights either on a NIC or in a switch should never be lit when not connected. Incorrect Answers: If the lights were lit in any way without anything plugged in, that would indicate a defective port.DomainNetworking

209
Q

Question 79:
Janelle walks up to a computer and starts it up. After POST, she gets an “inaccessible boot drive” error. Which of the following would be the most obvious issue to initially consider?
The CMOS boot order is incorrect.
The computer’s hard drive has failed.
Someone cleared CMOS.
Someone left a flash drive in the computer.

A

The CMOS boot order is incorrect.The computer’s hard drive has failed.Someone cleared CMOS.Correct answerSomeone left a flash drive in the computer.Overall explanationCorrect: Someone left a flash drive in the computer. This is a classic example of “Keep It Simple.” There could be an argument for ANY of these answers, but CompTIA wants you to look for the easy answer first. People are notorious for leaving USB drives, and other removable media in computers. If the boot order looks for one of these drives, the computer will try to boot from it. Incorrect: Any of the incorrect answers are plausible, but the question asked what to check first. Remember keep your troubleshooting simple first.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

210
Q

Question 80:
What is likely to be reset during standard printer maintenance?
Job queue
Page count
Paper and tray settings
Print job cache

A

Job queuePage countCorrect answerPaper and tray settingsPrint job cacheOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Printer maintenance might have the effect of resetting the printer’s paper and tray settings. Incorrect Answers: None of the other answers are reset by standard printer maintenance.DomainHardware

211
Q

Question 81:
What is the function of the charging circuit on a laptop?
Charges the laser
Charges the CCFLs
Charges the AC inverter
Charges the battery

A

Charges the laserCharges the CCFLsCharges the AC inverterCorrect answerCharges the batteryOverall explanationCorrect: The charging circuit charges the battery. Incorrect: Neither the AC inverter or the CCFL require any special charging circuit. Actually, the inverter charges the CCFL. Typical laptops do have have a laser.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

212
Q

Question 82:
Anytime you hear either a scraping noise or a high-pitched squeal coming from your system, the first item to consider is:
Bad power supply
Bad fan
Bad DVD drive
Bad hard drive

A

Bad power supplyBad fanBad DVD driveCorrect answerBad hard driveOverall explanationCorrect: Bad hard drive is the best answer, if you have any non SSD hard drives. Anything that rotates inside your computer is capable of making these sounds. However, given the gravity of the situation if your hard drive fails, it is best practice to assume the hard drive first and take action to make a backup of critical data. Incorrect: Anything that rotates inside your computer is capable of making these sounds, so all the answers are possible. However the question asks first. Since you would not lose data from a DVD, fan, or power supply. It is best practice to assume the hard drive first.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

213
Q

Question 83:
Where is a laptop’s wireless antenna typically located?
Keyboard
Bottom bezel
Display bezel
Rear panel

A

KeyboardBottom bezelCorrect answerDisplay bezelRear panelOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Wireless antennas are typically installed in laptops’ screen bezels, since this results in the best possible reception. Performance and space optimization make the bezel the best location.Incorrect Answers: Putting the antenna anywhere else in a laptop would result in worse performance due to location. All the other answers could cause signal interference compared to the display bezel.DomainMobile Devices

214
Q

Question 84:
Where would you first go on a system to configure Wake on LAN (WOL)?
WOL jumper
CMOS Setup
Device Manager
Command Prompt

A

WOL jumperCorrect answerCMOS SetupDevice ManagerCommand PromptOverall explanationCorrect: Your first step is to enable WOL in CMOS, then go to Device Manager. Incorrect: Device Manager is incorrect, it is the second step.Command prompt is incorrect, there is nothing in command prompt to change you WOL.WOL jumper is incorrect. Motherboards do not use a jumper to enable or disable WOL.DomainHardware

215
Q

Question 85:
A tech gets a distress call from a user complaining about hearing a scraping sound in his computer. What could be the problem?
The power supply is not getting enough voltage.
The CPU is overheating.
The hard drive is failing.
The hard drive is reformatting.

A

The power supply is not getting enough voltage.The CPU is overheating.Correct answerThe hard drive is failing.The hard drive is reformatting.Overall explanationCorrect: The hard drive is failing. Hard drives tend to make various sounds when dying, such as scraping noises, high-pitched squeals, and clacking sounds. Incorrect: An overheating CPU will cause the computer to run more slowly or shut down. A power supply without the proper voltage will result in a “dead” PC. A hard drive that’s reformatting doesn’t make a distinctive sound.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

216
Q

Question 86:
A broken fan can cause __________ damage to the CPU.
Electro-static
Thermal
Shock
Radiation

A

Electro-staticCorrect answerThermalShockRadiationOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Thermal damage is simply a more technical way to say “overheating”. Incorrect Answers: A broken fan will not cause any electro-static, radiation, or shock damage to the CPU.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

217
Q

Question 87:
Dual Channel is a feature unique to:
Network connections
Video
Audio
RAM

A

Network connectionsVideoAudioCorrect answerRAMOverall explanationCorrect Answer: DDR/DDR2/DDR3 RAM can be used with special Dual Channel motherboards. Incorrect Answers: Audio, Network connections, and video would not have a Dual Channel feature.DomainHardware

218
Q

Question 88:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses which of the following TCP/IP Protocols and ports?
TCP with port 40, HTTP with port 80
TCP with port 20, UDP with port 21
TCP, with ports 20 and 21
UDP, with ports 20 and 21

A

TCP with port 40, HTTP with port 80TCP with port 20, UDP with port 21Correct answerTCP, with ports 20 and 21UDP, with ports 20 and 21Overall explanationCorrect Answer: FTP uses TCP by default, with ports 20 and 21. Incorrect Answers: UDP, with ports 20 and 21 is incorrect. FTP uses these ports, but with TCP.TCP with port 20, UDP with port 21 is incorrect. FTPuses these ports, but only uses TCP.TCP with port 40, HTTP with port 80. Port 40 does not have a common use assigned by IANA. Port 80 is commonly used for HTTP.DomainNetworking

219
Q

Question 89:
A computer with an IP address of 143.75.125.1 most likely has a subnet mask that looks like which of the following?
255.255.255.0
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
0.0.0.0

A

255.255.255.0255.0.0.0Correct answer255.255.0.00.0.0.0Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Any IP address with a starting number from 128 through 191 is almost certainly the old Class B which always has a subnet range of 255.255.0.0. Incorrect Answers: 255.0.0.0 is a Class A subnet. 255.255.255.0 is a Class C subnet. 0.0.0.0 is a invalid address. Note: 0.0.0.0 is a totally valid address for routers. It’s called a default route. Don’t worry about that term for now, but I bet you can’t wait for Network+!DomainNetworking

220
Q

Question 90:
Which of the following is a unique problem of satellite broadband connections?
Latency
RF interference
Impedance
ESD

A

Correct answerLatencyRF interferenceImpedanceESDOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Latency is a unique issue to satellite broadband due to the amount of time it takes the signal to come from the satellite to your antenna. Incorrect Answers: ESD refers to electrostatic charge transfer which is not an issue unique to satellite broadband connections.Impedance is a measure of opposition to electrical flow which is not an issue unique to satellite broadband connections.RF interference is unwanted signals or electrial energy that affects radio waves. This is not an issue unique to satellite broadband connections.DomainNetworking

221
Q

Question 1:
What is the maximum number of characters in an FQDN?
255 (not including dots)
128 (including dots)
255 (including dots)
128 (not including dots)

A

255 (not including dots)128 (including dots)Correct answer255 (including dots)128 (not including dots)Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Fully-qualified domain names can have up to 255 characters, including dots. Incorrect Answers: 128 (including dots), 128 (not including dots), and 255 (not including dots) are all incorrect.DomainNetworking

222
Q

Question 2:
As you’re helping a user configure her e-mail over the phone, she remarks that the IP address is different than it was when she checked last week. This surprises her, since she didn’t make any changes to her TCP/IP configuration. The user has had no problems running her web browser. You immediately know that:
Her default gateway is dynamic.
Her IP address is static.
She is running Internet Explorer.
Her computer is a DHCP client.

A

Her default gateway is dynamic.Her IP address is static.She is running Internet Explorer.Correct answerHer computer is a DHCP client.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Only DHCP clients can change IP addresses dynamically. Incorrect Answers: If her IP address changed, then it is not static. The default gateway is not the issue if there is no problem browsing the Internet. Internet Explorer has no connection to the TCP/IP configuration.DomainNetworking

223
Q

Question 3:
A user who returns from vacation complains that his battery is draining quickly since his vacation. During the vacation he installed a new app that uses the GPS function on his mobile device. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue without a loss of data?
See if the app has an update available.
Adjust location settings.
Reboot the mobile device.
Uninstall the GPS-enabled app.

A

See if the app has an update available.Correct answerAdjust location settings.Reboot the mobile device.Uninstall the GPS-enabled app.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Adjust the local settings. Some GPS apps use location reporting or location history. These items can be turned off without causing a loss of data, and will help maximize your battery life. Incorrect Answers: Rebooting the mobile device will not turn off the setting that is causing the drain. An app update will not turn off the setting that is causing the drain. Uninstalling the GPS enabled app will stop the drain, but it could cause a loss of data.DomainMobile Devices

224
Q

Question 4:
A newly assembled PC is giving beep codes at boot, but you don’t recognize the code. Which of the following would be the best places to look first. (Select two.)
Video Card
RAM
Hard Drive
CPU

A

Correct selectionVideo CardCorrect selectionRAMHard DriveCPUOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Almost all POST beeps on modern PCs point to either the video card or RAM. Incorrect Answers: Without a working CPU, you won’t even get POST errors. There are no beep codes for hard drives.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

225
Q

Question 5:
A technician is re configuring a mobile e-mail client for offline mode. Which of the following describes the expected time it will take to synchronize the account with the e-mail server?
It will depend on the time when the account was last synchronized
It will depend on the SMTP settings of the e-mail server
It will depend on the IMAP settings of the e-mail server
It will depend on the POP settings of the e-mail server

A

Correct answerIt will depend on the time when the account was last synchronizedIt will depend on the SMTP settings of the e-mail serverIt will depend on the IMAP settings of the e-mail serverIt will depend on the POP settings of the e-mail serverOverall explanationCorrect Answer: If it’s been a while since the last sync, it will take longer to download the increased amount of e-mail. Incorrect Answers: The other answers will not affect the sync time for e-mail. SMTP, IMAP, and POPare protocol types used for sending and receiving email. DomainMobile Devices

226
Q

Question 6:
The images output from your new color laser printer seem to be a little too blue. What can you do to fix this?
Clean the printhead.
Calibrate the printer.
Clean the primary corona.
Make sure all color toners are in the correct position in the printer.

A

Clean the printhead.Correct answerCalibrate the printer.Clean the primary corona.Make sure all color toners are in the correct position in the printer.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Color calibration is an important step to getting your printer to generate accurate color. Incorrect Answers: Make sure all color toners are in the correct position in the printer is incorrect. Manufacturers design the cartridges so they only fit in the proper position.Cleaning the primary corona would not help. It charges the photosensitive drum to create the image.Clean the print head is incorrect. Print heads are found in non laser printing technologies.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

227
Q

Question 7:
In laser printer technology, what occurs during the writing stage of the image formation?
An alternating charge is applied to drum.
A uniform negative charge is applied to the drum.
The print image is written to the drum.
The print image is transferred to the paper.

A

An alternating charge is applied to drum.A uniform negative charge is applied to the drum.Correct answerThe print image is written to the drum.The print image is transferred to the paper.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: The laser strikes the drum in the areas that are to be printed, giving those areas a less negative charge. This makes these areas relatively positive, so that they attract the toner. Incorrect Answers: The alternating charge answer is nonsense. A uniform negative charge is applied by the primary corona, but not during the writing stage. The image is transferred to the paper in the transfer stage.DomainHardware

228
Q

Question 8:
A laptop is setup at a podium for a presentation. The presentation that is projecting extends the laptop’s desktop to the projection screen. The presenter would like it to show exactly what the laptop screen is showing. Which of the following would be the QUICKEST way to accomplish this?
Adjust the display setting in control panel.
Use the dual display function key to switch how the laptop treats the display,
Adjust the screen orientation
Reboot the laptop

A

Adjust the display setting in control panel.Correct answerUse the dual display function key to switch how the laptop treats the display,Adjust the screen orientationReboot the laptopOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Most manufacturers provide quick use function keys that can be used from the keyboard. Incorrect Answers: Although you can use applets in the Control Panel to adjust between the dual display functions, the quickest way is to use the shortcut keys that are set up on they keyboard. The screen orientation will only change portrait or landscape. Rebooting the laptop will not change the way the laptop uses the multi-screen environment.DomainMobile Devices

229
Q

Question 9:
Harry thinks his AC adapter may not be charging the battery properly. What is the very first item he should check?
Whether the battery is good.
Check the power outlet.
If the charging port is broken.
Whether the AC adapter’s LED is on.

A

Whether the battery is good.Check the power outlet.If the charging port is broken.Correct answerWhether the AC adapter’s LED is on.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: The first thing to check to verify that an AC adapter is working is the LED on the adapter itself. Often problems occur with connectivity of cables or components that are used heavily. The ACadapter is used heavily and undergoes a lot of wear and tear.Incorrect Answers: Although the other options are all good troubleshooting options, always check the easiest solution first. The other options should follow if the adapter light is lit.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

230
Q

Question 10:
Which of the following form factors dominates the PC industry?
AT
CTX
BTX
ATX

A

ATCTXBTXCorrect answerATXOverall explanationCorrect: ATX is by far the dominant form factor. Incorrect: AT was ATX’s predecessor. BTX was an alternate form factor developed to enable better cooling, but it never caught on. CTX is not an actual form factor.DomainHardware

231
Q

Question 11:
What type of service is DHCP?
Remote access
E-mail
Addressing
Name resolution

A

Remote accessE-mailCorrect answerAddressingName resolutionOverall explanationCorrect Answer: DHCP is the service that enables a centralized server to distribute IP addresses for a network. Incorrect Answers: Name resolution is a process of associating a name and IPaddressRemote access and email are services that utilize internet.DomainNetworking

232
Q

Question 12:
Which of the following URLs would indicate a secured HTTP server?
HTTPS://WWW.WHEEBO.COM
HTTPSSL://WWW.WHEEBO.COM
HTTP://SECURE/WWW.WHEEBO.COM
HTTP://WWW.WHEEBO.COM -S

A

Correct answerHTTPS://WWW.WHEEBO.COMHTTPSSL://WWW.WHEEBO.COMHTTP://SECURE/WWW.WHEEBO.COMHTTP://WWW.WHEEBO.COM -SOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Web sites using SSL use “HTTPS://” instead of just “HTTP://” to show that they are secured. Incorrect Answers: HTTPSSL is not a protocol. HTTP://WWW.WHEEBO.COM -S won’t work because of the “-S”. HTTP://SECURE/WWW.WHEEBO.COM is just a messed up URL.DomainNetworking

233
Q

Question 13:
Which of the following cables is NOT used for networking computers?
Plenum UTP cable
USB cable
STP cable
UTP cable

A

Plenum UTP cableCorrect answerUSB cableSTP cableUTP cableOverall explanationCorrect Answer: USB cables are not used to network computers together. They are used to connect a computer to a peripheral such as a mouse or keyboard. Note: There are USB cables that exist in the world that have a small electronic circuit box in the middle of the cable that will allow you to connect two computers together. But that is a super special instance and the answer that I listed in the choices didn’t say anything about it being that type of cable. Incorrect Answers: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) and Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) are the some of the most common ways of connecting computers together in a network. Plenum UTP cable is a type of network cabling that is suitable for being installed in air ducts or plenums.DomainHardware

234
Q

Question 14:
Lois is working on a user’s Bluetooth headset. She’s tried a number of fixes, none of which worked. What is the best choice for her to do next?
Return the defective device.
Call her supervisor.
Research the problem on the Internet.
Inform the user of her inability to fix the issue and document.

A

Return the defective device.Call her supervisor.Correct answerResearch the problem on the Internet.Inform the user of her inability to fix the issue and document.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: When a problem gets challenging, a tech should research the problem. Quite often there are other people who have had the same issue.Incorrect Answers: The other answers are all possible solutions, however it is the tech’s job to put out a reasonable effort to solve the problem. The internet provides manufacture’s troubleshooting solutions, as well as there are tech discussions online that could help with the issue. The other options can be utilized once Lois exhausted reasonable resources.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

235
Q

Question 15:
A user on your network complains that his mouse is acting erratically. The pointer moves in the direction the user points, but it jumps and skips. What is the most probable cause? (Select two.)
The connection is loose or the mouse is dirty.
Static electricity.
Over use of mouse buttons.
The wrong mouse drivers are installed.

A

Correct selectionThe connection is loose or the mouse is dirty.Static electricity.Over use of mouse buttons.Correct selectionThe wrong mouse drivers are installed.Overall explanationCorrect Answers: The connection is loose or the mouse is dirty. Dirty mice are notorious for the jumping effect caused by dirt and dust wrapped around their rollers. The connection is loose or the mouse is dirty. A loose connection or the wrong mouse drivers can also cause the mouse to act erratically. Incorrect Answers: Overuse of mouse buttons does not cause jumping and skipping.Static electricity in incorrect. Static is not a known symptom of a jumpy mouse.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

236
Q

Question 16:
Which is the best tool to identify a specific cable within a bundle of cables?
Fox and Hound
Punch down tool
TDR
Continuity tester

A

Correct answerFox and HoundPunch down toolTDRContinuity testerOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A tone probe and tone generator, also called a Fox and Hound, can easily identify a specific cable within a bundle. Incorrect Answers: Neither a TDR nor a continuity tester can identify a specific cable in a bundle. A punch down tool is not a diagnostic tool.DomainHardware

237
Q

Question 17:
Wireless network hardware that complies with IEEE 802.11g operates in the ______ frequency range.
2.4 GHz
5 GHz
11 Mbps
54 Mbps

A

Correct answer2.4 GHz5 GHz11 Mbps54 MbpsOverall explanationCorrect Answer: IEEE 802.11g runs in the 2.4-GHz range and has a top data transfer speed of 54 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: 5 GHz is used by 802.11a and 802.11n. 54 Mbps and 11 Mbps are data transfer speeds.DomainNetworking

238
Q

Question 18:
Which of the following technology converts light into digital information?
Webcam
Inverter
Microphone
Digitizer

A

Correct answerWebcamInverterMicrophoneDigitizerOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The webcam converts light into digital information. Incorrect Answers: Microphones convert waves to digital information. Digitizers convert analog information to digital information. An inverter converts electrical current.DomainMobile Devices

239
Q

Question 19:
Which subnet mask is used with a Class B address?
255.255.255.255
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.0.0.0

A

255.255.255.255Correct answer255.255.0.0255.255.255.0255.0.0.0Overall explanationCorrect: A Class B subnet mask is 255.255.0.0. Incorrect: 255.0.0.0 is a Class A subnet mask. 255.255.255.0 is a Class C subnet mask. 255.255.255.255 is the last Class E address.DomainNetworking

240
Q

Question 20:
Which is not a wireless radio technology found in computers, tablets or phones?
NFC
RFID
Bluetooth
Infrared

A

NFCRFIDBluetoothCorrect answerInfraredOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Infrared is a rarely-used wireless technology that communicates with infrared light, not radio waves. Incorrect Answers: Bluetooth, RFID and NFC are all wireless radio technologies.DomainNetworking

241
Q

Question 21:
Which interface supports DRM?
DVI-I
DVI-D
HDMI
VGA

A

DVI-IDVI-DCorrect answerHDMIVGAOverall explanationCorrect Answer: HDMI supports DRM. Incorrect Answers: DVI-D, VGA, and DVI-I do not support DRM.DomainHardware

242
Q

Question 22:
Which of the following utilities is used with iOS devices to synchronize, upgrade, and restore a device to factory defaults if needed?
iMac
iTunes
Bluetooth
Safari

A

iMacCorrect answeriTunesBluetoothSafariOverall explanationCorrect Answer: iTunes is the utility for synchronizing Apple mobile devices. Incorrect Answers: An iMac is an Apple desktop computer. Safari is Apple’s Web browser. Bluetooth is a type of short-range wireless technology.DomainMobile Devices

243
Q

Question 23:
Your building has a power failure while you’re in the middle of printing several print jobs on a networked printer. When the power comes back on, you can’t get anything to print from the printer. What should you do?
Try printing from a different PC on the same network.
Delete all of the print jobs from the buffer and stop and restart the print spooler.
Press the Reload button on the printer.
Try the Print command several times in your software program.

A

Try printing from a different PC on the same network.Correct answerDelete all of the print jobs from the buffer and stop and restart the print spooler.Press the Reload button on the printer.Try the Print command several times in your software program.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: To clear the printer and begin printing again, you need to clear the buffer by deleting the existing print jobs, and then stop and restart the print spooler. Incorrect Answers: There is no such thing as a Reload buttonRe-trying the Print command will only add to the buffer problem. The problem is with the printer, so trying another PC won’t help.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

244
Q

Question 24:
A Windows system is unable to connect to the network. A ping loopback test verifies that the network card is working. What is your next best step in troubleshooting the problem?
Verify that the switch is working properly.
Install the driver for the network card.
Check to see if the link light on the NIC is on.
Run IPCONFIG.

A

Verify that the switch is working properly.Install the driver for the network card.Correct answerCheck to see if the link light on the NIC is on.Run IPCONFIG.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: The next step is to check for connectivity. Look at the link light on the NIC to see that it is on, indicating a good connection to the hub or switch. Incorrect Answers: The other options might be helpful, but they are not your next best step to troubleshoot.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

245
Q

Question 25:
A virtual machine is a _______ OS running within a ________ OS.
hypervisor, host
guest, host
guest, hypervisor
host, guest

A

hypervisor, hostCorrect answerguest, hostguest, hypervisorhost, guestOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A VM is a guest operating system that runs within a host operating system. Incorrect Answers: All other answers are incorrect. The hypervisor manages the guest OS and the interface between the guest OS and the shared physical hardware of the host OS.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

246
Q

Question 26:
What is the correct URL for a secured Internet site called TotalTest.com?
https://totaltest.com
http://TotalTest.com
ftp://totaltest.com
httpsec://TotalTest.com

A

Correct answerhttps://totaltest.comhttp://TotalTest.comftp://totaltest.comhttpsec://TotalTest.comOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The correct URL is https://totaltest.com. Web addresses are not case-sensitive, so TotalTest is the same as totaltest. Incorrect Answers: ftp://totaltest.com FTP is the file transfer protocol, used to transfer files from one computer to another over the Internet. Http://TotalTest.com. This would be correct if the site was not secured. Httpsec://TotalTest.com. This is made up and incorrect.DomainNetworking

247
Q

Question 27:
What’s the highest capacity that you can expect from a single-sided dual-layer DVD-R disc?
700 MB
4.7 GB
250 MB
8.5 GB

A

700 MB4.7 GB250 MBCorrect answer8.5 GBOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A single-sided, dual-layer DVD-RW disc can hold up to 8.5 GB of data. Incorrect Answers: A single-sided, single-layer DVD-RW disc can hold 4.7 GB of data. A CD-RW can hold up to 700 MB. 250 MB is the largest size of Iomega Zip disk that was created. Fun fact: If you know what a Zip disk is, you are old, congrats!DomainHardware

248
Q

Question 28:
A user wishes to access her contacts from their Android phone. Which of the following methods will provide the MOST up-to-date contact information on the user’s phone on a daily basis?
Download all her contacts in a .csv file and import them into the phone via a USB laptop connection.
Enable e-mail synchronization and e-mail the contacts to the user account for download.
Enable contact synchronization by setting up her e-mail account on the phone.
Enable Bluetooth and transfer the contacts from her laptop to the cell phone.

A

Download all her contacts in a .csv file and import them into the phone via a USB laptop connection.Enable e-mail synchronization and e-mail the contacts to the user account for download.Correct answerEnable contact synchronization by setting up her e-mail account on the phone.Enable Bluetooth and transfer the contacts from her laptop to the cell phone.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Enable contact synchronization by setting up her e-mail account on the phone. - Synchronization keeps a user’s e-mail contacts updated constantly. Incorrect Answers: Download all her contacts in a .csv file and import them into the phone via a USB laptop connection is incorrect. Modern systems do not require a manual procedure.Enable Bluetooth and transfer the contacts from her laptop to the cell phone is incorrect. You cannot easily transfer the contacts without a software interface.Enable e-mail synchronization and e-mail the contacts to the user account for download is incorrect. Modern systems do not require a manual procedure.DomainMobile Devices

249
Q

Question 29:
Tammy’s inkjet printer isn’t printing one of the colors. She should first try:
Running the maintenance program to clear the clogged jet.
Soaking the cartridge in naphtha overnight.
Installing a new maintenance kit.
Replacing the clogged cartridge.

A

Correct answerRunning the maintenance program to clear the clogged jet.Soaking the cartridge in naphtha overnight.Installing a new maintenance kit.Replacing the clogged cartridge.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: One should always try using the maintenance software first for any problem on an inkjet printer. Incorrect Answers: Maintenance kits are for laser printers. Replacing the cartridge would come after attempting to clear it with the maintenance program. Soaking the cartridge will not fix the issue.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

250
Q

Question 30:
Which is not a good uses of a virtual machine?
Practice administering different operating systems.
Configure virtual networking.
Install 3D games.
Experiment with multiple drives without purchasing hardware.

A

Practice administering different operating systems.Configure virtual networking.Correct answerInstall 3D games.Experiment with multiple drives without purchasing hardware.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: While many VMs support 3D technology, resource sharing with the host OS and other VMs limits a guest’s 3D performance. Incorrect Answer: VMs are a great way to practice administering different operating systems, configure and experiment with virtual networking, and experiment with multiple drives by using virtual disks instead of purchasing more physical hard drives.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

251
Q

Question 31:
Quincy’s laser printer keeps giving “Out of memory” errors. He needs very high quality prints. What should he do?
Print in black and white
Reduce the resolution
Add more memory
Increase the size of the printer’s page file.

A

Print in black and whiteReduce the resolutionCorrect answerAdd more memoryIncrease the size of the printer’s page file.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Adding more printer memory will quickly fix this problem. Incorrect Answers: Reducing the resolution or printing in black and white might solve the memory issue, but would compromise the print quality. Printers don’t have page files.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

252
Q

Question 32:
Tom walks into the accounting department and walks into a mess! User A can’t access the Internet, User B has forgotten her password, User C’s system is overheating to the point of smoking and the administrator is worried there might be a virus on all the systems. Whose system should he address first?
User C
Administrator
User B
User A

A

Correct answerUser CAdministratorUser BUser AOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Users C’s system is about to start on fire! Everything else can wait! Incorrect Answers: The other problems are not as important as a problem that can cause physical damage to people or property.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

253
Q

Question 33:
Which of the following explains why a tablets boot more quickly than most laptops?
A tablet has a smaller circuit board than a laptop.
A tablet requires less power to operate than a laptop.
A SATA drive loads data much faster than an IDE drive.
A SSD drive loads data much faster than a SATA drive.

A

A tablet has a smaller circuit board than a laptop.A tablet requires less power to operate than a laptop.A SATA drive loads data much faster than an IDE drive.Correct answerA SSD drive loads data much faster than a SATA drive.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: A SSD drive loads data much faster than a SATA drive is the best choice of the answer. All tablets use SSDs for mass storage instead of platter-based hard drives, they load the OS much more quickly. Incorrect Answers: A tablet requires less power to operate than a laptop is incorrect. Booting is a function of your hardware and the software that starts upon boot.A tablet has a smaller circuit board than a laptop is incorrect. Booting is a function of your hardware and the software that starts upon boot.A SATA drive loads data much faster than an IDE drive, however it is not the best answer as tablets us SSD drives.DomainMobile Devices

254
Q

Question 34:
A virtual machine running locally would be best utilized in which of the following situation?
Thick client configuration
On a PC with minimal RAM
Patch testing before rollout
Gaming workstation configuration

A

Thick client configurationOn a PC with minimal RAMCorrect answerPatch testing before rolloutGaming workstation configurationOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Virtual machines can be used to test OS or software patches before rolling them out company-wide. That way, if the patches introduce any problems, there’s no harm done. Incorrect Answers: You need as much RAM as you can get in a virtualization workstation. Thick client configuration is incorrect, it is type of client-server architecture. Virtual machines aren’t used to configure other computers.Virtual machines are not used for gaming workstations mainly due to resource allocation and performance.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

255
Q

Question 35:
What is the maximum rate that USB 3.0?
5 Gbps
1.5 Mbps
1.5 Gbps
480 Mbps

A

Correct answer5 Gbps1.5 Mbps1.5 Gbps480 MbpsOverall explanationCorrect Answer: USB 3.0 supports up to 5 Gbps (gigabits per second).Incorrect Answers: 1.5 Mbps is the speed supported by USB1.0.1.5 Gbps is not maximum speed for any USB standard480 Mbps is the speed supported by USB2.0DomainHardware

256
Q

Question 36:
The person responsible for maintaining the company’s laser printer is out of the office. You are told to service the laser printer. Which part of the printer should you avoid touching and why?
Laser. The beam is very hot to the touch.
Toner. The toner gets to a boiling point.
Fuser. One of its two rollers is a heated roller.
Paper tray. Smudge prints cause paper jams.

A

Laser. The beam is very hot to the touch.Toner. The toner gets to a boiling point.Correct answerFuser. One of its two rollers is a heated roller.Paper tray. Smudge prints cause paper jams.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Fuser. One of its two rollers is a heated roller. The fuser is the only component that is hot to the touch. Incorrect Answers: Laser. While the beam is very hot to the touch, you can’t access it. And even if you could, it is not powerful enough to hurt you. Toner. The toner gets to a boiling point. The toner can be messy, but also will not hurt you. Paper tray. Smudge prints cause paper jams. The paper tray is completely safe to touch.DomainHardware

257
Q

Question 37:
One of the downsides to upgrading to a more powerful video card is that you may also have to upgrade the _______.
RAM
CPU
Operating System
Power supply

A

RAMCPUOperating SystemCorrect answerPower supplyOverall explanationCorrect: Power supply. Higher-end video cards require more watts and also often need a six-pin PCIe video power connector. Incorrect: Your new video card might tempt you into buying applications or games that in and of themselves will require more RAM or a more powerful CPU, but the graphics card itself won’t require that. An argument could be made for needing to upgrade the OS. For example, you can’t run DirectX 10 on a Windows XP system. However, CompTIA isn’t looking for complex answers.DomainHardware

258
Q

Question 38:
Which of the following displays would provide the BEST range of visible colors?
Plasma
OLED
CRT
LCD

A

PlasmaCorrect answerOLEDCRTLCDOverall explanationCorrect Answer: OLEDs are able to use LEDs that generate both light and color when supplied a current. This gives the display better perfomance, and a smaller size. Incorrect Answers: Cathode ray tube (CRT) is an older technology. Although modern, plasma screens have a smaller color gamut than OLED. LCD screen technology is also modern, however, since LCDs leak light, they do not provide as good a contrast ratio.DomainMobile Devices

259
Q

Question 39:
A techinician is needs to replace a touch screen on a laptop that supports Windows 8.1. Which of the following is the FIRST step the technician should perform?
Removal the laptop bezel.
Recalibrating the LCD screen.
Refer to the manufacturer’s documentation.
Document and label each component upon removal.

A

Removal the laptop bezel.Recalibrating the LCD screen.Correct answerRefer to the manufacturer’s documentation.Document and label each component upon removal.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Laptop manufacturers all have different procedures for screen removal. It is always best to review the documentation from the manufacturer to ensure you don’t have any problems with the repair. Incorrect Answers: Removal will be necessary, but first you must know how to remove the bezel properly. Documentation and labeling is good, but first you must know how to remove the bezel properly. The LCD will not need any tuning until it is installed.DomainMobile Devices

260
Q

Question 40:
Sam sent a print job to the printer, can see it is the only one in the queue, but it is not printing. What can be done to try to get it to print?
Open the Print Spooler icon in the system tray, select the print job, and click Restart.
Open the Print Spooler icon in the Control Panel, select the print job, and click the Restart button.
Disable the printer.
Open the Print Spooler icon in the system tray, select the print job, and click Delete.
Shut off the printer.

A

Correct answerOpen the Print Spooler icon in the system tray, select the print job, and click Restart.Open the Print Spooler icon in the Control Panel, select the print job, and click the Restart button.Disable the printer.Open the Print Spooler icon in the system tray, select the print job, and click Delete.Shut off the printer.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: The Print Spooler shows up in the System Tray for all actively printing jobs. Open it and restart the print job. Incorrect Answer: There is no delete option available from the Print Spooler. Shutting off/disabling the printer would not help print. There is no Print Spooler icon in the Control Panel.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

261
Q

Question 41:
A user has a new web email account and asks a technician for help with setting up email on a tablet. The user would like for the email to only be stored on this tablet. Which of the following email server setting types would the technician use to accomplish this task?
POP3
S/MIME
IMAP
SMTP

A

Correct answerPOP3S/MIMEIMAPSMTPOverall explanationCorrect Answer: POP3 is correct. POP3 protocol was designed to download your email to a inbox on your local system, so email are available when you are not connected to the internet. Incorrect Answers: IMAP protocol was designed to leave your email on a message server, so they can be accessed from multiple locations, until deleted by the user. S/MIME is a standard for public key encryption. SMTP is the protocol used for sending email.DomainMobile Devices

262
Q

Question 42:
Which is not a type of network cable?
Plenum
STP
Coaxial
UTP

A

Correct answerPlenumSTPCoaxialUTPOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Plenum describes any type of cable with a fire-resistant jacket. Incorrect Answers: Coax, unshielded twisted pair (UTP) and shielded twisted pair (STP) are all types of network cable.DomainHardware

263
Q

Question 43:
Which of the following UTP cables can be used as a 1000BaseT cable?
CAT 5e
CAT 5
CAT 1
CAT 3

A

Correct answerCAT 5eCAT 5CAT 1CAT 3Overall explanationCorrect Answer: CAT 5e is the only cable listed that can handle 1000-Mbps data transfer rates. CAT 6 is preferable. Incorrect Answers: CAT 1 is a standard phone line. CAT 3 can handle up to 10 Mbps on Ethernet networks. CAT 5 can handle up to 100 Mbps. Note: Once upon a time there was a network access method called Token Ring. It was a competitor to Ethernet technology back in the 90’s. Token Ring used CAT 3 and could achieve transfer speeds up to 16 Mbps.DomainHardware

264
Q

Question 44:
Which is not a wireless technology used in IoT?
Z-wave
802.11
Zigbee
Ethernet

A

Z-wave802.11ZigbeeCorrect answerEthernetOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Ethernet is not wireless (and most IoT devices don’t have an Ethernet port). Incorrect Answers: 802.11/Wi-Fi, Zigbee, and Z-wave are all common wireless IoT connection schemes.DomainNetworking

265
Q

Question 45:
A power supply +12 VDC output has dropped to +11.5 VDC. What should you do?
Do nothing, as the slight drop is acceptable.
Replace the power supply with a higher wattage unit.
Check the capacitors.
Replace the power supply with a lower wattage unit.

A

Correct answerDo nothing, as the slight drop is acceptable.Replace the power supply with a higher wattage unit.Check the capacitors.Replace the power supply with a lower wattage unit.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Do nothing, as the slight drop is acceptable. Most power supplies will still operate acceptably down to around +/-11 VDC. Incorrect Answers: Replacing the power supply with a lower wattage unit might cause other issues, especially if the system needs more wattage than it provides. Replacing the power supply with a higher wattage unit wouldn’t hurt, but it’s not necessary, either. Checking the capacitors is not a valid troubleshooting method.DomainHardware

266
Q

Question 46:
If virtually all desktop computers’ power supplies come with a fan that blows air out of the system unit, why would someone add a fan to the front or side of the system unit?
To blow more cool air over other components
You have no choice, front fans are required for all ATX12V equipment.
To keep the air already inside the case cooler
To blow hot air out of the front of the system

A

Correct answerTo blow more cool air over other componentsYou have no choice, front fans are required for all ATX12V equipment.To keep the air already inside the case coolerTo blow hot air out of the front of the systemOverall explanationCorrect: To blow more cool air over other components (like the video cards, hard drives, and motherboard). Incorrect: You want to blow air to complement the direction of the other fans. In this case, the power supply is blowing air out of the case, so the front fan needs to blow into the system unit. You do not want to try to cool the air already in the case - you need fresh, cool air. There is no standard under ATX12V that requires a front fan.DomainHardware

267
Q

Question 47:
A crossover cable would normally be used in a 100BaseT network to connect __________.
a computer directly to another computer
a client to a hub
a client through a switch to a server.
a client through a switch to a client.

A

Correct answera computer directly to another computera client to a huba client through a switch to a server.a client through a switch to a client.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: You would need a crossover cable if you were creating a direct connection between two computers. Incorrect Answers: You would not use a crossover cable if you were using a switch or hub.DomainHardware

268
Q

Question 48:
Harriet’s printer wasn’t working properly, but you’ve fixed it. She’s got two jobs waiting in the print spool. What two choices are viable options for you in response to her request to have the jobs printed? (Select two.)
Right-click on each print job and select Resume printing.
Do nothing, the print jobs will probably start on their own.
Right-click on each print job and select Start printing.
Stalled print jobs cannot be restarted.

A

Correct selectionRight-click on each print job and select Resume printing.Correct selectionDo nothing, the print jobs will probably start on their own.Right-click on each print job and select Start printing.Stalled print jobs cannot be restarted.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Most print jobs will restart on their own, but you may also press Resume printing on each print job if they do not. Incorrect Answers: Right-click on each print job and select Start printing is incorrect. Start printing is not a valid selection.Stalled print jobs cannot be restarted is incorrect. Many times they can be restarted.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

269
Q

Question 49:
Which hexadecimal value is equal to 1100 in binary?
A
D
C
B

A

ADCorrect answerCBOverall explanationCorrect Answer: 1100 in binary is C in hex. Incorrect Answers: 1011 in binary is B in hex. 1010 in binary is A in hex. 1101 in binary is D in hex.DomainNetworking

270
Q

Question 50:
Someone has placed a CMOS password on a computer and has forgotten the password. What should you do?
Go into CMOS and delete the password.
Clear the CMOS password by removing the shunt from the clear CMOS jumper for a few seconds.
Boot to a floppy and FDISK the drive.
Reboot the PC, holding down the CTRL key.

A

Go into CMOS and delete the password.Correct answerClear the CMOS password by removing the shunt from the clear CMOS jumper for a few seconds.Boot to a floppy and FDISK the drive.Reboot the PC, holding down the CTRL key.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Most motherboards have a labeled Security or Password jumper. Removing or moving the shunt for a few seconds clears any CMOS passwords. Incorrect Answers: You will not be able to enter CMOS if you don’t have the password.Holding down the CTRL key while booting won’t clear the CMOS password. You won’t be able to boot to anything if you can’t get past CMOS.DomainHardware

271
Q

Question 51:
What protocol does the largest network in the world use?
AppleTalk
HTTP
IPX/SPX
TCP/IP

A

AppleTalkHTTPIPX/SPXCorrect answerTCP/IPOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The world’s largest network, the Internet, uses TCP/IP. Incorrect Answers: AppleTalk is a proprietary set of protocols developed by Apple for networking computers. This protocol is no longer used. TCP/IP is most popularly implemented via HTTP, but they are not the same. IPX/SPX are protocols for Novell’s NetWare network operating system. This protocol is no longer used.DomainNetworking

272
Q

Question 52:
A laser printer keeps getting a MEM OVERFLOW error. Which of the following would most likely fix the problem while still maintaining quality?
Add more RAM to the printer.
Reduce the RET.
Reduce the print resolution.
Replace the printer’s RAM.

A

Correct answerAdd more RAM to the printer.Reduce the RET.Reduce the print resolution.Replace the printer’s RAM.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Add more RAM to the printer. Incorrect Answers: Reduce the RET. This might help, but it’ll reduce the quality of your printouts and isn’t the best solution available. Replace the printer’s RAM. There’s nothing wrong with the RAM; there is just not enough of it. Reduce the print resolution. This might help, but it’s not the best solution since now you are reducing the quality of your printouts.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

273
Q

Question 53:
A technician is tasked with setting up a new employee in a company with webmail on a tablet, phone, and laptop. Which of the following items can be synced to all three devices via webmail? (Select THREE).
Programs
Documents
Calendar
Bookmarks
Contacts
Social media accounts

A

ProgramsCorrect selectionDocumentsCorrect selectionCalendarBookmarksCorrect selectionContactsSocial media accountsOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Documents, Calendar and Contacts can be synced through webmail. Although most data can be synced, there are limitations to items that can be synced by webmail. Incorrect Answers: Programs cannot be synced by webmail. Bookmarks can be synced with devices, not by webmail. Social media accounts are usually web based and do not require a sync.DomainMobile Devices

274
Q

Question 54:
In a TCP/IP network, what device enables a computer to contact systems outside the local network?
Hub
Default gateway
Switch
DNS

A

HubCorrect answerDefault gatewaySwitchDNSOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The default gateway enables systems on a LAN to contact systems outside the local network. Incorrect Answers: A Domain Name Server (DNS) translates names into IP addresses, and is used inside the LAN as well as outside. Hubs and switches are not default gateways.DomainNetworking

275
Q

Question 55:
A consultant is looking to consolidate six company servers into one physical system. Which of the following requirements is most important on the new setup to ensure stable functionality of the virtual environment?
Server hardware resources
Network resources
Client hardware requirements
Server software security requirements

A

Correct answerServer hardware resourcesNetwork resourcesClient hardware requirementsServer software security requirementsOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Using a powerful system as the virtualization server will ensure that the virtual environments all run smoothly and without problems. Incorrect Answers: Client machines need relatively little hardware resources; that’s one of the benefits of virtualization servers. The server should undoubtedly be secure, but that’s less important initially than making sure the hardware is up to snuff. No one’s going to hack a server that’s always crashing, after all. Having a fast enough network to host the virtual environments is also important, but, again, a super fast network won’t help an underpowered server.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

276
Q

Question 56:
A user is operating a virtual machine and discovers it has been infected with malware. Which of the following applies?
The VM will crash and cause irreparable damage to the host PC
The host computer will quarantine the VM automatically
The host computer will automatically delete the VM
The VM can be shut down with no harm to the host PC

A

The VM will crash and cause irreparable damage to the host PCThe host computer will quarantine the VM automaticallyThe host computer will automatically delete the VMCorrect answerThe VM can be shut down with no harm to the host PCOverall explanationCorrect Answer: You can shut down an infected VM without fear of it harming anything on the host PC. Incorrect Answers: The host PC won’t automatically delete or quarantine an infected VM. An infected VM won’t cause damage to a host PC.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

277
Q

Question 57:
Which of the following is a typical Class C address?
169.254.0.1
10.12.14.5
172.16.5.100
192.168.1.100

A

169.254.0.110.12.14.5172.16.5.100Correct answer192.168.1.100Overall explanationCorrect: 192.168.1.100 is a typical private Class C address. Incorrect: 169.254.0.1 is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. 172.16.5.100 is a private Class B address. 10.12.14.5 is a private Class A address.DomainNetworking

278
Q

Question 58:
Virtual machines provide the ability to do which of the following?
Extend 32-bit machines to 64-bits.
Use less system memory.
Allow higher internet speeds.
Share hardware resources.

A

Extend 32-bit machines to 64-bits.Use less system memory.Allow higher internet speeds.Correct answerShare hardware resources.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Share hardware resources is correct. A virtual machine is a software emulation of a computer system that runs on a real computer. It allows you to easily switch between different operating system configurations, but utilize the same computer hardware. Incorrect Answers: Extends 32-bit to 64-bit machines is incorrect. Allows higher internet speeds is incorrect. It only allows multiple systems to share one internet connection. Use less system memory is incorrect. Virtual machines require more system memory.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

279
Q

Question 59:
Martha’s inkjet printer’s output has the bottom of every letter missing in text and strange horizontal lines evenly spaced in her images. What part of the inkjet should she check for problems?
The printhead
The paper take-up rollers
The printer’s resolution
The photosensitive drum

A

Correct answerThe printheadThe paper take-up rollersThe printer’s resolutionThe photosensitive drumOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Missing lines of horizontal print always points to a problem with the printhead. Incorrect Answers: The paper is being printed on, so it’s not the take-up rollers. Inkjet printers do not have photosensitive drums. The printer resolution refers to the level of detail a printer can reproduce. It is an overall measurement.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

280
Q

Question 60:
What is always the last step in the diagnostic/troubleshooting process?
Backup the System
Talking to the User
Call your supervisor
Document activities and outcomes

A

Backup the SystemTalking to the UserCall your supervisorCorrect answerDocument activities and outcomesOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Document activities and outcomes is correct. Always document your work it not only allows others to know what was done, it allows notes for future issues.Incorrect Answers: CompTIAbases their troubleshooting questions on a troubleshooting theory. It is important to answer the exam questions following this theory.1. Identify the Problem2. Develop a Theory3. Test the Theory4. Plan of Action5. Implement the Solution6. Verify System Functionality7. Document the IssueDomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

281
Q

Question 61:
Which is not a Wi-Fi capable device?
Tablet
Smartphone
WAP
Switch

A

TabletSmartphoneWAPCorrect answerSwitchOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A switch is a hard-wired network device. Incorrect Answers: WAPs, smartphones, and tablets are all Wi-Fi capable.DomainNetworking

282
Q

Question 62:
Which of the following resources is MOST important for accessing a remote virtual PC while using a Windows PC on your corporate network?
Maximum drive space
High-speed RAM
Network bandwidth
CPU speed

A

Maximum drive spaceHigh-speed RAMCorrect answerNetwork bandwidthCPU speedOverall explanationCorrect Answer: You are on a Windows computer and are accessing a server on your network that serves up virtual machines. You need to have a high speed, gigabit network going to load those VMs efficiently. Incorrect Answers: CPU speed and high-speed RAM are both concerns with any virtual environment, but they aren’t the biggest concern in this networked scenario. Maximum drive space is also a very important thing to have with a virtual environment. However, you are loading the virtual machine from a network resource. You don’t need to worry about hard drive space at all on your local PC.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

283
Q

Question 63:
What is the maximum throughput of a SATA II drive?
1 Gbps
3 Gbps
1.5 Gbps
4 Gbps

A

1 GbpsCorrect answer3 Gbps1.5 Gbps4 GbpsOverall explanationCorrect: SATA II runs at 3 Gbps. Technically, the name of the technology is SATA Revision 2.x or SATA 3Gb/s, not SATA II. Incorrect: First generation SATA runs at 1.5 Gb. 1 Gbps and 4 Gbps are not valid SATAthroughputs.DomainHardware

284
Q

Question 64:
Which term describes the distance between a projector and its screen?
Spread
Lumen
Throw
Span

A

SpreadLumenCorrect answerThrowSpanOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Throw is the distance from the projector to the screen. Incorrect Answers: A lumen is a unit of brightness. Span and spread are not projector related terms.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

285
Q

Question 65:
You upgrade your network to 1000 Mbps from 100 Mbps. You install a new 1000-Mbps network adapter into your Windows system. You check the device manager and see no errors or warning. You configure the TCP/IP settings to be as they were for the previous network adapter. Upon restarting the computer, you cannot access the network. You ping your IP address locally and receive the error message, “Request timed out.” You then ping 127.0.0.1 and receive the same error message. What do you do?
Set the network adapter to run at 100 Mbps only.
Replace the network card drivers.
Replace the network cabling.
Replace the NIC.

A

Set the network adapter to run at 100 Mbps only.Replace the network card drivers.Replace the network cabling.Correct answerReplace the NIC.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: You tried to ping 127.0.0.1, which is the loopback address, as well as your local IP address and received the same error messages both times. This would indicate a faulty NIC in your workstation. Incorrect Answers: Nothing was changed about the cables, so that would not be the problem. Typically driver problems result in an error message during installation, so it’s not the drivers. Also, you checked the device manager and everything was OK. Modern NICs can auto-negotitiate for speed, so setting it to run at 100 Mbps wouldn’t really do much.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

286
Q

Question 66:
A PC that constantly loses time is probably losing its__________.
ROM chip integrity.
CMOS battery power.
BIOS programs.
RAM stick life.

A

ROM chip integrity.Correct answerCMOS battery power.BIOS programs.RAM stick life.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: One of the first indications that your battery is starting to fail is the loss of CMOS data. Incorrect Answers: ROM chip integrity and RAM stick life are not valid hardware on your system.BIOS programs help initialize hardware on your system.DomainHardware

287
Q

Question 67:
James has replaced the CPU and added some RAM to his PC. He also blew some of the dust out of his system using canned air. When he rebooted his system, an annoying repetitive beep occurred. What was wrong?
The beep indicates a RAM problem.
The beep indicates that he blew dust up into the power supply.
The beep indicates that his hard drive is dying.
The beep indicates a problem with his new CPU.

A

Correct answerThe beep indicates a RAM problem.The beep indicates that he blew dust up into the power supply.The beep indicates that his hard drive is dying.The beep indicates a problem with his new CPU.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: A repetitive beep suggests a RAM problem. Incorrect Answers: Each motherboard manufacturer has their own beep codes, but only the RAM beep code is continuous.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

288
Q

Question 68:
Pamela’s laptop will start only if the AC adapter is plugged into the laptop. What component/function is most likely to cause this problem?
Bad AC input port on laptop
Bad battery
Bad flyback transformer on laptop
Bad battery interface

A

Bad AC input port on laptopCorrect answerBad batteryBad flyback transformer on laptopBad battery interfaceOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A laptop that works only when the AC adapter is plugged in is a sure sign of a bad battery. Incorrect Answer: If the laptop works when it is plugged in, it’s not the AC input port. Flyback transformers are a CRT component. It could be a bad battery interface on the laptop, but it is much more likely the battery itself.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

289
Q

Question 69:
While trying to type, a user reports that his notebook is randomly moving the cursor or mouse, which causes him to make a lot of typing errors. What action can the technician take to solve the issue for the user?
Reverse the buttons on the mouse pad
Adjust the settings so the mouse moves at a slower rate
Disable the mouse touch pad.
Adjust the settings so the mouse moves at a faster rate

A

Reverse the buttons on the mouse padAdjust the settings so the mouse moves at a slower rateCorrect answerDisable the mouse touch pad.Adjust the settings so the mouse moves at a faster rateOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Touchpads on laptops can get bumped by your thumb or the palm of your hands as you type. Most laptops have a button or a function key that will allow you to disable the mouse touchpad. Incorrect Answers: The rate of the mouse (quick or slow) is not effecting your cursor movement. This is generally caused by your hands touching the touch pad. Reversing the buttons will not assist, as it is commonly your hands touching the touch pad.DomainMobile Devices

290
Q

Question 70:
Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual machine hosted on a PC?
Reduces the amount of RAM required on the host PC
Reduces the training required for employees
Reduces the power of the CPU required on the host PC
Reduces the amount of physical hardware required

A

Reduces the amount of RAM required on the host PCReduces the training required for employeesReduces the power of the CPU required on the host PCCorrect answerReduces the amount of physical hardware requiredOverall explanationCorrect Answer: With virtual machines, one computer can run multiple virtual systems. This means that one powerful computer can take the place of many less powerful machines. Incorrect Answers: Virtual machines generally require more training, not less. They add a layer of complexity that users need to learn about. The host PC needs more RAM and a more powerful CPU, not less.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

291
Q

Question 71:
A stand-alone printer will print a test page just fine, but it makes gobbledy-gook out of your term paper. What’s probably wrong?
Faulty driver
Out of toner
Fuser error
Missing printer interface

A

Correct answerFaulty driverOut of tonerFuser errorMissing printer interfaceOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The driver that is installed is probably incorrect or corrupted. That will produce a print-out that is all messed up, while printing directly from the printer itself works just fine. Incorrect Answers: The fact that the test page works shows that the printer is working fine and has toner. A fuser error is incorrect. Fusers use heat to affix the toner to the paper. Fuser problem cause smearing.A missing printer interface would keep the print job from getting to the printer completely.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

292
Q

Question 72:
A Class A IP address has how many locked octets?
Two
One
Three
Four

A

TwoCorrect answerOneThreeFourOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The first octet of a Class A address, the network address, is locked. Incorrect Answers: Two, three and four are incorrect.DomainNetworking

293
Q

Question 73:
What does ECC DRAM provide that non-ECC DRAM does not?
ECC DRAM runs at much lower temperatures than other forms of DRAM.
ECC DRAM has a much lower response time than other forms of DRAM.
ECC DRAM enables error checking and correcting.
ECC DRAM enables synchronous data transfers.

A

ECC DRAM runs at much lower temperatures than other forms of DRAM.ECC DRAM has a much lower response time than other forms of DRAM.Correct answerECC DRAM enables error checking and correcting.ECC DRAM enables synchronous data transfers.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: ECC DRAM enables error checking and correcting. Incorrect Answers: ECCDRAMdoes not run at a lower speed.ECCDRAMdoes not run at a lower temperature.ECCDRAMdoes not enable synchronous data transfer.DomainHardware

294
Q

Question 74:
The main advantage of an memory stick over a external hard drive is _________________.
cost per gigabyte
storage capacity
portability
performance

A

cost per gigabytestorage capacityCorrect answerportabilityperformanceOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Memory sticks are more more portable than an external hard drive.Incorrect Answers: External hard drives tend to have faster transfer rates for large files over memory sticks.External hard drives can be purchased with larger storage capacity over memory sticks.External hard drives have a better cost per gigabyte than a memory stickDomainHardware

295
Q

Question 75:
What is the IP address of the “ localhost?”
192.168.1.1
127.0.0.1
169.254.136.32
10.12.14.16

A

192.168.1.1Correct answer127.0.0.1169.254.136.3210.12.14.16Overall explanationCorrect: The IP address 127.0.0.1 is known as localhost. It enables the computer to ping itself. Incorrect: 169.254.136.32 is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address and the other two answers are random valid IP addresses. APIPA address always start with 169.254.DomainNetworking

296
Q

Question 76:
MAC addresses can be represented by how many hexadecimal characters?
16
8
12
4

A

168Correct answer124Overall explanationCorrect Answer: MAC addresses are made up of 12 hexadecimal characters. Incorrect Answers: Four, eight, and sixteen are incorrect.DomainNetworking

297
Q

Question 77:
Which is not needed to install a virtual machine?
Hypervisor
Optical drive
Guest OS .iso file
Virtual disk

A

HypervisorCorrect answerOptical driveGuest OS .iso fileVirtual diskOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A physical optical drive isn’t necessary; the hypervisor can create a virtual optical drive from the guest OS .iso file. Incorrect Answers: The installation needs a hypervisor, a guest OS .iso file, and a virtual disk.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

298
Q

Question 78:
Janice’s onsite call is almost funny - the laser printer is spewing pages like crazy. The customer begs “Janice, stop this 4300 page printer job!” Which of the following is the first solution to try in troubleshooting?
Reset the printer.
Unplug the printer.
Clear the print spooler.
Turn off the printer.

A

Reset the printer.Unplug the printer.Correct answerClear the print spooler.Turn off the printer.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Clearing the print spooler in Windows will not only stop the print job, but will also tell the printer to clear its own buffer. If the spooler is not cleared, it will usually continue to send the print job to the printer. If this doesn’t work, then go ahead and get inelegant! Incorrect Answers: The other answers are all simply less elegant solutions. If clearing the print spooler first they are the next steps. DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

299
Q

Question 79:
Intermittent lockups and reboots are most likely caused by ___________.
failing power supply.
corrupted drivers.
bad hard drives.
resource conflicts.

A

Correct answerfailing power supply.corrupted drivers.bad hard drives.resource conflicts.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Failing power supplies are a major cause of intermittent lockups and reboots. Incorrect Answers: All other answer are incorrect. They will create lockups/reboots, but are far more predictable.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

300
Q

Question 80:
Which interface is the fastest?
SCSI
PATA
SATA
NVMe

A

SCSIPATASATACorrect answerNVMeOverall explanationCorrect Answer: NVMe uses PCIe lanes and is the fastest of these interface choices. Incorrect Answers: PATA is the slowest speed.SATA and SCSI speeds fall between NVMe and PATA.DomainHardware

301
Q

Question 81:
Which of the following problem outputs would benefit the most from printing a calibration page?
Two sheets picked up at a time.
Slightly blurred characters.
Paper covered with speckles of toner.
Blank pages.

A

Two sheets picked up at a time.Correct answerSlightly blurred characters.Paper covered with speckles of toner.Blank pages.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Only blurred images would benefit from a calibration page. A calibration page is utilized by a printer to align its components for optimal print quality.Incorrect Answers: Blank pages would likely be caused by an issue with the fuser.Paper covered with speckles of toner is likely caused by dirty components or fuser issues.Two sheets picked up at time is more indicative of a feeder or roller issue.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

302
Q

Question 82:
A technician needs to configure her neighbor’s iPad. The neighbor wants to access his work e-mail. The technician requires some information from her neighbor’s work IT department. Which of the following information does the technician need?
IP address and DNS
IP address and domain
Server and gateway
Server and domain

A

IP address and DNSIP address and domainServer and gatewayCorrect answerServer and domainOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The technician needs to know the neighbor’s work e-mail server and work domain name. Incorrect Answers: You don’t need to know IP address info, domain info, or DNS info to set up email.DomainMobile Devices

303
Q

Question 83:
How many devices can you attach to a single serial ATA controller?
8
64
2
1

A

8642Correct answer1Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Only one drive device can connect to a single ATA controller. Incorrect Answers: A single serial ATAcontroller can only connect one drive, so all other answers are incorrect.DomainHardware

304
Q

Question 84:
What network service provides dynamic IP addresses?
HTTP
DNS
Router
DHCP

A

HTTPDNSRouterCorrect answerDHCPOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows a “pool” of IP addresses to be “leased” as they are needed. Since they IP address is not permanent, it can change (dynamic). Incorrect Answers: HTTP is the protocol used to transfer Web pages on the Internet. DNS is the naming service used to translate domain names to IP addresses. A router is used to separate broadcast domains. It will connect you to other networks. Sometimes they have a DHCP server built into them, but that is not a requirement.DomainNetworking

305
Q

Question 85:
What is the maximum number of drive failures under RAID 6 at which the array will still function?
4
1
3
2

A

413Correct answer2Overall explanationCorrect Answer: A RAID 6 array will function with up to two drive failures. Incorrect Answers: One, three and four are incorrect. Although it will function with one, the answer asks for the maximum number.DomainHardware

306
Q

Question 86:
If you could choose only one of the following tools to open a case and remove a video card, which one would you pick?
A Torx wrench
A Phillips screwdriver
A flathead screwdriver
A hemostat

A

A Torx wrenchCorrect answerA Phillips screwdriverA flathead screwdriverA hemostatOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The overwhelming majority of screws on a PC use a Phillips head. Incorrect Answers: The other tools won’t help you much in a computer. Laptops often use smaller screw heads with varying driver types. Of the choices, a Phillips screwdriver would be the most common.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

307
Q

Question 87:
What would cause a laser printer to generate a totally black sheet?
Malfunctioning imaging laser
Low level in the toner cartridge
No power to the primary corona
No power to the transfer corona

A

Malfunctioning imaging laserLow level in the toner cartridgeCorrect answerNo power to the primary coronaNo power to the transfer coronaOverall explanationCorrect Answer: With no power to the primary corona, toner will be transferred to the entire drum, creating a totally black sheet. Incorrect Answers: Low toner would cause a lighter image to be printed, not a black one. With no power to the transfer corona, the paper would be blank. A malfunctioning laser would cause a lighter image, not a darker one.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

308
Q

Question 88:
What aspect of a regular vacuum cleaner makes it unsafe to use inside a laser printer?
Too much vibration
Too much power
Too much static
Too much voltage

A

Too much vibrationToo much powerCorrect answerToo much staticToo much voltageOverall explanationCorrect: Regular vacuum cleaners generate a tremendous amount of static electricity. Incorrect: Too much power, vibration, or voltage would not make the vacuum unsafe inside a laser printer, unless it was powerful enough to start sucking up pieces of the printer itself!DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

309
Q

Question 89:
You are getting some pressure from upper management about saving energy. The company wants to reduce power consumption on a wide scale. Which technology would help in accomplishing this?
Virtual servers
WPA2
Emulation
Wi-Fi

A

Correct answerVirtual serversWPA2EmulationWi-FiOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Creating virtual servers on one physical server will enable you to house all three servers on separate virtual machines while still being on the same physical box. This will dramatically save the company energy by not having as much hardware. Incorrect Answers: Wi-Fi is fantastic as a networking medium, but it doesn’t really help you save energy. Those Wi-Fi access points have to plug into something! Emulation isn’t the same as virtualization. With emulation, you are running an operating system on top of an environment that it wasn’t natively designed for, such as running a Nintendo 64 on a PC. With virtualization, the operating system works directly with the host machine’s hardware, such as running Ubuntu in a virtual machine while running Windows on a host PC. WPA2 is an encryption standard. It will not help you save energy.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

310
Q

Question 90:
What is the minimum number of drives to perform RAID 5?
1
4
3
5
2

A

14Correct answer352Overall explanationCorrect Answer: It takes a minimum of three drives to create a RAID 5 array. Incorrect Answers: One, two, four and five are incorrect. It requires two for data and one for parity.DomainHardware

311
Q

Question 1:
Sarah is connecting a new wireless mouse to a client’s laptop. Which of the following technologies is MOST likely being used to connect the mouse to the laptop?
Bluetooth
NFC
IR
USB

A

Correct answerBluetoothNFCIRUSBOverall explanationOBJ 1.3 - Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. Near field communication (NFC) is a standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radio communications over very short (around 4”) distances that facilitates contactless payment and similar technologies. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

312
Q

Question 2:
Jason is teaching a CompTIA course at a large company, but they do not allow non-employees to connect to their network. Since Jason needs the Internet for an in-class demonstration, he connects his laptop to his iPhone using a USB cable. He essentially connects to the Internet using the smartphone as a modem. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration?
Hotspot
Baseband update
Tunneling
Tethering

A

HotspotBaseband updateTunnelingCorrect answerTetheringOverall explanationOBJ 1.4 - Tethering is the use of a mobile device’s cellular data plan to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. One method of doing this is to connect the laptop to the device using a USB cable, and then it can be used as a wired network connection. A portable hotspot is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users. A tunneling (or encapsulation) protocol wraps up data from one protocol for transfer over a different type of network. For example, PPP can carry TCP/IP data over a dial-up line, enabling a remote computer to communicate with the LAN. A baseband update is the modification of the firmware of a cellular modem.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

313
Q

Question 3:
Which of the following types of data should you transmit over UDP?
Updating your Facebook status
Streaming videos on Netflix
Paying your credit card bill
Attaching photos to an email

A

Updating your Facebook statusCorrect answerStreaming videos on NetflixPaying your credit card billAttaching photos to an emailOverall explanationOBJ 2.1 - UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless, non-guaranteed method of data communication. It does not provide any sequencing or flow control. Data sent over UDP could be lost and never resent. For this reason, UDP is not used for general web browsing or activity over HTTP/HTTPS (Ports 80 and 443). UDP is very good at delivering streaming media, though, since UDP is faster than TCP. Streaming videos or making Voice over IP (VoIP) calls are examples of use cases that rely upon UDP for their transmission.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

314
Q

Question 4:
Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?
21
22
80
143

A

21Correct answer2280143Overall explanationOBJ 2.1 - Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

315
Q

Question 5:
You are trying to select the best device to install to proactively stop outside attackers from reaching your internal network. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select?
IDS
IPS
Proxy server
Syslog server

A

IDSCorrect answerIPSProxy serverSyslog serverOverall explanationOBJ 2.4 - An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a form of network security that detects and prevents identified threats. Intrusion prevention systems continuously monitor your network, looking for possible malicious incidents, and capturing information about them. An IPS can block malicious network traffic, unlike an IDS, which can only log them. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

316
Q

Question 6:
Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct?
The 5.0 GHz frequency has more channels available than 2.4 GHz
The 5.0 GHz frequency is more effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz
The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels
The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHz

A

Correct answerThe 5.0 GHz frequency has more channels available than 2.4 GHzThe 5.0 GHz frequency is more effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHzThe 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levelsThe 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHzOverall explanationOBJ 2.3 - The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. This longer wavelength gives the 2.4 GHz frequency the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

317
Q

Question 7:
A cybersecurity analyst wants to install a network appliance to conduct packet capturing of the network traffic between the router and the firewall on the network. The device should not be installed in line with the network, so it must receive a copy of all traffic flowing to or from the firewall. Which of the following tools is required to meet these requirements?
WiFi analyzer
Toner probe
Network tap
Loopback plug

A

WiFi analyzerToner probeCorrect answerNetwork tapLoopback plugOverall explanationOBJ 2.8 - A network tap is used to create a physical connection to the network that sends a copy of every packet received to a monitoring device for capture and analysis. A WiFi analyzer can determine the wireless network’s signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

318
Q

Question 8:
You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize?
Channel 9
Channel 10
Channel 11
Channel 12

A

Channel 9Channel 10Correct answerChannel 11Channel 12Overall explanationOBJ 2.3 - With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

319
Q

Question 9:
You have just finished building a Windows server, installing its operating system, updating its security patches, formatting a dedicated data partition, and creating accounts for all of the company’s employees. What is the next thing that must be configured to provide users with the ability to access the data contained on the server’s data partition?
Print server
RAID storage
File sharing
Audit logging

A

Print serverRAID storageCorrect answerFile sharingAudit loggingOverall explanationOBJ 2.4 - Most of the options provided are reasonable next steps, but the question specifically states that you want to allow the users to access the server’s data. Therefore, file sharing is the next step to providing access to the data and folders for employees on the network. After configuring file sharing, it would be good to configure audit logging and possibly a print server. RAID storage should have been configured before installing the operating system or creating the data partition. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

320
Q

Question 10:
Which port is used to connect to a POP3 server?
25
110
143
443

A

25Correct answer110143443Overall explanationOBJ 2.1 - The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

321
Q

Question 11:
Dion Training has just installed a brand new email server. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow the new server to receive email on behalf of diontraining.com?
CNAME
MX
PTR
A

A

CNAMECorrect answerMXPTRAOverall explanationOBJ 2.6 - An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME).DomainDomain 2 - Networking

322
Q

Question 12:
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 6.9 Gbps?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
802.11ac
802.11ax

A

802.11a802.11b802.11g802.11nCorrect answer802.11ac802.11axOverall explanationOBJ 2.3 - The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 6.9 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AX uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6 GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

323
Q

Question 13:
Dion Training has a single switch that services every room within its offices. The switch contains 48 ports, but Jason wants to divide the ports based on functional areas, such as web development, instruction support, and administration. Which technology should Jason utilize to divide the physical switch into three logically divided areas?
DSL
VLAN
NAT
VPN

A

DSLCorrect answerVLANNATVPNOverall explanationOBJ 2.6 - A VLAN (virtual LAN) allows a single physical switch to be divided into logical networks. VLANs are only supported on managed switches, but they allow for a different logical subnetwork address to be assigned to various ports on the switch. This requires that communications between different VLANs must go through a router, just as if you had multiple switches. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. A digital subscriber line (DSL) modem is a device used to connect a computer or router to a telephone line which provides the digital subscriber line service for connection to the Internet. Dynamic NAT is a many-to-one mapping of a private IP address or subnets inside a local area network to a public IP address or subnet outside the local area network. The traffic from different zones and subnets over trusted (inside) IP addresses in the LAN segment is sent over a single public (outside) IP address.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

324
Q

Question 14:
You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?
Dynamic
APIPA
Link-local
Static

A

DynamicAPIPALink-localCorrect answerStaticOverall explanationOBJ 2.5 - A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

325
Q

Question 15:
Which of the following devices is installed in a communication closet to connect network wall jacks to a network switch using pre-wired RJ-45 ports?
Router
Hub
Patch panel
Access point

A

RouterHubCorrect answerPatch panelAccess pointOverall explanationOBJ 2.2 - A patch panel is used in a structured cabling system. A computer is connected to a wall jack in this cable system and then connected to a patch panel by cabling running through the walls. A pre-wired RJ-45 port on the patch panel is then connected to a port on the switch using a straight-through or patch cable. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which can slow down the entire network.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

326
Q

Question 16:
Which of the following is NOT categorized as wearable technology?
Smartwatches
Fitness monitors
Phablets
VR headsets

A

SmartwatchesFitness monitorsCorrect answerPhabletsVR headsetsOverall explanationOBJ 1.3 - Phablets are essentially large smartphones. Their size is smaller than a tablet but larger than a smartphone. Generally, smartphones that have screen sizes between 5.5” and 7” are considered phablets by manufacturers. Many phablets also come with a stylus for note-taking on the larger screen size instead of using your finger. Smartwatches, fitness monitors, and VR headsets are all considered wearable technology or wearables. Fitness monitors are wearable mobile devices that focus on tracking the health and exercise habits of their users. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A virtual reality headset (VR) is a headset worn like goggles to interact with images displayed in the headset. Virtual reality is a computer-generated, simulated environment experienced via a headset connected to a PC or powered by a smartphone.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

327
Q

Question 17:
Which of the following types of authentication devices is being used in this picture?
Something you know
Something you are
Something you have
Somewhere you are

A

Something you knowCorrect answerSomething you areSomething you haveSomewhere you areOverall explanationOBJ 1.1 - There are five types of authentication factors: something you know, something you have, something you are, something you do, and somewhere you are. In this picture, the user is being authenticated using their fingerprint, which is considered something you are or a biometric factor of authentication. Something you are refers to biometric authentication and includes fingerprints, retina scans, and facial scans. Something you know is a knowledge factor that includes usernames, passwords, and other non-tangible facts. Something you have is a possession factor that includes a physical token, key fob, or smart card. Somewhere you are is a location factor that includes your GPS coordinates or the location of your IP address. Something you do is an action factor that includes the way you sign your name, the way you say a passphrase, and other actionable items.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

328
Q

Question 18:
Jason’s cellphone company advertises that they offer unlimited data. The internet at Jason’s studio was not working today, so he turned on his mobile hotspot to upload the videos recorded today. Initially, the data transfer was occurring without any issues and Jason observed that his data was uploading at 25 Mbps. After 20-30 minutes, though, the speed of the connection dropped to only 0.125 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this drop in speed during the upload process?
The smartphone is undergoing a DDoS attack
The smartphone reached the data cap for the month
The smartphone’s battery has been depleted
The smartphone’s 802.11 radio is broken

A

The smartphone is undergoing a DDoS attackCorrect answerThe smartphone reached the data cap for the monthThe smartphone’s battery has been depletedThe smartphone’s 802.11 radio is brokenOverall explanationOBJ 1.4 - A data cap or bandwidth cap is a service-provider imposed limitation on the amount of data transferred by a user’s account or device over the cellular network. Many smartphone plans that advertise unlimited data still have a transfer limit. Once the limit is reached, these plans will either prevent all data transfer from occurring or slow down the speeds of data transfer. For example, T-Mobile offers unlimited data in the United States, but if a user transfers over 50GB of data then their data is deprioritized and transmitted at slower speeds. Other carriers will use a data throttling method, instead, which slows down all data sent for the remainder of the customer’s billing cycle. A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is a denial of service attack that uses multiple compromised computers, called zombies, to launch the attack against a target. Based on the scenario, there is no evidence that the smartphone’s battery is depleted since the phone is still online and transmitting data. The smartphone is not using Wifi to transmit the data and there is no evidence that the 802.11 (Wi-Fi) radio is broken.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

329
Q

Question 19:
Dion Training wants to replace any remaining old CRT displays used in the company with a type of screen that produces less voltage and is more energy-efficient. Additionally, the new screen type selected should not contain a backlight. What type of display technology should they select?
LED
LCD
OLED
Plasma

A

LEDLCDCorrect answerOLEDPlasmaOverall explanationOBJ 1.2 - An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) display is a type of LED flat panel display device that uses organic compounds that emit light when subjected to an electric current. An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An OLED will consume around 40% of an LCD’s power, displaying a primarily black image. For most images, it will consume 60–80% of the power of an LCD. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A light-emitting diode (LED) display is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

330
Q

Question 20:
Which of the following settings must be enabled on a mobile device to embed the GPS position into a photograph when using your device’s camera?
FDE
Location services
Security profile
MDM

A

FDECorrect answerLocation servicesSecurity profileMDMOverall explanationOBJ 1.4 - Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. To embed the GPS position into a photograph, location services must be enabled. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. Full device encryption (FDE) is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. The encryption key is stored in a protected portion of the device and can be used to remotely wipe the device if it is lost or stolen. A security profile is used to apply different permissions and functionality to an employee’s mobile device and is usually configured by an MDM.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

331
Q

Question 21:
You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following email protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices?
POP3
SMTP
IMAP
HTTPS

A

POP3SMTPCorrect answerIMAPHTTPSOverall explanationOBJ 1.4 - You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email’s read state. If you configure POP3, the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server’s mailbox by default. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

332
Q

Question 22:
Dion Training wants to order some new laptops for their video editors. The video editors want to ensure the display has the best color accuracy when using a 60 Hz refresh rate. Which of the following types of displays should the company purchase to meet this requirement?
IPS
TN
VA
Plasma

A

Correct answerIPSTNVAPlasmaOverall explanationOBJ 1.2 - An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers. A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

333
Q

Question 23:
Which of the following form factors provides a mini card interface used to connect a laptop’s SSD at higher bus speeds than SATA?
1.8”
2.5”
3.5”
M.2

A

1.8”2.5”3.5”Correct answerM.2Overall explanationOBJ 1.1 - M.2 s a new set of form factors for mini card interfaces. An M.2 SSD provides a direct interface with the PCI Express bus to provide higher bus speeds than a SATA connection. M.2 adapters come in four different sizes based on their length. The one chosen depends on your model of laptop and the space available within the case. The 80mm variety is the most common one used in modern laptops. A traditional laptop hard drive usually comes in either the 2.5” form factor or the 1.8” form factor. When a 1.8” form factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connector will not fit due to the connector’s larger size. A 3.5” drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

334
Q

Question 24:
You are working on a customer’s laptop. The image on the display suddenly becomes very dark and hard to see. You attempt to adjust the brightness and contrast of the laptop’s display using the special function keys, but this doesn’t brighten the display much. You pull out a bright flashlight and can see the image displayed a little better when using it. Which of the following components is MOST likely faulty and needs to be replaced?
Inverter
Digitizer
GPU
LCD panel

A

Correct answerInverterDigitizerGPULCD panelOverall explanationOBJ 1.2 - The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touch screen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

335
Q

Question 25:
You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you slide your credit card through the payment terminal and then sign your name to authorize the charge. Which of the following did you MOST likely use to make this purchase?
Bluetooth reader
Signature pad
NFC device
Touchpad

A

Bluetooth readerCorrect answerSignature padNFC deviceTouchpadOverall explanationOBJ 1.3 - Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person’s handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. A touchpad is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad’s surface.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

336
Q

Question 26:
Which of the following accounts should you set up to use Apple’s online cloud storage and file synchronization service for macOS and iOS devices?
Microsoft 365
Google Workspace
iCloud
iTunes

A

Microsoft 365Google WorkspaceCorrect answeriCloudiTunesOverall explanationOBJ 1.4 - Apple’s online cloud storage and file synchronization service for macOS and iOS devices is called iCloud. The service provides a centralized location for mail, contacts, calendar, photos, notes, reminders, and files online. Apple’s iTunes is a media player, media library, Internet radio broadcaster, mobile device management utility, and the client app for the iTunes Store. It is not a cloud-based solution for synchronization. Google Workspace is a collection of cloud computing, productivity and collaboration tools, software, and products developed and marketed by Google. Microsoft 365, formerly Office 365, is a line of subscription services offered by Microsoft which adds to and includes the Microsoft Office product line.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

337
Q

Question 27:
Which of the following laptop displays requires an inverter?
LCD
LED
OLED
Plasma

A

Correct answerLCDLEDOLEDPlasmaOverall explanationOBJ 1.2 - An inverter supplies the correct AC voltage to the LCD’s fluorescent backlight from the laptop’s DC power circuits. An LCD (TFT) with fluorescent backlight has been the standard display technology for the last few years. The backlight is a fluorescent bulb that illuminates the image, making it bright and clear. A light-emitting diode (LED) display is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source. An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) display is a type of LED flat panel display device that uses organic compounds that emit light when subjected to an electric current. An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as in a dark room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.DomainDomain 1 - Mobile Devices

338
Q

Question 28:
Your office is located in a small office park, and you are installing a new wireless network access point for your employees. The companies in the adjacent offices are using Wireless B/G/N routers in the 2.4 GHz spectrum. Your security system uses the 5 GHz spectrum, so you have purchased a 2.4 GHz wireless access point to ensure you don’t cause interference with the security system. To maximize the distance between channels, which set of channels should you configure for use on your access points?
1, 7, 13
3, 6, 9
2, 6, 10
1, 6, 11

A

1, 7, 133, 6, 92, 6, 10Correct answer1, 6, 11Overall explanationOBJ 2.5 - Wireless access points should always be configured with channels 1, 6, or 11 to maximize the distance between channels and prevent overlaps. Each channel on the 2.4 GHz spectrum is 20 MHz wide. The channel centers are separated by 5 MHz, and the entire spectrum is only 100 MHz wide. This means the 11 channels have to squeeze into the 100 MHz available, and in the end, overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11, however, are far enough from each other on the 2.4GHz band that they have sufficient space between their channel centers and do not overlap.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

339
Q

Question 29:
You just configured your iPhone to connect to your car’s stereo over Bluetooth to play your favorite podcasts while driving to work. What type of network did you create between your iPhone and your car?
PAN
LAN
SAN
WAN

A

Correct answerPANLANSANWANOverall explanationOBJ 2.7 - A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers. A storage area network often uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), Fibre Channel, or Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) connections to achieve the speeds necessary to support SAN operations.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

340
Q

Question 30:
Which of the following network types would be used to create a dedicated, independent high-speed network to interconnect and share pools of storage devices to multiple servers?
WAN
MAN
SAN
WLAN

A

WANMANCorrect answerSANWLANOverall explanationOBJ 2.7 - A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers. A storage area network often uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), Fibre Channel, or Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) connections to achieve the speeds necessary to support SAN operations. A wireless LAN (WLAN) connects computers within a small and specific geographical area using the 802.11 protocols for their wireless connections. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

341
Q

Question 31:
What is the term for a system that is no longer directly supported by its vendor?
Embedded system
Legacy system
UTM system
Patch system

A

Embedded systemCorrect answerLegacy systemUTM systemPatch systemOverall explanationOBJ 2.4 - A legacy system is no longer directly supported by its vendor. Networks often need to retain hosts running DOS or legacy versions of Windows (8.1 and earlier) or old-style mainframe computers to run services that are too complex or expensive to migrate to a more modern platform. Legacy systems usually work well for what they do (which is why they don’t get prioritized for replacement), but they represent very severe risks in terms of security vulnerabilities. Unified threat management (UTM) devices are network appliances that provide all the security functions of a firewall, malware scanner, intrusion detection, vulnerability scanner, data loss prevention, content filtering, and other security devices into a single device or appliance. Patch systems are used to conduct patch management across your organization’s network. An embedded system is a computer system that is designed to perform a specific, dedicated function, such as a microcontroller in a medical drip or components in a control system managing a water treatment plant.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

342
Q

Question 32:
Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?
802.3af
802.11ac
802.3at
802.11s

A

Correct answer802.3af802.11ac802.3at802.11sOverall explanationOBJ 2.2 - Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.DomainDomain 2 - Networking

343
Q

Question 33:
Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop?
5400 rpm
7200 rpm
10,000 rpm
15,000 rpm

A

Correct answer5400 rpm7200 rpm10,000 rpm15,000 rpmOverall explanationOBJ 3.3 - Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

344
Q

Question 34:
You are setting up a cable television in a customer’s home. Which connector type should be used to connect the TV tuner to the wall jack when using a coaxial cable?
ST
RJ-45
F type
DB-9

A

STRJ-45Correct answerF typeDB-9Overall explanationOBJ 3.1 - The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

345
Q

Question 35:
You have been asked to recommend a RAID for use in a video editing workstation. The workstation must be configured to allow the highest speed operation and use 100% of the available drive free space. The workstation has no requirement for redundancy within this configuration. Which configuration do you recommend?
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10

A

Correct answerRAID 0RAID 1RAID 5RAID 10Overall explanationOBJ 3.3 - RAID 0 (disk striping) is the process of dividing a body of data into blocks and spreading the data blocks across multiple storage devices, such as hard disks or solid-state drives (SSDs), in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) group. Unlike other RAID levels, RAID 0 does not have parity or redundancy. It will provide faster performance and speed, as well as use 100% of the available drive space. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

346
Q

Question 36:
A customer wants to build a home server that would allow their family to stream locally stored video files on a home network. The home server should also have fault tolerance to ensure the server’s data is not inadvertently lost in the event of a hard disk drive failure. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet these requirements? (Select TWO)
Dual-core CPU
Gigabit NIC
RAID
Dedicated GPU
32 GB of RAM

A

Dual-core CPUCorrect selectionGigabit NICCorrect selectionRAIDDedicated GPU32 GB of RAMOverall explanationOBJ 3.3 - In this scenario, a gigabit NIC will help handle the heavy network load created by sharing large files over the network. Data protection needs to use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10 configuration to protect against any potential data loss caused by a single hard disk drive failure. RAID 5 is the most commonly used RAID for servers. A RAID 5 requires a minimum of 3 hard disk drives and can continue to operate as long as 2 of the 3 drives are functional.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

347
Q

Question 37:
Which of the following is used to connect Cat 5e or above networks in an MDF or IDF?
66 punch down block
110 punchdown block
F type
RJ-11

A

66 punch down blockCorrect answer110 punchdown blockF typeRJ-11Overall explanationOBJ 3.1 - A 110 punchdown block is a type of punch block used to terminate runs of on-premises wiring in a structured cabling system. The designation 110 is also used to describe a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool similar to the older 66 punch down block. A 110 punchdown block provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables. F type connectors are used for coaxial cables, not Cat 5e network cables. RJ-11 is used to terminate telephone lines, not Cat 5e network cables.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

348
Q

Question 38:
Which of the following modes of operation will allow a motherboard to create two independent 64-bit pathways to achieve 128-bits of data transfer per transaction from the memory to the CPU?
Single-channel
Dual-channel
Triple-channel
Quad-channel

A

Single-channelCorrect answerDual-channelTriple-channelQuad-channelOverall explanationOBJ 3.2 - Dual-channel memory is a memory controller with two primary pathways through the bus to the CPU to transfer 128-bits of data in each transaction. Single-channel memory is any memory using one 64-bit bus between the CPU and the RAM. Triple-channel memory is any memory using three 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM. Quad-channel memory is any memory using four 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

349
Q

Question 39:
Dion Training is installing a new CAT 6 network for their office building. The technician ran out of connectors for the cables and sent their assistant to the store to buy more. Which of the following types of connectors should they purchase to terminate the CAT 6 cables?
F type
RJ-11
RJ-45
SC

A

F typeRJ-11Correct answerRJ-45SCOverall explanationOBJ 3.1 - A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

350
Q

Question 40:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
USB connector
Audio connector
PATA connector
Front panel connector

A

USB connectorCorrect answerAudio connectorPATA connectorFront panel connectorOverall explanationOBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the audio connector on this motherboard. This is used to connect the CD/DVD audio cable from the drive to the motherboard for digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

351
Q

Question 41:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
PCIe x1
PCIe x4
PCIe x8
PCIe x16

A

PCIe x1Correct answerPCIe x4PCIe x8PCIe x16Overall explanationOBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the PCIe x4 slot on this motherboard. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

352
Q

Question 42:
Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?
Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround
Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network
Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB
Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the network

A

Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaroundCorrect answerPurchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the networkPurchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USBPurchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the networkOverall explanationOBJ 3.6 - The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

353
Q

Question 43:
What type of connector is used to terminate a coaxial cable?
RJ-45
F type
DB-9
RJ-11

A

RJ-45Correct answerF typeDB-9RJ-11Overall explanationOBJ 3.1 - The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

354
Q

Question 44:
Jennifer just moved from France to the United States. She unpacks her computer and plugs it into the wall using a power adapter to ensure the plug connects properly. When she tries to power on the computer, the screen remains blank, she doesn’t hear the fans spinning, and nothing appears to be happening. What is MOST likely the problem?
The power supply’s output is set to 115V
The power supply’s input is set to 220V
The power supply’s output is set to 220V
The power supply’s input is set to 115V

A

The power supply’s output is set to 115VCorrect answerThe power supply’s input is set to 220VThe power supply’s output is set to 220VThe power supply’s input is set to 115VOverall explanationOBJ 3.5 - It is always important to ensure the correct power supply input setting is used for your computer based on the location in which you are using it. In Europe, the nominal voltage of a power outlet is 220V. Therefore, Jennifer’s computer is probably still selected for a power supply input setting of 220V. In the United States, the nominal voltage is 115V. Therefore, Jennifer needs to flip the power configuration switch on the power supply’s input selector from 220V to 115V to operate properly. If the computer was incorrectly set to 115V and plugged into a 220V outlet, the power supply could be destroyed or catch fire.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

355
Q

Question 45:
When using a laser printer, what is used to transfer the image to a piece of paper?
Ink
Ribbon
Toner
Filament

A

InkRibbonCorrect answerTonerFilamentOverall explanationOBJ 3.7 - Toner is used by a laser printer to transfer the image to a piece of paper. Ink is used by an inkjet printer. Filament is used by a 3-D printer to create its final design. Ribbon is used by an impact printer.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

356
Q

Question 46:
Which type of RAID should be used for a virtualization server that must have the fastest speed and highest redundancy level?
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10

A

RAID 0RAID 1RAID 5Correct answerRAID 10Overall explanationOBJ 3.3 - RAID 10 offers the fastest speed, best reliability, and highest redundancy but is more costly as the overall disk storage will be greatly reduced. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

357
Q

Question 47:
What printer concept is a page description language that produces faster outputs at the expense of quality?
Internet Printing Protocol
PostScript
Line Printer Daemon
Printer control language

A

Internet Printing ProtocolPostScriptLine Printer DaemonCorrect answerPrinter control languageOverall explanationOBJ 3.6 - Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PCL produces faster outputs that are of lower quality. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers. PostScript (PS) is a page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

358
Q

Question 48:
A network technician needs to connect two switches. The technician needs a link between them that is capable of handling 10 Gbps of throughput. Which of the following media would BEST meet this requirement?
Cat 5e cable
Coax cable
Fiber optic cable
Cat 3 cable

A

Cat 5e cableCoax cableCorrect answerFiber optic cableCat 3 cableOverall explanationOBJ 3.1 - To achieve 10 Gbps, you should use Cat 6a, Cat 7, Cat 8, or a fiber optic cable. Since fiber optic was the only option listed here, it is the best answer. A Cat 5e can only operate up to 100 meters at 1 Gbps. A Cat 3 cable can only operate at 100 meters at 10 Mbps. A traditional ethernet coaxial cable network can only operate at 10 Mbps, but newer MoCA coaxial ethernet connections can reach speeds of up to 2.5 Gbps.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

359
Q

Question 49:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
PCI
AGP
PCIe x4
PCIe x1

A

PCIAGPPCIe x4Correct answerPCIe x1Overall explanationOBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the PCIe x1 slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. PCIe x1 slots are usually used for external input/output devices such as network interface cards. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

360
Q

Question 50:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
Audio connector
Reset jumper
Fan power
USB connector

A

Audio connectorCorrect answerReset jumperFan powerUSB connectorOverall explanationOBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the reset jumper on this motherboard. A reset jumper is a small plastic block with a metal connection inside. To reset the motherboard’s BIOS, you would connect the jumper over this area to make an electrical connection between the two pins. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

361
Q

Question 51:
What type of connector is most often used to connect to an older smartphone?
Micro USB
Mini-USB
USB Type B
USB-C

A

Correct answerMicro USBMini-USBUSB Type BUSB-COverall explanationOBJ 3.1 - micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, MP3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices. Recently, though, the industry moved to the USB Type C (USB-C) connector for smartphones and many other devices as it is faster and easier to connect. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. USB Type B is a large form factor USB connector usually reserved for connecting to older printers and scanners.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

362
Q

Question 52:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.)
Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as K?
Audio cluster
SPDIF
DVI-I
RG-6

A

Correct answerAudio clusterSPDIFDVI-IRG-6Overall explanationOBJ 3.1 - This port is the audio cluster on the rear of this motherboard. This contains the audio inputs and outputs in mini-jack format. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

363
Q

Question 53:
Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a CAT 5e network cable?
F type
RJ-11
RJ-45
Molex

A

F typeRJ-11Correct answerRJ-45MolexOverall explanationOBJ 3.1 - RJ-45 refers to a cable termination specification that specifies physical male and female connectors and the pin assignments of data jacks that can be used for networks and VOIP telephone cables. RJ-45 is an 8-pin/8-position plug or jack commonly used to connect computers onto Ethernet-based local area networks (LAN) and consists of two wiring schemes: T568A and T568B. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A Molex connector is used to provide power to internal components of a computer from the power supply.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

364
Q

Question 54:
Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a coaxial cable for your cable modem?
F-type
RJ-11
RJ-45
DB-9

A

Correct answerF-typeRJ-11RJ-45DB-9Overall explanationOBJ 3.1 - F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.DomainDomain 3 - Hardware

365
Q

Question 55:
During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true?
A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server
A virtual machine has more downtime than a physical server
Both a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtime
A virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancing

A

Correct answerA virtual machine has less downtime than a physical serverA virtual machine has more downtime than a physical serverBoth a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtimeA virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancingOverall explanationOBJ 4.1 - A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

366
Q

Question 56:
Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a backup solution that can backup non-sensitive data in the most cost-efficient way. The company already has an Office 365 subscription for each employee. The employees should be able to backup and access their data from anywhere using their laptops, smartphones, or tablets. Which of the following solutions should you recommend?
OneDrive
AWS S3
G Suite
iCloud

A

Correct answerOneDriveAWS S3G SuiteiCloudOverall explanationOBJ 4.1 - OneDrive is a Microsoft product that comes as part of the Office 365 subscription package. The other options can also provide the capabilities requested, but there would be a separate cost to utilize them. Therefore, you should recommend OneDrive in this scenario. OneDrive can utilize the storage that is easy to access from a laptop, smartphone, or tablet while the employees are away from their offices. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

367
Q

Question 57:
You are installing Windows 2019 on a rack-mounted server and hosting multiple virtual machines within the physical server. You just finished the installation and now want to begin creating and provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should you utilize to allow you to create and provision virtual machines?
Disk management
Hypervisor
Device manager
Terminal services

A

Disk managementCorrect answerHypervisorDevice managerTerminal servicesOverall explanationOBJ 4.2 - A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VMWare or VirtualBox. Disk Management is a system utility in Windows that enables you to perform advanced storage tasks. Device Manager is a component of the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. Remote Desktop Services, known as Terminal Services in Windows Server 2008 and earlier, is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allow a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

368
Q

Question 58:
You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively for running numerous virtual machines simultaneously for their lab environment. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company’s needs? (Select TWO)
64 GB of DDR4
Intel i3 with 2-cores
8 GB of DDR3
Intel i9 with 8-cores
1 TB SSD
1 TB HDD

A

Correct selection64 GB of DDR4Intel i3 with 2-cores8 GB of DDR3Correct selectionIntel i9 with 8-cores1 TB SSD1 TB HDDOverall explanationOBJ 4.2 - According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation’s configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

369
Q

Question 59:
What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet?
PaaS
IaaS
SaaS
DaaS

A

PaaSCorrect answerIaaSSaaSDaaSOverall explanationOBJ 4.1 - Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

370
Q

Question 60:
Which of the following is a security concern when dealing with virtual machines?
Rogue VM
Resource pooling
Symmetric multiprocessing
Virtual NIC

A

Correct answerRogue VMResource poolingSymmetric multiprocessingVirtual NICOverall explanationOBJ 4.2 - The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as VM sprawl. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

371
Q

Question 61:
You are building a virtualization environment to practice your penetration testing skills. This will require that you install several vulnerable Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network but should not communicate with the host operating system or the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?
External
Internal
Private
Localhost

A

ExternalInternalCorrect answerPrivateLocalhostOverall explanationOBJ 4.2 - The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select internal, it can communicate between the host and the VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

372
Q

Question 62:
Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose in order to deliver virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet on a per-user license basis?
DaaS
PaaS
IaaS
SaaS

A

Correct answerDaaSPaaSIaaSSaaSOverall explanationOBJ 4.1 - Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often combined with Virtual Desktop Infrastructure. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

373
Q

Question 63:
Which type of cloud service provides users with an end-to-end application solution for a recurring monthly or yearly fee?
SaaS
IaaS
PaaS
DaaS

A

Correct answerSaaSIaaSPaaSDaaSOverall explanationOBJ 4.1 - Software as a service (or SaaS) is a way of delivering applications over the Internet as a service. Instead of installing and maintaining software, you access it via the Internet, freeing yourself from complex software and hardware management. It allows a company to pay a monthly or yearly fee to receive access to the software without managing the software locally within their own network. For example, many small businesses use Shopify to create an online ecommerce store that is classified as a SaaS product. Other examples include G Suite, Office 365, or Adobe Creative Cloud. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

374
Q

Question 64:
Which of the following resources is used by virtual machines to communicate with other virtual machines on the same network but prevents them from communicating with resources on the internet?
DNS
Network address translation
Virtual external network
Virtual internal network

A

DNSNetwork address translationVirtual external networkCorrect answerVirtual internal networkOverall explanationOBJ 4.2 - Most virtual machines running on a workstation will have their own virtual internal network to communicate within the virtual environment while preventing them from communicating with the outside world. You may also configure a shared network address for the virtual machine to have the same IP address as the physical host that it is running on. This usually relies on network address translation to communicate from the virtual environment (inside) to the physical world (outside/internet). If you are communicating internally in the virtual network, there is no need for DNS or an external network.DomainDomain 4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing

375
Q

Question 65:
Jonni’s laptop works perfectly when sitting at his desk. Whenever Jonni moves his laptop from his desk to the conference room, though, the laptop unexpectedly powers off. A technician examines the laptop and does not smell any unusual odors coming from it. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the laptop to lose power when moved?
The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheating
The laptop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitor
The laptop’s battery connection is loose
The laptop’s CMOS battery has failed

A

The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheatingThe laptop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitorCorrect answerThe laptop’s battery connection is looseThe laptop’s CMOS battery has failedOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. Since the laptop operates without any issues when on the user’s desk, it indicates that the connection comes loose during movement. If the laptop had inadequate airflow, it intermittently shuts down at random times and not only when moved. If the laptop had a swollen capacitor, the technician would smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard. If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings but the laptop would not shut down intermittently.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

376
Q

Question 66:
You just replaced a failed motherboard in a corporate workstation and returned it to service. About an hour later, the customer complained that the workstation is randomly shutting down and rebooting itself. You suspect the memory module may be corrupt, and you perform a memory test, but the memory passes all of your tests. Which of the following should you attempt NEXT in troubleshooting this problem?
Reset the BIOS
Replace the RAM with ECC modules
Remove and reseat the RAM
Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected

A

Reset the BIOSReplace the RAM with ECC modulesRemove and reseat the RAMCorrect answerVerify the case fans are clean and properly connectedOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

377
Q

Question 67:
A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, and then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician attempts to power on the system, the fans do not spin, the hard drive doesn’t spin, and the motherboard’s LEDs lights remain unlit. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect?
SATA 15-pin power cable
CPU 8-pin power cable
Case fan 4-pin power cable
Motherboard 24-pin power cable

A

SATA 15-pin power cableCPU 8-pin power cableCase fan 4-pin power cableCorrect answerMotherboard 24-pin power cableOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the motherboard’s 24-pin power cable. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard’s LED would not be lit. The case fans will not spin either since they receive their power through the motherboard, as well. Without the connection to the power, the computer couldn’t complete its POST. The hard drive will not spin since it receives the wake-up command from the motherboard through a SATA data cable. If the motherboard’s 24-pin power cable were connected, but the SATA 15-pin power cable hadn’t been connected, the LED would have lit up, but the SATA would not have connected. If the motherboard’s 24-pin power cable were connected, but the case fan’s 4-pin power cable hadn’t been connected, the fan wouldn’t have spun, but the motherboard’s LED would have lit up. DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

378
Q

Question 68:
Brenda’s workstation continually fails to keep accurate time. She manually sets the date and time within Windows, but the next day the time is inaccurate again. When she leaves work at the end of the day, Brenda shuts down her workstation per company policy. The next morning when she boots up the computer, she must reset the time again. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the inaccurate time on the workstation?
The desktop has inadequate airflow and is overheating
The desktop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitor
The desktop’s power cable is loose
The desktop’s CMOS battery has failed

A

The desktop has inadequate airflow and is overheatingThe desktop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitorThe desktop’s power cable is looseCorrect answerThe desktop’s CMOS battery has failedOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the workstation to lose its date/time settings. When a system is powered down, the internal CMOS battery on the motherboard is used to maintain the date/time. If the desktop had inadequate airflow, it intermittently shut down at random times. If a desktop has a swollen capacitor, then a technician will smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard. A swollen capacitor indicates a motherboard failure that can lead to strange issues occurring on the desktop. If the desktop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose power cable.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

379
Q

Question 69:
Natalie’s computer is having difficulty accessing websites. She reports that she started receiving pop-ups on her screen before this connectivity problem began. You search the computer and find a piece of malware installed, so you remove it. You also do a full virus scan of the computer, ensure her computer has the most up-to-date virus definitions and is set the anti-virus software to automatically scan the computer every night at 2 am. As you return the computer to Natalie, you verify that she can now successfully access the websites again. What is the NEXT step you should perform according to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Verify functionality
Test the theory to determine the cause
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Establish a theory of probable cause

A

Verify functionalityTest the theory to determine the causeCorrect answerDocument findings, actions, and outcomesEstablish a theory of probable causeOverall explanationOBJ 5.1 - There are 6 steps in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology: (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution, (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures, (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes. Based on the question, you just finished performing step 5, so the NEXT step to perform is step 6.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

380
Q

Question 70:
Susan is troubleshooting a workstation that has multiple S.M.A.R.T. errors. When the system is booted up, she hears a loud clicking noise and the operating system fails to load. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with this workstation?
The case fans are faulty and the system is overheating
The read/write heads of the hard disk drive have failed
The installed memory modules are mismatched
The CPU’s cooling fan needs to be lubricated

A

The case fans are faulty and the system is overheatingCorrect answerThe read/write heads of the hard disk drive have failedThe installed memory modules are mismatchedThe CPU’s cooling fan needs to be lubricatedOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - Loud clicking noises are usually indicative of a hard drive failing or a dirty cooling fan. Since the S.M.A.R.T. errors were also present, this indicates a hard drive failure. Additionally, the operating system failing to load is another indication that there is a hard drive issue. If the case fans or CPU fan were failing or causing an issue, the system would overheat and intermittently reboot. If the installed memory modules were mismatched, a BIOS error or POST error would be generated.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

381
Q

Question 71:
A client is attempting to power on their computer, but it keeps booting to the incorrect hard drive. Which of the following actions should you perform to attempt to fix this problem?
Unplug any external hard disks
Reconfigure the boot order within Windows
Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI
Press F8 repeatedly during the boot process to enter the boot menu

A

Unplug any external hard disksReconfigure the boot order within WindowsCorrect answerReconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFIPress F8 repeatedly during the boot process to enter the boot menuOverall explanationOBJ 5.3 - If the system still fails to boot up from the correct drive, then go into the BIOS/UEFI setup program and check the existing boot order settings. If they are in the wrong order, reconfigure them to ensure the usual boot device is listed first in the list and then restart the computer. There is no need to unplug the external hard disks since you can simply change the boot order in the BIOS. The F8 key will allow the user to choose to boot into Windows in regular or safe mode. This worked by default in Windows 7, 8, and 8.1, but need to be enabled before it will work in Windows 10. The technician cannot configure the boot order in Windows without first booting into Windows from the hard drive, so the technician would still need to reconfigure the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI first.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

382
Q

Question 72:
A user is complaining that they are hearing a grinding noise coming from their workstation. You begin to troubleshoot the issue and determine that it is not an issue with the hard drive but is instead caused by the power supply’s fan. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this issue?
Spray a little bit of WD-40 into the fan to lubricate it
Spray the fan with compressed air to remove any dirt, debris, or dust
Replace the power supply
Replace the power supply’s fan

A

Spray a little bit of WD-40 into the fan to lubricate itSpray the fan with compressed air to remove any dirt, debris, or dustCorrect answerReplace the power supplyReplace the power supply’s fanOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - If the fan in the power supply is faulty, replace the entire power supply. You should never attempt to repair or fix a broken power supply or broken power supply cooling fan due to the power supply’s high voltage electrical components. When a fan creates a grinding sounds, this is evidence of an impending failure and the device needs to be replaced. Technicians should never open a power supply or replace any of its internal components, therefore the entire power supply should be replaced in this scenario.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

383
Q

Question 73:
A client reports that their workstation is continually crashing when using certain applications on their Windows system. The system will stop working and display a BSOD error on the screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this BSOD error?
Failure of the graphics card
Failure of the power supply
Failure or corruption of the memory
Failure of the processor

A

Failure of the graphics cardFailure of the power supplyCorrect answerFailure or corruption of the memoryFailure of the processorOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a “stop screen” that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn’t cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of “stop screen,” but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes. On a Mac (OS X) system, the BSOD is replaced by the “Pinwheel of Death,” which is an endlessly spinning mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

384
Q

Question 74:
A workstation is having intermittent issues and continues to receive system errors or freeze. You believe that the problem is being caused by the workstation’s motherboard, not getting the proper amount of power to it, and you want to perform a test to confirm your theory. Which of the following tools should you use to determine if the proper amount of power is being supplied to the motherboard?
Multimeter
POST card
Loopback plug
Cable tester

A

Correct answerMultimeterPOST cardLoopback plugCable testerOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. Using a multimeter, you can determine the exact voltage being supplied to the motherboard from the workstation’s power supply. A POST card is a plug-in diagnostic interface card that displays progress and error codes generated during the power-on self-test of a computer. A loopback plug is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

385
Q

Question 75:
Which of the following is NOT an example of another name for a Crash Screen?
BSOD
Kernel Panic
DoS
Pinwheel of Death

A

BSODKernel PanicCorrect answerDoSPinwheel of DeathOverall explanationOBJ 5.3 - DoS stands for Denial of Service. It is a form of cyber attack, not a name for a crash screen. Crash screens are referred to by different names based on the operating system. BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) is used for Windows. The Pinwheel of Death is used for MacOS. Kernel Panic is used for Linux.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

386
Q

Question 76:
You are troubleshooting a Dell laptop for a customer, and you see a blank screen during boot up. You decide to plug in an external monitor to the laptop and reboot it again, but the blank screen persists. What should you attempt next?
Reboot laptop
Reboot into BIOS and ensure the display is enabled
Press Fn + F8
Press CTRL + ALT + ESC

A

Reboot laptopReboot into BIOS and ensure the display is enabledCorrect answerPress Fn + F8Press CTRL + ALT + ESCOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - Many laptops have a series of keystrokes such as FN + F8 to switch from the internal display to an externally connected screen. Since the internal display is not working, rebooting again or trying to navigate the BIOS without seeing the screen would be ineffective. Instead, trying the function key toggle that switches to an external monitor may resolve the issue temporarily while you begin to look for a long-term solution. Different manufacturers use different keystrokes, but FN + F8 is an example of the keystroke used in Dell laptops.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

387
Q

Question 77:
What is the sixth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Test the theory to determine the cause

A

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutionVerify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measuresCorrect answerDocument findings, actions, and outcomesTest the theory to determine the causeOverall explanationOBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

388
Q

Question 78:
A customer is complaining that their workstation is beginning to run slowly when many applications are opened simultaneously. Which of the following upgrades would you recommend to solve this problem?
Perform a chkdsk on their SSD
Replace their 802.11g card with an 802.11ac card
Upgrade the system from 4 GB to 16 GB of RAM
Replace their 256 GB SSD with a 1 TB HDD

A

Perform a chkdsk on their SSDReplace their 802.11g card with an 802.11ac cardCorrect answerUpgrade the system from 4 GB to 16 GB of RAMReplace their 256 GB SSD with a 1 TB HDDOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - In this scenario, we want to add more RAM. RAM is the temporary storage used for running applications. By adding more RAM, you can speed up the system when running applications simultaneously and prevent reading to the slower disk drives (SSD or HDD). Replacing an SSD with an HDD would slow down the system. Replacing the 802.11g card with an 802.11ac card would help if the customer complained of slow network connectivity, but that is not the case in this scenario. There is no need to perform a chkdsk on their SSD unless there is an error stating that there are errors in the file system.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

389
Q

Question 79:
You have been dispatched to a customer’s office to help them fix their printer. You have asked the customer what the issue is, and the customer states, “The printer will not work.” You ask a few follow-up questions to understand the situation better and ask if any error messages were displayed. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology best describes the actions you are currently taking?
Test the theory to determine the cause
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures
Identify the problem

A

Test the theory to determine the causeEstablish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solutionVerify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measuresCorrect answerIdentify the problemOverall explanationOBJ 5.1 - Based on the description in the question, it appears you are trying to gather more information about the problem and its symptoms for you to identify the problem. For the exam, you must be able to list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

390
Q

Question 80:
A customer’s computer has a noisy, whining sound coming from it when in use. You opened the case and did not see any dust on the fans. What should you attempt next to eliminate the noise?
Clean the fans using a damp cloth
Apply compressed air to each of the fans
Apply a small amount of oil to the fan’s bearings
Replace the fans

A

Clean the fans using a damp clothApply compressed air to each of the fansCorrect answerApply a small amount of oil to the fan’s bearingsReplace the fansOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - The best step would be to apply a small amount of oil to each of the fan’s bearings, as this will eliminate the noise. If the fans had been dusty, you would instead apply compressed air or clean the fan blades using a damp cloth. Since there was no dust noticed, this cannot be the whining source, and instead, you should apply oil to the bearings. Over time, dust can get into the fan bearings, causing increased friction when spinning and creating a whining sound. If this doesn’t solve the noise, then you would replace the case fans.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

391
Q

Question 81:
A client claims that their computer keeps rebooting itself without warning. Which of the following is the BEST action you should take to investigate and troubleshoot this issue?
Replace the cooling fan
Reinstall the operating system
Replace the power supply
Test the power supply

A

Replace the cooling fanReinstall the operating systemReplace the power supplyCorrect answerTest the power supplyOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - A computer that keeps rebooting itself is a symptom of a faulty power supply or a computer that is overheating. If the power supply is faulty, the computer will reboot itself. If the issue is caused by an overheating issue (such as a cooling fan failure), the computer will usually reboot itself after running for 15-20 minutes (once enough heat is built-up). Therefore, you should test the power supply first to determine if that is the root cause of the issue, and then replace the power supply, if required.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

392
Q

Question 82:
You are working as part of a PC refresh team installing 150 desktop computers in Dion Training’s new offices. When you boot up the 72nd desktop you installed, you smell a foul-smelling chemical odor. You sniff the air again and confirm the smell isn’t a burning smell. Upon opening the case, which component should you inspect for damage and expect to replace?
System fan
Motherboard
Power supply
GPU

A

System fanCorrect answerMotherboardPower supplyGPUOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - A foul smell is usually indicative of a distended capacitor. Capacitors are small electrical components on the motherboard. Therefore you should inspect the motherboard for replacement. If there was a burning smell, then the power supply should be the first component inspected.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

393
Q

Question 83:
What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Test the theory to determine the cause
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures

A

Test the theory to determine the causeDocument findings, actions, and outcomesEstablish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutionCorrect answerVerify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measuresOverall explanationOBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

394
Q

Question 84:
You are troubleshooting a video editing workstation for Dion Training that will not boot. After running diagnostic tests on the system, you determine that one of the four hard disks in the workstation’s RAID 0 array has failed. To prevent this from occurring in the future, which type of RAID should you configure that would provide the best performance and redundancy for this video editing workstation?
RAID 1 utilizes two hard drives
RAID 10 utilizes four hard drives
RAID 5 utilizes four hard drives
RAID 0 utilizes four hard drives

A

RAID 1 utilizes two hard drivesCorrect answerRAID 10 utilizes four hard drivesRAID 5 utilizes four hard drivesRAID 0 utilizes four hard drivesOverall explanationOBJ 5.3 - A RAID 10 creates a mirrored array of striped arrays. This will provide the fastest performance and the best redundancy of any option listed in this question. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

395
Q

Question 85:
A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the motherboard needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?
Incorrect date/time on the workstation
Continuous reboot
Burning smell
Distended capacitors

A

Incorrect date/time on the workstationContinuous rebootBurning smellCorrect answerDistended capacitorsOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

396
Q

Question 86:
A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the CMOS battery needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?
Incorrect date/time on the workstation
Continuous reboot
Burning smell
Distended capacitors

A

Correct answerIncorrect date/time on the workstationContinuous rebootBurning smellDistended capacitorsOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

397
Q

Question 87:
You are troubleshooting a customer’s PC. You realize there is a problem with the RAM and decided to replace the faulty module. You turn on the PC, and after a few seconds, you hear a single beep. What does hearing a single beep indicate?
Possible faulty RAM module
BIOS detected an error
BIOS completed POST
CMOS battery needs to be replaced

A

Possible faulty RAM moduleBIOS detected an errorCorrect answerBIOS completed POSTCMOS battery needs to be replacedOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - During the bootup process, a power-on self-test (POST) is performed. A single beep is commonly used to indicate the successful completion of the POST. Based on the POST results, different series of beeps may be played to indicate the status of the system. For example, if a single beep was heard, this could indicate a successful POST after a new hardware installation has been completed. Each manufacturer uses different POST codes, so it is important to consult the manual for the motherboard or BIOS in use by the system.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

398
Q

Question 88:
Users are complaining that they are unable to connect to the wireless network when seated in the breakroom. You are troubleshooting the issue and have questioned the employees in the area about the issue. You have determined that it was working properly yesterday, but this morning it stopped working. You also determined that there was a power outage earlier this morning for about 10 minutes. After gathering this information and identifying the symptoms of the problem, what should you do NEXT according to the network troubleshooting methodology?
Document findings and actions
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem
Establish a theory of probable cause
Implement preventive measures

A

Document findings and actionsEstablish a plan of action to resolve the problemCorrect answerEstablish a theory of probable causeImplement preventive measuresOverall explanationOBJ 5.1 - The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (6) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. Based on the scenario presented, you have already gathered information, questioned users, identified symptoms, and determined if anything changed, so you have completed the first step: identify the problem. Now, you should begin to establish a theory of probable cause by questioning the obvious and using a top-to-bottom, bottom-to-top, or divide and conquer approach to troubleshooting.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

399
Q

Question 89:
A customer is complaining that they smell a foul odor coming from their computer. If you open up the PC’s case and look inside, which of the following would you expect to see?
Distended capacitors
Unplugged Molex connector
Broken LED light
Unseated RAM module

A

Correct answerDistended capacitorsUnplugged Molex connectorBroken LED lightUnseated RAM moduleOverall explanationOBJ 5.2 - A distended capacitor on a motherboard is an indication of a fault on the motherboard. Capacitors can bulge and release a substance that has a foul smell when they fail. Capacitors are tiny electrical components that are soldered onto the motherboard and aid in the storage and use of DC voltage. An unplugged Molex connection, broken LED light, or unseated RAM module would not produce any kind of odor or smell.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

400
Q

Question 90:
A repeat customer is back with their laptop again. This is the third time they have dropped their laptop and caused their hard disk’s internal platter to fail. Which of the following devices should you replace their internal hard drive with to prevent this issue from occurring again?
5400 RPM HDD
NVMe
Hybrid HDD/SSD
7200 RPM HDD

A

5400 RPM HDDCorrect answerNVMeHybrid HDD/SSD7200 RPM HDDOverall explanationOBJ 5.3 - Since this customer is accident-prone, you should recommend they install an NVMe or SSD device. These solid-state devices are more resistant to drops since they have no moving parts or platters in them. A hybrid or HDD solution would not be effective as they both have moving platters in them that can be destroyed by a drop.DomainDomain 5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

401
Q

Question 1:
Which is not a type of network cable?
STP
Coaxial
Plenum
UTP

A

STPCoaxialCorrect answerPlenumUTPOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Plenum describes any type of cable with a fire-resistant jacket. Incorrect Answers: Coax, unshielded twisted pair (UTP) and shielded twisted pair (STP) are all types of network cable.DomainHardware

402
Q

Question 2:
A Class A IP address has how many locked octets?
Three
Four
Two
One

A

ThreeFourTwoCorrect answerOneOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The first octet of a Class A address, the network address, is locked. Incorrect Answers: Two, three and four are incorrect.DomainNetworking

403
Q

Question 3:
Quincy’s laser printer keeps giving “Out of memory” errors. He needs very high quality prints. What should he do?
Increase the size of the printer’s page file.
Reduce the resolution
Print in black and white
Add more memory

A

Increase the size of the printer’s page file.Reduce the resolutionPrint in black and whiteCorrect answerAdd more memoryOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Adding more printer memory will quickly fix this problem. Incorrect Answers: Reducing the resolution or printing in black and white might solve the memory issue, but would compromise the print quality. Printers don’t have page files.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

404
Q

Question 4:
Which is the best tool to identify a specific cable within a bundle of cables?
Continuity tester
TDR
Fox and Hound
Punch down tool

A

Continuity testerTDRCorrect answerFox and HoundPunch down toolOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A tone probe and tone generator, also called a Fox and Hound, can easily identify a specific cable within a bundle. Incorrect Answers: Neither a TDR nor a continuity tester can identify a specific cable in a bundle. A punch down tool is not a diagnostic tool.DomainHardware

405
Q

Question 5:
As you’re helping a user configure her e-mail over the phone, she remarks that the IP address is different than it was when she checked last week. This surprises her, since she didn’t make any changes to her TCP/IP configuration. The user has had no problems running her web browser. You immediately know that:
Her default gateway is dynamic.
Her computer is a DHCP client.
Her IP address is static.
She is running Internet Explorer.

A

Her default gateway is dynamic.Correct answerHer computer is a DHCP client.Her IP address is static.She is running Internet Explorer.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Only DHCP clients can change IP addresses dynamically. Incorrect Answers: If her IP address changed, then it is not static. The default gateway is not the issue if there is no problem browsing the Internet. Internet Explorer has no connection to the TCP/IP configuration.DomainNetworking

406
Q

Question 6:
Pamela’s laptop will start only if the AC adapter is plugged into the laptop. What component/function is most likely to cause this problem?
Bad battery
Bad AC input port on laptop
Bad flyback transformer on laptop
Bad battery interface

A

Correct answerBad batteryBad AC input port on laptopBad flyback transformer on laptopBad battery interfaceOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A laptop that works only when the AC adapter is plugged in is a sure sign of a bad battery. Incorrect Answer: If the laptop works when it is plugged in, it’s not the AC input port. Flyback transformers are a CRT component. It could be a bad battery interface on the laptop, but it is much more likely the battery itself.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

407
Q

Question 7:
What is the minimum number of drives to perform RAID 5?
1
5
2
3
4

A

152Correct answer34Overall explanationCorrect Answer: It takes a minimum of three drives to create a RAID 5 array. Incorrect Answers: One, two, four and five are incorrect. It requires two for data and one for parity.DomainHardware

408
Q

Question 8:
Tammy’s inkjet printer isn’t printing one of the colors. She should first try:
Soaking the cartridge in naphtha overnight.
Replacing the clogged cartridge.
Running the maintenance program to clear the clogged jet.
Installing a new maintenance kit.

A

Soaking the cartridge in naphtha overnight.Replacing the clogged cartridge.Correct answerRunning the maintenance program to clear the clogged jet.Installing a new maintenance kit.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: One should always try using the maintenance software first for any problem on an inkjet printer. Incorrect Answers: Maintenance kits are for laser printers. Replacing the cartridge would come after attempting to clear it with the maintenance program. Soaking the cartridge will not fix the issue.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

409
Q

Question 9:
A stand-alone printer will print a test page just fine, but it makes gobbledy-gook out of your term paper. What’s probably wrong?
Fuser error
Out of toner
Faulty driver
Missing printer interface

A

Fuser errorOut of tonerCorrect answerFaulty driverMissing printer interfaceOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The driver that is installed is probably incorrect or corrupted. That will produce a print-out that is all messed up, while printing directly from the printer itself works just fine. Incorrect Answers: The fact that the test page works shows that the printer is working fine and has toner. A missing printer interface would keep the print job from getting to the printer completely.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

410
Q

Question 10:
Which of the following cables is NOT used for networking computers?
UTP cable
STP cable
Plenum UTP cable
USB cable

A

UTP cableSTP cablePlenum UTP cableCorrect answerUSB cableOverall explanationCorrect Answer: USB cables are not used to network computers together. They are used to connect a computer to a peripheral such as a mouse or keyboard. Note: There are USB cables that exist in the world that have a small electronic circuit box in the middle of the cable that will allow you to connect two computers together. But that is a super special instance and the answer that I listed in the choices didn’t say anything about it being that type of cable. Incorrect Answers: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) and Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) are the some of the most common ways of connecting computers together in a network. Plenum UTP cable is a type of network cabling that is suitable for being installed in air ducts or plenums.DomainHardware

411
Q

Question 11:
Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual machine hosted on a PC?
Reduces the training required for employees
Reduces the power of the CPU required on the host PC
Reduces the amount of physical hardware required
Reduces the amount of RAM required on the host PC

A

Reduces the training required for employeesReduces the power of the CPU required on the host PCCorrect answerReduces the amount of physical hardware requiredReduces the amount of RAM required on the host PCOverall explanationCorrect Answer: With virtual machines, one computer can run multiple virtual systems. This means that one powerful computer can take the place of many less powerful machines. Incorrect Answers: Virtual machines generally require more training, not less. They add a layer of complexity that users need to learn. The host PC needs more RAM and a more powerful CPU, not less.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

412
Q

Question 12:
A Windows system is unable to connect to the network. A ping loopback test verifies that the network card is working. What is your next step in troubleshooting the problem?
Install the driver for the network card.
Verify that the switch is working properly.
Check to see if the link light on the NIC is on.
Run IPCONFIG.

A

Install the driver for the network card.Verify that the switch is working properly.Correct answerCheck to see if the link light on the NIC is on.Run IPCONFIG.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: The next step is to check for connectivity. Look at the link light on the NIC to see that it is on, indicating a good connection to the hub or switch. Incorrect Answers: The other options might be helpful, but they are not your next step.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

413
Q

Question 13:
Which term describes the distance between a projector and its screen?
Spread
Span
Throw
Lumen

A

SpreadSpanCorrect answerThrowLumenOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Throw is the distance from the projector to the screen. Incorrect Answers: A lumen is a unit of brightness. Span and spread are not projector related terms.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

414
Q

Question 14:
A technician is reconfiguring a mobile e-mail client for offline mode. Which of the following describes the expected time it will take to synchronize the account with the e-mail server?
It will depend on the POP settings of the e-mail server
It will depend on the SMTP settings of the e-mail server
It will depend on the time when the account was last synchronized
There is no offline mode for e-mail

A

It will depend on the POP settings of the e-mail serverIt will depend on the SMTP settings of the e-mail serverCorrect answerIt will depend on the time when the account was last synchronizedThere is no offline mode for e-mailOverall explanationCorrect Answer: If it’s been a while since the last sync, it will take longer to download the increased amount of e-mail. Incorrect Answers: The other answers will not affect the sync time for e-mailDomainMobile Devices

415
Q

Question 15:
One of the downsides to upgrading to a more powerful video card is that you may also have to upgrade the _______.
Power supply
CPU
Operating System
RAM

A

Correct answerPower supplyCPUOperating SystemRAMOverall explanationCorrect: Power supply. Higher-end video cards require more watts and also often need a six-pin PCIe video power connector. Incorrect: Your new video card might tempt you into buying applications or games that in and of themselves will require more RAM or a more powerful CPU, but the graphics card itself won’t require that. An argument could be made for needing to upgrade the OS. For example, you can’t run DirectX 10 on a Windows XP system. However, CompTIA isn’t looking for complex answers.DomainHardware

416
Q

Question 16:
Virtual machines provide the ability to do which of the following?
Share hardware resources.
Use less system memory.
Extend 32-bit machines to 64-bits.
Allow higher internet speeds.

A

Correct answerShare hardware resources.Use less system memory.Extend 32-bit machines to 64-bits.Allow higher internet speeds.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Share hardware resources is correct. A virtual machine is a software emulation of a computer system that runs on a real computer. It allows you to easily switch between different operating system configurations, but utilize the same computer hardware. Incorrect Answers: Extends 32-bit to 64-bit machines is incorrect. Allows higher internet speeds is incorrect. It only allows multiple systems to share one internet connection. Use less system memory is incorrect. Virtual machines require more system memory.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

417
Q

Question 17:
Intermittent lockups and reboots are most likely caused by ___________.
corrupted drivers.
failing power supply.
bad hard drives.
resource conflicts.

A

corrupted drivers.Correct answerfailing power supply.bad hard drives.resource conflicts.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Failing power supplies are a major cause of intermittent lockups and reboots. Incorrect Answers: The others will create lockups/reboots, but are far more predictable.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

418
Q

Question 18:
What is the maximum throughput of a SATA II drive?
1 Gbps
3 Gbps
4 Gbps
1.5 Gbps

A

1 GbpsCorrect answer3 Gbps4 Gbps1.5 GbpsOverall explanationCorrect: SATA II runs at 3 Gbps. Technically, the name of the technology is SATA Revision 2.x or SATA 3Gb/s, not SATA II. Incorrect: First generation SATA runs at 1.5 Gb. The other two answers are made up.DomainHardware

419
Q

Question 19:
Which of the following technology converts light into digital information?
Webcam
Digitizer
Microphone
Inverter

A

Correct answerWebcamDigitizerMicrophoneInverterOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The webcam converts light into digital information. Incorrect Answers: Microphones convert waves to digital information. Digitizers convert analog information to digital information. An inverter converts electrical current.DomainMobile Devices

420
Q

Question 20:
Your building has a power failure while you’re in the middle of printing several print jobs on a networked printer. When the power comes back on, you can’t get anything to print from the printer. What should you do?
Try printing from a different PC on the same network.
Delete all of the print jobs from the buffer and stop and restart the print spooler.
Try the Print command several times in your software program.
Press the Reload button on the printer.

A

Try printing from a different PC on the same network.Correct answerDelete all of the print jobs from the buffer and stop and restart the print spooler.Try the Print command several times in your software program.Press the Reload button on the printer.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: To clear the printer and begin printing again, you need to clear the buffer by deleting the existing print jobs, and then stop and restart the print spooler. Incorrect Answers: A Reload button is not an actual button.Re-trying the Print command will only add to the buffer problem. In this case, the problem is with the printer, so trying another PC won’t help.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

421
Q

Question 21:
A laptop is setup at a podium for a presentation. The presentation that is projecting extends the laptop’s desktop to the projection screen. The presenter would like it to show exactly what the laptop screen is showing. Which of the following would be the QUICKEST way to accomplish this?
Adjust the screen orientation
Use the dual display function key to switch how the laptop treats the display,
Reboot the laptop
Adjust the display setting in control panel.

A

Adjust the screen orientationCorrect answerUse the dual display function key to switch how the laptop treats the display,Reboot the laptopAdjust the display setting in control panel.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Most manufacturers provide quick use function keys that can be used from the keyboard. Incorrect Answers: Although you can use applets in the Control Panel to adjust between the dual display functions, the quickest way is to use the shortcut keys that are set up on they keyboard. The screen orientation will only change portrait or landscape. Rebooting the laptop will not change the way the laptop uses the multi-screen environment.DomainMobile Devices

422
Q

Question 22:
Tom walks into the accounting department and walks into a mess! User A can’t access the Internet, User B has forgotten her password, User C’s system is overheating to the point of smoking and the administrator is worried there might be a virus on all the systems. Whose system should he address first?
User C
Administrator
User A
User B

A

Correct answerUser CAdministratorUser AUser BOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Users C’s system is about to start on fire! Everything else can wait! Incorrect Answers: The other problems are not as important.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

423
Q

Question 23:
What is the maximum number of drive failures under RAID 6 at which the array will still function?
4
2
1
3

A

4Correct answer213Overall explanationCorrect Answer: A RAID 6 array will function with up to two drive failures. Incorrect Answers: One, three and four are incorrect. Although it will function with one, the answer asks for the maximum number.DomainHardware

424
Q

Question 24:
Which hexadecimal value is equal to 1100 in binary?
A
B
C
D

A

ABCorrect answerCDOverall explanationCorrect Answer: 1100 in binary is C in hex. Incorrect Answers: 1011 in binary is B in hex. 1010 in binary is A in hex. 1101 in binary is D in hex.DomainNetworking

425
Q

Question 25:
Which is not needed to install a virtual machine?
Virtual disk
Guest OS .iso file
Hypervisor
Optical drive

A

Virtual diskGuest OS .iso fileHypervisorCorrect answerOptical driveOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A physical optical drive isn’t necessary; the hypervisor can create a virtual optical drive from the guest OS .iso file. Incorrect Answers: The installation needs a hypervisor, a guest OS .iso file and a virtual disk.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

426
Q

Question 26:
Which is not a wireless technology used in IoT?
Zigbee
Z-wave
Ethernet
802.11

A

ZigbeeZ-waveCorrect answerEthernet802.11Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Ethernet is not wireless (and most IoT devices don’t have an Ethernet port). Incorrect Answers: 802.11/Wi-Fi, Zigbee, and Z-wave are all common wireless IoT connection schemes.DomainNetworking

427
Q

Question 27:
Which is not a wireless radio technology found in computers, tablets or phones?
NFC
Bluetooth
Infrared
RFID

A

NFCBluetoothCorrect answerInfraredRFIDOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Infrared is a rarely-used wireless technology that communicates with infrared light, not radio waves. Incorrect Answers: Bluetooth, RFID, and NFC are all wireless radio technologies.DomainNetworking

428
Q

Question 28:
Someone has placed a CMOS password on a computer and has forgotten the password. What should you do?
Clear the CMOS password by removing the shunt from the clear CMOS jumper for a few seconds.
Go into CMOS and delete the password.
Reboot the PC, holding down the CTRL key.
Boot to a floppy and FDISK the drive.

A

Correct answerClear the CMOS password by removing the shunt from the clear CMOS jumper for a few seconds.Go into CMOS and delete the password.Reboot the PC, holding down the CTRL key.Boot to a floppy and FDISK the drive.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Most motherboards have a labeled Security or Password jumper. Removing or moving the shunt for a few seconds clears any CMOS passwords. Incorrect Answers: You will not be able to enter CMOS if you don’t have the password. Holding down the CTRL key while booting won’t clear the CMOS password. You won’t be able to boot to anything if you can’t get past CMOS.DomainHardware

429
Q

Question 29:
A laser printer keeps getting a MEM OVERFLOW error. Which of the following would most likely fix the problem while still maintaining quality?
Reduce the print resolution.
Reduce the RET.
Add more RAM to the printer.
Replace the printer’s RAM.

A

Reduce the print resolution.Reduce the RET.Correct answerAdd more RAM to the printer.Replace the printer’s RAM.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Add more RAM to the printer. Incorrect Answers: Reduce the RET. This might help, but it’ll reduce the quality of your printouts and isn’t the best solution available. Replace the printer’s RAM. There’s nothing wrong with the RAM; there is just not enough of it. Reduce the print resolution. This might help, but it’s not the best solution since now you are reducing the quality of your printouts.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

430
Q

Question 30:
Which subnet mask is used with a Class B address?
255.255.255.255
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0

A

255.255.255.255255.0.0.0Correct answer255.255.0.0255.255.255.0Overall explanationCorrect: A Class B subnet mask is 255.255.0.0. Incorrect: 255.0.0.0 is a Class A subnet mask. 255.255.255.0 is a Class C subnet mask. 255.255.255.255 is the last Class E address.DomainNetworking

431
Q

Question 31:
The person responsible for maintaining the company’s laser printer is out of the office. You are told to service the laser printer. Which part of the printer should you avoid touching and why?
Fuser. One of its two rollers is a heated roller.
Toner. The toner gets to a boiling point.
Paper tray. Smudge prints cause paper jams.
Laser. The beam is very hot to the touch.

A

Correct answerFuser. One of its two rollers is a heated roller.Toner. The toner gets to a boiling point.Paper tray. Smudge prints cause paper jams.Laser. The beam is very hot to the touch.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: Fuser. One of its two rollers is a heated roller. The fuser is the only component that is hot to the touch. Incorrect Answers: Laser. While the beam is very hot to the touch, you can’t access it. And even if you could, it is not powerful enough to hurt you. Toner. The toner gets to a boiling point. The toner can be messy, but also will not hurt you. Paper tray. Smudge prints cause paper jams. The paper tray is completely safe to touch.DomainHardware

432
Q

Question 32:
Which interface is the fastest?
SATA
PATA
SCSI
NVMe

A

SATAPATASCSICorrect answerNVMeOverall explanationCorrect Answer: NVMe uses PCIe lanes and is the fastest of these interface choices. Incorrect Answers: PATA is the slowest SATA and SCSI speeds fall between NVMe and PATA.DomainHardware

433
Q

Question 33:
A user is operating a virtual machine and discovers it has been infected with malware. Which of the following applies?
The host computer will quarantine the VM automatically
The VM can be shut down with no harm to the host PC
The host computer will automatically delete the VM
The VM will crash and cause irreparable damage to the host PC

A

The host computer will quarantine the VM automaticallyCorrect answerThe VM can be shut down with no harm to the host PCThe host computer will automatically delete the VMThe VM will crash and cause irreparable damage to the host PCOverall explanationCorrect Answer: You can shut down an infected VM without fear of it harming anything on the host PC. Incorrect Answers: The host PC won’t automatically delete or quarantine an infected VM. An infected VM won’t cause damage to a host PC.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

434
Q

Question 34:
A technician needs to configure her neighbor’s iPad. The neighbor wants to access his work e-mail. The technician requires some information from her neighbor’s work IT department. Which of the following information does the technician need?
Server and gateway
IP address and domain
Server and domain
IP address and DNS

A

Server and gatewayIP address and domainCorrect answerServer and domainIP address and DNSOverall explanationCorrect Answer: The technician needs to know the neighbor’s work e-mail server and work domain name. Incorrect Answers: You don’t need to know IP address info, domain info, or DNS info to set this up.DomainMobile Devices

435
Q

Question 35:
James has replaced the CPU and added some RAM to his PC. He also blew some of the dust out of his system using canned air. When he rebooted his system, an annoying repetitive beep occurred. What was wrong?
The beep indicates a problem with his new CPU.
The beep indicates a RAM problem.
The beep indicates that he blew dust up into the power supply.
The beep indicates that his hard drive is dying.

A

The beep indicates a problem with his new CPU.Correct answerThe beep indicates a RAM problem.The beep indicates that he blew dust up into the power supply.The beep indicates that his hard drive is dying.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: A repetitive beep suggests a RAM problem. Incorrect Answers: Each motherboard manufacturer has their own beep codes, but only the RAM beep code is continuous.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

436
Q

Question 36:
Which is not a Wi-Fi capable device?
WAP
Switch
Smartphone
Tablet

A

WAPCorrect answerSwitchSmartphoneTabletOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A switch is a hard-wired network device. Incorrect Answers: WAPs, smartphones, and tablets are all Wi-Fi capable.DomainNetworking

437
Q

Question 37:
If virtually all desktop computers’ power supplies come with a fan that blows air out of the system unit, why would someone add a fan to the front or side of the system unit?
To blow hot air out of the front of the system
You have no choice, front fans are required for all ATX12V equipment.
To blow more cool air over other components
To keep the air already inside the case cooler

A

To blow hot air out of the front of the systemYou have no choice, front fans are required for all ATX12V equipment.Correct answerTo blow more cool air over other componentsTo keep the air already inside the case coolerOverall explanationCorrect: To blow more cool air over other components (like the video cards, hard drives, and motherboard). Incorrect: You want to blow air to complement the direction of the other fans. In this case, the power supply is blowing air out of the case, so the front fan needs to blow into the system unit. You do not want to try to cool the air already in the case - you need fresh, cool air. There is no standard under ATX12V that requires a front fan.DomainHardware

438
Q

Question 38:
A user on your network complains that his mouse is acting erratically. The pointer moves in the direction the user points, but it jumps and skips. What is the most probable cause? (Select two.)
The wrong mouse drivers are installed.
Static electricity.
Button overcharge.
The connection is loose or the mouse is dirty.

A

Correct selectionThe wrong mouse drivers are installed.Static electricity.Button overcharge.Correct selectionThe connection is loose or the mouse is dirty.Overall explanationCorrect Answers: The connection is loose or the mouse is dirty. Dirty mice are notorious for the jumping effect caused by dirt and dust wrapped around their rollers. The connection is loose or the mouse is dirty. A loose connection or the wrong mouse drivers can also cause the mouse to act erratically. Incorrect Answers: Button overcharge is not an actual issue. Static electricity. Static is not a known symptom of a jumpy mouse.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

439
Q

Question 39:
MAC addresses can be represented by how many hexadecimal characters?
4
16
12
8

A

416Correct answer128Overall explanationCorrect Answer: MAC addresses are made up of 12 hexadecimal characters. Incorrect Answers: Four, eight, and sixteen are incorrect.DomainNetworking

440
Q

Question 40:
Which of the following is a typical Class C address?
10.12.14.5
192.168.1.100
169.254.0.1
172.16.5.100

A

10.12.14.5Correct answer192.168.1.100169.254.0.1172.16.5.100Overall explanationCorrect: 192.168.1.100 is a typical private Class C address. Incorrect: 169.254.0.1 is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. 172.16.5.100 is a private Class B address. 10.12.14.5 is a private Class A address.DomainNetworking

441
Q

Question 41:
In laser printer technology, what occurs during the writing stage of the image formation?
The print image is transferred to the paper.
A uniform negative charge is applied to the drum.
The print image is written to the drum.
An alternating charge is applied to drum.

A

The print image is transferred to the paper.A uniform negative charge is applied to the drum.Correct answerThe print image is written to the drum.An alternating charge is applied to drum.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: The laser strikes the drum in the areas that are to be printed, giving those areas a less negative charge. This makes these areas relatively positive, so that they attract the toner. Incorrect Answers: The alternating charge answer is nonsense. A uniform negative charge is applied by the primary corona, but not during the writing stage. The image is transferred to the paper in the transfer stage.DomainHardware

442
Q

Question 42:
Which of the following displays would provide the BEST range of visible colors?
CRT
Plasma
LCD
OLED

A

CRTPlasmaLCDCorrect answerOLEDOverall explanationCorrect Answer: OLEDs are able to use LEDs that generate both light and color when supplied a current. This gives the display better perfomance, and a smaller size. Incorrect Answers: Cathode ray tube (CRT) is an older technology. Although modern, plasma screens have a smaller color gamut than OLED. LCD screen technology is also modern, however, since LCDs leak light, they do not provide as good a contrast ratio.DomainMobile Devices

443
Q

Question 43:
While trying to type, a user reports that his notebook is randomly moving the cursor or mouse, which causes him to make a lot of typing errors. What action can the technician take to solve the issue for the user?
Adjust the settings so the mouse moves at a slower rate
Adjust the settings so the mouse moves at a faster rate
Disable the mouse touch pad.
Reverse the buttons on the mouse pad

A

Adjust the settings so the mouse moves at a slower rateAdjust the settings so the mouse moves at a faster rateCorrect answerDisable the mouse touch pad.Reverse the buttons on the mouse padOverall explanationCorrect Answer: Touchpads on laptops can get bumped by your thumb or the palm of your hands as you type. Most laptops have a button or a function key that will allow you to disable the mouse touchpad. Incorrect Answers: The rate of the mouse (quick or slow) is not effecting your cursor movement. This is generally caused by your hands touching the touch pad. Reversing the buttons will not assist, as it is commonly your hands touching the touch pad.DomainMobile Devices

444
Q

Question 44:
What is the IP address of the “ localhost?”
10.12.14.16
127.0.0.1
192.168.1.1
169.254.136.32

A

10.12.14.16Correct answer127.0.0.1192.168.1.1169.254.136.32Overall explanationCorrect: The IP address 127.0.0.1 is known as localhost. It enables the computer to ping itself. Incorrect: 169.254.136.32 is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) addressTe other two answers are random valid IP addresses, but they are not the address of the localhost.DomainNetworking

445
Q

Question 45:
A virtual machine is a _______ OS running within a ________ OS.
hypervisor, host
guest, host
host, guest
guest, hypervisor

A

hypervisor, hostCorrect answerguest, hosthost, guestguest, hypervisorOverall explanationCorrect Answer: A VM is a guest operating system that runs within a host operating system. Incorrect Answers: The hypervisor manages the guest OS and the interface between the guest OS and the shared physical hardware of the host OS.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

446
Q

Question 46:
Which is not a good uses of a virtual machine?
Install 3D games.
Practice administering different operating systems.
Experiment with multiple drives without purchasing hardware.
Configure virtual networking.

A

Correct answerInstall 3D games.Practice administering different operating systems.Experiment with multiple drives without purchasing hardware.Configure virtual networking.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: While many VMs support 3D technology, resource sharing with the host OS and other VMs limits a guest’s 3D performance. Incorrect Answer: VMs are a great way to practice administering different operating systems, configure and experiment with virtual networking, and experiment with multiple drives by using virtual disks instead of purchasing more physical hard drives.DomainVirtualization and Cloud Computing

447
Q

Question 47:
Which of the following utilities is used with iOS devices to synchronize, upgrade, and restore a device to factory defaults if needed?
iMac
Safari
iTunes
Bluetooth

A

iMacSafariCorrect answeriTunesBluetoothOverall explanationCorrect Answer: iTunes is the utility for synchronizing Apple mobile devices. Incorrect Answers: An iMac is an Apple desktop computer. Safari is Apple’s Web browser. Bluetooth is a type of short-range wireless technology.DomainMobile Devices

448
Q

Question 48:
Sam sent a print job to the printer, can see it is the only one in the queue, but it is not printing. What can be done to try to get it to print?
Open the Print Spooler icon in the Control Panel, select the print job, and click the Restart button.
Open the Print Spooler icon in the system tray, select the print job, and click Restart.
Shut off the printer.
Disable the printer.
Open the Print Spooler icon in the system tray, select the print job, and click Delete.

A

Open the Print Spooler icon in the Control Panel, select the print job, and click the Restart button.Correct answerOpen the Print Spooler icon in the system tray, select the print job, and click Restart.Shut off the printer.Disable the printer.Open the Print Spooler icon in the system tray, select the print job, and click Delete.Overall explanationCorrect Answer: The Print Spooler shows up in the System Tray for all actively printing jobs. Open it and restart the print job. Incorrect Answer: There is no delete option available from the Print Spooler. Shutting off/disabling the printer would not help print. There is no Print Spooler icon in the Control Panel.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting

449
Q

Question 49:
Which of the following form factors dominates the PC industry?
CTX
AT
BTX
ATX

A

CTXATBTXCorrect answerATXOverall explanationCorrect: ATX is by far the dominant form factor. Incorrect: AT was ATX’s predecessor. BTX was an alternate form factor developed to enable better cooling, but it never caught on. CTX is not an actual form factor (yet).DomainHardware

450
Q

Question 50:
What would cause a laser printer to generate a totally black sheet?
Malfunctioning imaging laser
Low level in the toner cartridge
No power to the primary corona
No power to the transfer corona

A

Malfunctioning imaging laserLow level in the toner cartridgeCorrect answerNo power to the primary coronaNo power to the transfer coronaOverall explanationCorrect Answer: With no power to the primary corona, toner will be transferred to the entire drum, creating a totally black sheet. Incorrect Answers: Low toner would cause a lighter image to be printed, not a black one. With no power to the transfer corona, the paper would be blank. A malfunctioning laser would cause a lighter image, not a darker one.DomainHardware and Network Troubleshooting