Udemy 1 Flashcards
Question 1:
Which of the following ports is used by SNMP by default?
139
53
25
161
1395325Correct answer161Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.Domain2 - Networking
Question 2:
You are trying to select the best device to install to proactively stop outside attackers from reaching your internal network. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select?
Proxy server
Syslog server
IDS
IPS
Proxy serverSyslog serverIDSCorrect answerIPSOverall explanationOBJ-2.4: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a form of network security that detects and prevents identified threats. Intrusion prevention systems continuously monitor your network, looking for possible malicious incidents, and capturing information about them. An IPS can block malicious network traffic, unlike an IDS, which can only log them. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.Domain2 - Networking
Question 3:
Tom is running some new Cat 5e cabling in an office building to connect a few offices. The ceiling is constructed as a drop ceiling with fluorescent lights and does not have any cable trays. Due to the proximity of the fluorescent lights to the cable being run, what type of CAT 5e cable should be run?
STP
Fiber
UTP
Coaxial
Correct answerSTPFiberUTPCoaxialOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) is a type of cabling that can help prevent electrical interferences or cross-talk. A cross-talk is when electrical interference data passing through can cause CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors. A CRC is used to calculate the before and after checksum is made when transferring data. If electrical interference gets in the way, such as proximity to fluorescent light bulbs, it can cause data to be corrupted and produce an error. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) is cheaper and easier to work with but is subject to interference. Coaxial and fiber are not types of CAT 5e cabling. Coaxial and fiber are not Cat 5E cable types and cannot be used for this network.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 4:
Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access http://www.diontraining.com but can access https://www.diontraining.com?
445
443
53
80
44544353Correct answer80Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the basis for the World Wide Web. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. A client connects to the HTTP server using its TCP port (the default is port 80) and submits a resource request using a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). HTTPS (HTTP Secure) uses port 443. In this question, it states that the user can access HTTPS but not HTTP, indicating that port 80 is blocked. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.Domain2 - Networking
Question 5:
Which of the following devices have most of the same functionality as a personal computer but can be operated with a single hand?
Smartwatch
Tablet
Smartphone
Laptop
SmartwatchTabletCorrect answerSmartphoneLaptopOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: A smartphone is a device with roughly the same functionality as a personal computer operated with a single hand. Most smartphones have a screen size between 4.5” and 5.7”. Leading smartphones provide high-resolution screens. Smartphones have fast multicore CPUs, anywhere between 2 and 6 GB system memory, and 16 GB+ flash memory storage. They come with premium front and back digital cameras, input sensors like accelerometers, and Global Positioning System (GPS) chips. They can establish network links using Wi-Fi and a cellular data plan. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A smartwatch is not a replacement for a laptop or desktop, but a high-end smartphone can be.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 6:
Both Apple and Samsung have released their own version of contactless mobile payment solutions. For example, Apple Pay allows users to place their iPhone or Apple Watch within an inch of a credit card machine at a store to make a payment. Which of the following wireless technologies do these types of payment systems rely upon?
Bluetooth
Wi-Fi
Infrared
NFC
BluetoothWi-FiInfraredCorrect answerNFCOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: NFC, or near-field communication, is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 7:
Jason has just returned to his office after vacation and is attempting to access diontraining.com. He receives an error that he cannot connect to the website. He then tries to connect to the company’s local intranet server, which he can connect to without any issues. Next, he pings the IP address for diontraining.com and gets a successful connection. Finally, he tries to ping diontraining.com by its domain name, and then he receives an error. Which of the following commands should Jason enter NEXT to try and resolve this issue
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /release
ipconfig /renew
ipconfig /flushdns
ipconfig /allipconfig /releaseipconfig /renewCorrect answeripconfig /flushdnsOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: Whenever you have an issue where you can ping the server’s IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name, it has something to do with DNS. Being able to troubleshoot issues with internet connections is an important part of being an IT technician or administrator. The ipconfig /flushdns command provides you with a means to flush and reset the contents of the DNS client resolver cache. During DNS troubleshooting, if necessary, you can use this procedure to discard negative cache entries from the cache, as well as, any other dynamically added entries. Resetting the cache does not eliminate entries that are preloaded from the local Hosts file. To eliminate those entries from the cache, remove them from the hosts.ini file instead.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 8:
Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose in order to deliver virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet on a per-user license basis?
SaaS
DaaS
PaaS
IaaS
SaaSCorrect answerDaaSPaaSIaaSOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often combined with Virtual Desktop Infrastructure. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 9:
A computer technician is building a server that will run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. Which CPU technology should be selected so that the processor can utilize two logical cores?
32-bit CPU
Hyperthreading
Dedicated GPU
Multi-core processor
32-bit CPUCorrect answerHyperthreadingDedicated GPUMulti-core processorOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor. A 32-bit CPU is a hardware item and used by low-end notebooks or thin clients. A dedicated GPU is a graphics card and would not help with running multiple virtual machines.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 10:
Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?
Resource Pooling
Metered services
Rapid elasticity
On-Demand
Resource PoolingMetered servicesCorrect answerRapid elasticityOn-DemandOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization’s data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 11:
Molly enjoys playing an online MMORPG each day after work. To access the game, she simply enters the website address and logs in to begin playing. Today, she tried to access the game from her laptop at work, but she couldn’t launch the game. What is most likely causing the issue?
Incorrect NIC settings
Blocklisted by firewall
Metered services
Poor WiFi connection
Incorrect NIC settingsCorrect answerBlocklisted by firewallMetered servicesPoor WiFi connectionOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: The company firewall may be blocking any gaming-related websites and applications to improve security. Adding the website or a category of websites to the firewall’s blocklist would prevent all corporate users from accessing the content. When using cloud-based resources, it is important that all of the right ports and protocols are allowed through the firewall.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 12:
On Tuesday evening, the company just pushed a new Windows 10 security update to all of its workstations. On Wednesday morning, the help desk receives numerous complaints about the network being slower than normal. Previously, the network was baselined at 1 Gbps as each workstation uses a wired CAT 6 connection. Today, a technician ran a speed test and saw the network was only reaching speeds of 100 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the network slowdown?
The network was reconfigured from DHCP to static
The incorrect DHCP server configuration is being used
The network card drivers were updated last night
The incorrect DNS server configuration is being used
The network was reconfigured from DHCP to staticThe incorrect DHCP server configuration is being usedCorrect answerThe network card drivers were updated last nightThe incorrect DNS server configuration is being usedOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: Often, security updates, patches, and upgrades will reconfigure a network card’s drivers during a Windows security update. If this happens, the system may revert to a more generic version of the driver, decreasing speeds from 1 Gbps to 100 Mbps. The network card’s drivers should be rolled back to the previous driver to restore functionality and correct it. If there were configuration changes to the DNS or DHCP server, it would limit connectivity completely instead of simply slowing down the connection. If the network changed from DHCP to static assignments, the workstations would not get an APIPA address and would not have connected to the network at a slower speed.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 13:
Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?
427
389
443
445
Correct answer427389443445Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.Domain2 - Networking
Question 14:
Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a CAT 5e network cable?
RJ-45
F type
Molex
RJ-11
Correct answerRJ-45F typeMolexRJ-11Overall explanationOBJ-3.1: RJ-45 refers to a cable termination specification that specifies physical male and female connectors and the pin assignments of data jacks that can be used for networks and VOIP telephone cables. RJ-45 is an 8-pin/8-position plug or jack commonly used to connect computers onto Ethernet-based local area networks (LAN) and consists of two wiring schemes: T568A and T568B. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A Molex connector is used to provide power to internal components of a computer from the power supply.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 15:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name on top of the appropriate cable’s connector.)
Using the image above, which of the following correctly identifies the fiber optic connector shown as Connector C?
LC
F
ST
SC
Correct answerLCFSTSCOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: This is an LC connector. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An LC, or Lucent connector, is a small form factor connector that combines the transmit and receive cables into a single square, snap-in connector. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables, not fiber optic cables. An SC, or subscriber connector, is a general-purpose push/pull style connector that has a square, snap-in connector that latches with a simple push-pull motion. SC connectors are widely used in single-mode fiber optic systems. An ST, or straight tip, connector is a quick-release bayonet-style connector that has a long cylindrical connector.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 16:
Which of the following is used to capture the logs from different devices across the network to correlate different events across multiple servers and clients?
Proxy server
Syslog server
DNS server
DHCP server
Proxy serverCorrect answerSyslog serverDNS serverDHCP serverOverall explanationOBJ-2.4: A Syslog server is used to capture logs from different devices. It allows for the correlation of logs to simplify log review and an analyst’s ability to respond to alerts. For example, Syslog messages can be generated by Cisco routers and switches, servers and workstations, and collected in a central database for viewing and analysis. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture.Domain2 - Networking
Question 17:
Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct?
The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels
The 5.0 GHz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz
The 5.0 GHz frequency has fewer channels available than 2.4 GHz
The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHz
The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levelsCorrect answerThe 5.0 GHz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHzThe 5.0 GHz frequency has fewer channels available than 2.4 GHzThe 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHzOverall explanationOBJ-2.3: The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The longer wavelength gives it the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels as the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency.Domain2 - Networking
Question 18:
You are building a virtualization environment to host several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to the local corporate network and communicate with the host operating system, the other VMs, and the internal network clients. Still, they should not have access to the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?
Localhost
External
Internal
Private
LocalhostExternalCorrect answerInternalPrivateOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 19:
Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP?
SNMP
TFTP
HTTPS
DHCP
SNMPTFTPCorrect answerHTTPSDHCPOverall explanationOBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over TCP port 443. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.Domain2 - Networking
Question 20:
You are attempting to troubleshoot a computer for a user. When you attempt to turn on the computer by pressing the power button, the computer turns on, and the fan spins normally. There is no output displayed on the screen from the PCIe x16 video card. You turn off the computer, remove the processor and the memory, and attempt to power on the computer again. During the boot-up sequence, you do not hear any POST beep codes, but the fans still spin normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his issue?
The power supply’s voltage switch is set to 240V but the power outlet is providing 110V
The motherboard has failed and needs to be replaced
The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer
The CMOS battery needs to be replaced
The power supply’s voltage switch is set to 240V but the power outlet is providing 110VThe motherboard has failed and needs to be replacedCorrect answerThe power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computerThe CMOS battery needs to be replacedOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: If your computer won’t boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won’t start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). One of the reasons your computer won’t boot but the fans spin could be a bad processor or memory chip. To isolate this as a reason, you should remove the processor and memory and then attempt to boot up the computer and listen for a POST beep code. In this case, we could eliminate the motherboard, processor, and memory as the issue’s source since no POST beep codes were heard. Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 21:
You and your friends are hanging out in a bar downtown and notice that the entire area around the bar has a great wireless network called “Downtown Metro.” This wireless network was built by the city and currently covers about 5 square blocks of the downtown area. What type of network best classifies this wireless network?
MAN
LAN
WAN
PAN
Correct answerMANLANWANPANOverall explanationOBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. This usually works by providing municipal broadband via Wi-Fi to large parts or all of a municipal area by deploying a wireless mesh network. A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. The typical deployment design uses hundreds of wireless access points deployed outdoors, often on poles. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.Domain2 - Networking
Question 22:
You work as a computer technician for a production company that travels worldwide while filming and editing music videos. Due to the nature of video editing, you will be building a video production workstation for the company that will have the maximum amount of RAM, an 8-core CPU, a dedicated GPU, and a redundant array of solid-state devices for storage. You are now determining which power supply to install in the system. What is the MOST important characteristic to consider when choosing a power supply?
Amperage of 12V rail
Number of SATA connectors
Efficiency rating
Input voltage
Amperage of 12V railNumber of SATA connectorsEfficiency ratingCorrect answerInput voltageOverall explanationOBJ-3.5: This question provides you with many details, but the key phrase in finding the answer is in the first sentence. This computer will be traveling worldwide, and the most important consideration will be the input voltage. If you choose a 120-volt power supply, it would be destroyed if plugged into a 240-volt outlet (commonly used outside the United States). Conversely, if you use a 240-volt power supply and plug it into a 120-volt outlet, it will not function due to the lower voltage. Therefore, you need to pick a power supply with dual voltage selection capability for maximum compatibility worldwide.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 23:
Jason’s laptop display appears to be extremely dim. He set the brightness to the highest level and attempted to adjust the control, but the image still appears extremely dim. Jason notices that if he points his smartphone’s flashlight at the screen, then he can see the image better. Which of the following components on the laptop should he replace to fix this issue?
LCD panel
Graphics card
Digitizer
Inverter
LCD panelGraphics cardDigitizerCorrect answerInverterOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 24:
Dion Consulting Group is working with a new laptop manufacturer. The manufacturer wants to create the thinnest and lightest laptops in the world. To do this, they need to choose the right technology for their displays. Which technology should Dion Consulting recommend to allow for the thinnest laptop displays?
LCD
IPS
LED
OLED
LCDIPSLEDCorrect answerOLEDOverall explanationOBJ-1.2: An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A light-emitting diode (LED) display is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 25:
A customer recently purchased a touchscreen laptop to use for her schoolwork. It has been working well for about 3 weeks, but today she has brought it into your store for repair because it is not working properly. When she touches an icon on the screen, the program fails to load. You look over the laptop, and the screen appears to be fully intact with no dark blobs or spider web cracks in the panel. You attempt to operate the laptop using the touchscreen, but it appears non-responsive to your touch. You can, however, click on the icons using the laptop’s touchpad without any issues. Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?
LCD panel
GPU
Inverter
Digitizer
LCD panelGPUInverterCorrect answerDigitizerOverall explanationOBJ-1.2: The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. The LCD screen is the panel that is inside the device, which displays the image. You cannot get to the LCD without taking the device apart first. When only the touch screen is broken, you should still see what is happening on the screen, and the screen should still function as normal. When only the LCD is broken, you can still use the touchscreen, but the panel will have dark blobs or spider web cracks (or both). When both LCD and touchscreen are damaged, you may still be able to use portions of the touchscreen, and some parts of the LCD may display the image, but you will incur obvious difficulties in using the device as normal. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 26:
Susan, a computer technician, received a complaint from a client about an issue with their laptop. Based on the symptoms observed, she believes that there is an issue with the laptop’s memory. Which of the following symptoms was MOST likely observed during their troubleshooting?
Continuous reboots
POST code beeps
Incorrect time in the BIOS
Distended capacitor
Correct answerContinuous rebootsPOST code beepsIncorrect time in the BIOSDistended capacitorOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: A bad or faulty RAM module can cause system reboots, diminished system performance, and slow loading of websites and programs. This gradual deterioration of performance, especially with memory-intensive programs, may indicate a problem with the laptop’s system memory. The system memory should be tested and replaced (if needed) to allow the laptop to begin working efficiently.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 27:
Which of the following virtualization concepts refers to a VM’s ability to have memory allocated for its use?
Resource pooling
Synchronization
Virtual application streaming
Measured service
Correct answerResource poolingSynchronizationVirtual application streamingMeasured serviceOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices and share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Virtual application streaming allows an application to be delivered to a workstation from the cloud.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 28:
Dion Security Group has established a Security Operations Center (SOC) that operates 24/7. They have several 65” plasma TVs at the front of the room that are used as computer displays to show open tickets. You turned off the televisions to clean the screens and noticed that the company logo is still visible in each of the screens’ upper left corners. Which of the following should you do to correct this?
Replace the plasma TVs
Replace the video card
Replace the HDMI cable
Degauss the television
Correct answerReplace the plasma TVsReplace the video cardReplace the HDMI cableDegauss the televisionOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: The logo in the upper left corner has been burned into the display since it is a static image. This is common with plasma displays and TVs. To fix this, you need to replace the TVs. If you plan to have a lot of static content on a display, you should use an OLED or LED display instead. If burn-in was experienced on old CRT monitors, you could run a degaussing program to erase the burn-in. Unfortunately, this will not work for plasma, LED, or OLED displays, though.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 29:
Your laptop currently has a 128 GB SSD installed and currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Still, you don’t want to sacrifice data access speed for increased storage. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to store more data while maintaining fast data access speeds?
5 TB NAS
50 TB SAN
1 TB SSD
3 TB HDD
5 TB NAS50 TB SANCorrect answer1 TB SSD3 TB HDDOverall explanationOBJ-1.1: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the storage’s speed being installed and not the storage size. Therefore, we should choose the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) over the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) due to its faster speeds.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 30:
You are installing a new projector in a customer’s home theater room. After connecting the projector and powering it on, you notice some odd debris displayed on the screen. Which of the following should you do to correct this?
Replace the bulb with correct lumens
Adjust incorrect color pattern
Clean artifacts on the protective glass
Degauss the projector
Replace the bulb with correct lumensAdjust incorrect color patternCorrect answerClean artifacts on the protective glassDegauss the projectorOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: Based on the situation described, there appears to be some odd debris being displayed on the screen. This sounds like some artifacts or debris on the lens or protective glass of the projector. If this is cleaned, the image should be resolved back to a clear picture. This is the first and cheapest option to attempt. If this doesn’t work, then you may need to replace the bulb since a failing bulb can create artifacts, as well.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 31:
Samantha, a consultant, is working onsite at a large corporation’s headquarters this week. She takes out her iPad and attempts to launch an application. She notices that the application will not launch, even though she is connected to the wireless network and has properly established internet connectivity. Which of the following should she do to fix this issue and allow the application to launch properly?
Factory reset the tablet, reload the latest iOS, reinstall the application, then launch the app
Close all open applications, shut down the iPad, power on the iPad, then launch the app again
Ship the iPad back to Apple to replace it under her AppleCare warranty
Charge the battery and then try reloading the application
Factory reset the tablet, reload the latest iOS, reinstall the application, then launch the appCorrect answerClose all open applications, shut down the iPad, power on the iPad, then launch the app againShip the iPad back to Apple to replace it under her AppleCare warrantyCharge the battery and then try reloading the applicationOverall explanationOBJ-5.5: Applications often run in the background and do not get properly closed when you finish using them. This can cause them to hang and lock up when a user tries to reopen them. By closing all open applications, shutting down the iPad, then rebooting it and launching the app again will ensure that the application is freshly loaded and overcome many issues. This will ensure that the cache is cleared before attempting to reload the application. While a factory reset and iOS reload would also work, it would take much longer and cause extensive data loss on the device.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 32:
What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?
Multicast
Public
Broadcast
Loopback
MulticastPublicBroadcastCorrect answerLoopbackOverall explanationOBJ-2.5: In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems. A broadcast address is an IP address that is used to target all systems on a specific subnet network instead of single hosts. A multicast address is a logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network that are available to process datagrams or frames intended to be multicast for a designated network service. The address shown is not a broadcast or multicast address. A public address is routable over the internet but ::1 is a loopback address and therefore not publicly routable on the internet.Domain2 - Networking
Question 33:
You have been asked to fix an old computer whose CD-ROM has stopped working. The CD-ROM drive is using a 40-pin ribbon cable, and you suspect the cable is defective. Which cable should you buy to replace the cable?
SATA
eSATA
IDE
USB
SATAeSATACorrect answerIDEUSBOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: An IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) cable is an older cable interface that used to be used for the transmission of data between the motherboard and various internal devices like hard drives and CD-ROM drives. An IDE cable is a 40-pin ribbon cable that operated at relatively slow speeds (less than 50 Mbps). IDE cables were also known as PATA (Parallel ATA) cables, as opposed to SATA (Serial ATA) cables. You will rarely come across an IDE cable in use today, but if you are working on a very old computer in an office (legacy machine) then you may find one in use.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 34:
Which cellular technology is comprised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols?
5G
LTE
3G
4G
5GLTECorrect answer3G4GOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 35:
Which of the following is the MOST dangerous type of threat when using virtualization?
Rogue VM
VM escape
Virtual NIC duplication
VM sprawl
Rogue VMCorrect answerVM escapeVirtual NIC duplicationVM sprawlOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: VM escape refers to malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest or the host. As with any other software type, it is vital to keep the hypervisor code up-to-date with patches for critical vulnerabilities. VM escape is the biggest threat to virtualized systems. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. VM sprawl is the uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 36:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
PCI
PCIe x1
AGP
PCIe x4
PCICorrect answerPCIe x1AGPPCIe x4Overall explanationOBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the PCIe x1 slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. PCIe x1 slots are usually used for external input/output devices such as network interface cards. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 37:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name on top of the appropriate cable’s connector.)
Using the image above, which of the following correctly identifies the fiber optic connector shown as Connector B?
SC
ST
LC
F
SCCorrect answerSTLCFOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: This is an ST connector. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An ST, or straight tip, connector is a quick-release bayonet-style connector that has a long cylindrical connector. An SC, or subscriber connector, is a general-purpose push/pull style connector that has a square, snap-in connector that latches with a simple push-pull motion. SC connectors are widely used in single-mode fiber optic systems. An LC, or Lucent connector, is a small form factor connector that combines the transmit and receive cables into a single square, snap-in connector. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables, not fiber optic cables.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 38:
A client has a workstation with a RAID 5 configuration and reports that slower than normal performance occurs when reading/writing files to the RAID. You run a diagnostic program against the RAID, and the system passes all of the diagnostic tests without any issues. While you are running the tests, though, you heard clicking noises coming from the RAID. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the slow performance being experienced by the client?
Cooling fan
RAID controller
Hard drive
SSD
Cooling fanRAID controllerCorrect answerHard driveSSDOverall explanationOBJ-5.3: Based on the symptoms described, the RAID itself is fully functional, so the RAID controller is not causing any problems. This could be caused by a failing hard drive or the system overheating due to the slow performance. Since there is a clicking noise, this is most likely a hard drive failure since a cooling fan makes a whirring or grinding noise instead. Therefore, we can assume the RAID is made up of magnetic hard drives, and one of those hard disks is starting to fail. To replace the hard drive, you need to find a comparable drive that will work in the array, reboot the computer, and enter the RAID setup program to rebuild the array after replacing that hard drive. If you use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10, the system will continue to operate normally, but with slower performance, until you replace the hard drive and rebuild the RAID.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 39:
Your friend just gave you his old laptop. Whenever you turn on the laptop, though, a blank screen appears and asks you to enter an administrative password before the computer attempts to boot up. Unfortunately, your friend never gave you the password for this laptop. Which of the following actions should you take to resolve this issue and get past this password screen?
Remove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, then power on the laptop
Press and hold the power button down for a few minutes, then attempt to power on the laptop
Remove the laptop’s battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, and then power on the laptop
Disconnect the hard drive from the motherboard for a few minutes, reconnect it, and then power on the laptop
Correct answerRemove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, then power on the laptopPress and hold the power button down for a few minutes, then attempt to power on the laptopRemove the laptop’s battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, and then power on the laptopDisconnect the hard drive from the motherboard for a few minutes, reconnect it, and then power on the laptopOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: This blank screen asking for the administrative password appears to be a BIOS password required to be entered before the laptop is allowed to boot from the hard disk. Your best option is to clear the CMOS forcibly to remove the BIOS password from a workstation or laptop. To clear the CMOS, you must remove the CMOS battery from your computer, wait a few minutes, reinsert the CMOS battery, and then attempt to power on the computer again. This will cause the information stored in the CMOS (for example, BIOS settings and passwords) to be erased and restored to its default configuration. Removing and reinserting the laptop’s battery will not reset the BIOS password. Disconnecting and reconnecting the hard drive will not reset the BIOS password.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 40:
You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur?
Proxy server
DHCP server
DNS server
TACACS+ server
Proxy serverCorrect answerDHCP serverDNS serverTACACS+ serverOverall explanationOBJ-2.4: A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server use to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching an end user.Domain2 - Networking
Question 41:
Dion Training uses a large laser printer to print documents in its office. The laser printer has recently begun creating printouts that contain a double image or ghost image appearance to them. Jason just printed out a test page:
Which of the following components is most likely to cause a ghost image to appear on the printout such as the one above?
Toner cartridge
Scanner assembly
Drum
Fuser
Toner cartridgeScanner assemblyCorrect answerDrumFuserOverall explanationOBJ-5.6: Double images or ghost printing occurs when an image or text is repeated more than once on a printed page. This often occurs due to an issue with the drum unit. If the drum unit is not being properly charged by the corona wire, ghost prints can become a problem with the unit.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 42:
Tamera was responding to a complaint that one of the employees is having problems with the wired network connection on their laptop. She investigated the issue to see why it will not connect to the network. Tamera looked at the indicator lights, but she doesn’t see the blinking she expected to view. Instead, the light is steady. What is MOST likely the issue?
Low RF signal
Incorrect TCP/IP configuration
No network activity
Intermittent connectivity
Low RF signalIncorrect TCP/IP configurationCorrect answerNo network activityIntermittent connectivityOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: If the lights are steady on a network interface card (NIC), it indicates that there is no network activity. If it is blinking, this indicates that data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts. Since this is a wired network connection, it cannot be a low RF signal as that is a wireless network problem.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 43:
Which of the following requirements should you consider when selecting the type of processors, storage, and RAM to utilize in a virtualization environment?
Resource requirements
Security requirements
Network requirements
Emulator requirements
Correct answerResource requirementsSecurity requirementsNetwork requirementsEmulator requirementsOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: Before you purchase a system to use as a virtualization environment, you should look at the minimum requirements for all operating systems you intend to host as guest VMs. This will ensure you can balance the performance needed and maintain a smooth-running environment without numerous conflicts or issues.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 44:
Your company has recently migrated much of your data center to the cloud. Now, your boss needs a method to monitor all services used in supporting your customers to be properly billed based on their usage. Which of the following cloud computing concepts is your boss describing?
Measured services
Rapid elasticity
On-demand
Resource pooling
Correct answerMeasured servicesRapid elasticityOn-demandResource poolingOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 45:
A network technician connects three temporary office trailers with a point-to-multipoint microwave radio solution in a wooded area. The microwave radios are up, and the network technician can ping network devices in all of the office trailers. However, users are complaining that they are experiencing sporadic connectivity. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
Latency
Throttling
Split horizon
Interference
LatencyThrottlingSplit horizonCorrect answerInterferenceOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: Microwave links require a direct line of sight (LoS) between the antennas to maintain a strong and effective link. These line-of-sight microwave link uses highly directional transmitter and receiver antennas to communicate via a narrowly focused radio beam. Since this microwave-based network is being run in a wooded area, there are likely some trees or leaves that are blocking the line of sight between the antennas. To solve this issue, they should trim the trees and branches to provide a clear light of sight or move the antennas to reestablish a clear line of sight. Latency is the time delay between when a packet is sent and received. While latency will increase with an obstructed microwave line of sight link, latency is an effect of this issue and not the cause of the issue. Throttling is the intentional slowing or speeding of an internet service by an Internet service provider to regulate network traffic and minimize bandwidth congestion. This again is not a cause of intermittent connectivity, but would instead occur if the microwave link was overutilized beyond its SLA contract limitations. Split horizon is a form of route advertisement that prohibits a router from advertising back a route to the same interface from which it learned it. This does not affect the issues experienced with the microwave line. Another way to approach this question is to use the process of elimination: throttling slows down the speed, and latency slows down speed even further. Split horizon prevents loops, so it only makes sense that interference is the correct choice since interference can cause drops in connections in many situations.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 46:
Dion Training has recently purchased a new wireless printer and has asked you to configure it in their office. You have installed the necessary printer drivers on your workstation and have plugged the printer into the power outlet. You just configured the printer to connect to the guest wireless network. Next, you try to print a test page, but nothing prints out. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the printer not printing the test page?
You didn’t configure the printer to use the Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)
You forgot to configure your workstation as a print server
You didn’t enable DHCP on your workstation
You connected the printer to the guest wireless network instead of the corporate wireless network
You didn’t configure the printer to use the Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)You forgot to configure your workstation as a print serverYou didn’t enable DHCP on your workstationCorrect answerYou connected the printer to the guest wireless network instead of the corporate wireless networkOverall explanationOBJ-5.6: Most corporate wireless networks are configured as two separate networks: one for the corporate wireless network traffic and another for any guests that might connect to the wireless network while visiting your offices. These two wireless networks are isolated from each other, so if you connect the printer to the guest wireless network then the workstations will be unable to reach the printer and print out any documents or test pages.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 47:
A computer technician is replacing a failed power supply in a customer’s gaming workstation that contains multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card. Which of the following are the two most important things for the technician to consider when selecting a power supply replacement for this system? (Select TWO)
Dual rail
Number and type of connectors
Wattage rating
Dual voltage
Dual railCorrect selectionNumber and type of connectorsCorrect selectionWattage ratingDual voltageOverall explanationOBJ-3.5: The technician must ensure that they select a new power supply with a high enough wattage rating and the right number/type of connectors. Since this is a gaming workstation with several hard drives and a dedicated graphics card, it is likely to require a large wattage rating and many connectors. Wattage defines the amount of power needed to power all the hardware in the system. The number of connectors defines the number of devices that can be powered from the power supply. The number of connectors defines the types of devices that can be powered from the power supply.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 48:
What type of cloud model would allow the sharing of resources by multiple organizations to create a service that benefits all of its members?
Hybrid Cloud
Private Cloud
Community Cloud
Public Cloud
Hybrid CloudPrivate CloudCorrect answerCommunity CloudPublic CloudOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: A community cloud in computing is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns, whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. Community Cloud is a hybrid form of private cloud. They are multi-tenant platforms that enable different organizations to work on a shared platform. Community Cloud may be hosted in a data center, owned by one of the tenants, or by a third-party cloud services provider and can be either on-site or off-site. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 49:
You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of “OS not found” is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error?
Repartition the drive
Replace the HDD with an SSD
Perform a chkdsk
Repair the GPT
Repartition the driveReplace the HDD with an SSDPerform a chkdskCorrect answerRepair the GPTOverall explanationOBJ-5.3: The “OS not found” error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the ‘bootrec /fixboot’ command to fix the GPT.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 50:
What describes how many times the image on the monitor changes per second?
Frame rate
Resolution
Refresh rate
Aspect ratio
Frame rateResolutionCorrect answerRefresh rateAspect ratioOverall explanationOBJ-1.2: Refresh rate is defined by the vertical scan frequency of a monitor and how many times in one second an image can be redrawn on the screen. LCD monitors have a fixed refresh rate based on the specifications of their panel. Generally, a monitor is rated with a refresh rate of 60 Hz, 72 Hz, or 120 Hz, with the higher refresh rate being considered better quality and easier on the user’s eyes. For high-performance gaming systems, a 120 Hz monitor is desired for smoother motion and graphics. The aspect ratio is defined as the ratio of width to height in a display. The frame rate is defined as the number of times the image in a video stream changes per second as expressed in Hertz (Hz) or Frames per Second (fps). The yaw rate is a made-up term for the exam and is used as a distractor in this question. The resolution is the measure of the number of picture elements (pixels) that an imaging device can use to sample or display the image as measured in pixels per inch (PPI).Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 51:
Your desktop computer is currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to avoid having to expand again next year while still meeting your need to store more data?
1 TB SSD
5 TB NAS
3 TB HDD
50 TB SAN
1 TB SSD5 TB NASCorrect answer3 TB HDD50 TB SANOverall explanationOBJ-3.3: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the size of the storage being installed and not the storage speed. Therefore, we should choose the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) over the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) due to its larger size.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 52:
Which of the following statements about an eSATA connection is correct?
eSATA is used to add additional internal storage devices
eSATA is used to add additional external storage devices
eSATA is slower than USB 3.0
eSATA uses unshielded cables
eSATA is used to add additional internal storage devicesCorrect answereSATA is used to add additional external storage deviceseSATA is slower than USB 3.0eSATA uses unshielded cablesOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: The External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (or eSATA) is used for connecting external drives to provide additional storage. When connecting a cable to an eSATA port, you must use a shielded cable. SATA is an internal connector for adding storage, while eSATA is reserved for external use. USB 3.0 can operate at speeds up to 5 Gbps, while eSATA can operate at speeds of up to 6 Gbps.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 53:
You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the “Operating System Not Found” error on your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error?
An incompatible partition is marked as active
An unsupported version of Linux is installed
Windows Startup services are not properly running
The MBR bootloader was installed accidentally
Correct answerAn incompatible partition is marked as activeAn unsupported version of Linux is installedWindows Startup services are not properly runningThe MBR bootloader was installed accidentallyOverall explanationOBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 54:
You are connecting a laptop to a brand new digital high definition TV. Unfortunately, the laptop is a little outdated and only has an analog display output. Which of the following adapters could you use to convert the signal from analog to digital for use with the new television?
S-Video to RCA
DVI-D to HDMI
VGA to DVI-D
HDMI to VGA
S-Video to RCADVI-D to HDMICorrect answerVGA to DVI-DHDMI to VGAOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: Since this question asks you to select the converter that can convert a signal from analog to digital, you need to consider which of the connectors are analog and digital. S-Video, RCA, and VGA are all analog. HDMI and DVI-D are both digital. Therefore, the correct answer is VGA (analog) to DVI-D (Digital). HDMI to VGS would be digital to analog. S-Video to RCA would be analog to analog. DVI-D to HDMI would be digital to digital.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 55:
Which of the following types of USB connections can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device?
USB 3.0
USB 2.0
USB 1.1
USB 1.0
Correct answerUSB 3.0USB 2.0USB 1.1USB 1.0Overall explanationOBJ-3.1: USB 3.0 can support providing up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 56:
You just heard of a new ransomware attack that has been rapidly spreading across the internet that takes advantage of a vulnerability in the Windows SMB protocol. To protect your network until Microsoft releases a security update, you want to block the port for SMB at your firewall to prevent becoming a victim of this attack. Which of the following ports should you add to your blocklist?
123
445
143
514
123Correct answer445143514Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments. When the WannaCry ransomware was spreading rapidly across the internet, you could help protect your organization’s network by blocking ports 139 and 445 at your firewall to prevent your machines from getting infected over the internet. Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses port 123 and is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.Domain2 - Networking
Question 57:
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) infrastructure?
Cable modem
Software-defined networking
Digital subscriber line
Optical network terminal
Correct answerCable modemSoftware-defined networkingDigital subscriber lineOptical network terminalOverall explanationOBJ-2.2: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.Domain2 - Networking
Question 58:
You are setting up a projector and a laptop for a big presentation in the Dion Training conference room. You start up the presentation software and mirror the laptop’s display to the projector. The image on the screen from the projector is flickering intermittently, but the image on the laptop’s display is working with no issues. You attempt to change the laptop’s resolution to a lower setting and a higher setting, but still, the projector’s flickering persists. Which of the following steps should you attempt NEXT?
Ensure the display cable is securely connected to both the laptop and the projector
Ensure the project’s power cable is connected securely
Change the color depth setting on the projector
Change the aspect ratio from 16:9 to 4:3 on the laptop
Correct answerEnsure the display cable is securely connected to both the laptop and the projectorEnsure the project’s power cable is connected securelyChange the color depth setting on the projectorChange the aspect ratio from 16:9 to 4:3 on the laptopOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: A flickering image on a projector is a common issue that can occur if the display cable between the laptop and the projector is not connected securely. This is especially common with older-style display cables like VGA and DVI. Therefore, it is important to ensure a VGA or DVI cable is properly secured using the cable’s thumbscrews to prevent flickering of the image.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 59:
You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices?
POP3
IMAP
HTTPS
SMTP
POP3Correct answerIMAPHTTPSSMTPOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email’s read state. If you configure POP3, the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server’s mailbox by default. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 60:
A client reports that their workstation is continually crashing when using certain applications on their macOS system. The system will stop working and display a spinning rainbow pinwheel on the screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error?
Failure of the graphics card
Failure of the processor
Failure or corruption of the memory
Failure of the power supply
Failure of the graphics cardFailure of the processorCorrect answerFailure or corruption of the memoryFailure of the power supplyOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: On a Mac (OS X) system, the “Pinwheel of Death” is used to indicate an error. The pinwheel appears as an endlessly spinning rainbow mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system. The pinwheel is like the BSOD used in Windows. The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a “stop screen” that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn’t cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of “stop screen,” but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 61:
You are configuring a new client workstation on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?
APIPA
Link-local
Static
Dynamic
APIPALink-localStaticCorrect answerDynamicOverall explanationOBJ-2.5: A dynamic IP address should be used for client workstations and devices to ensure they are easy to configure and less prone to human error. When configuring a dynamic IP address, the DHCP server should issue the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address to the workstation or device. A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.Domain2 - Networking
Question 62:
Which cloud computing concept is BEST described as focusing on the replacement of applications and programs on a customer’s workstation with cloud-based resources?
PaaS
DaaS
SaaS
IaaS
PaaSDaaSCorrect answerSaaSIaaSOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 63:
Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop?
10,000 rpm
7200 rpm
15,000 rpm
5400 rpm
10,000 rpm7200 rpm15,000 rpmCorrect answer5400 rpmOverall explanationOBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 64:
Tim, a help desk technician, receives a call from a frantic executive who states that their company-issued smartphone was stolen during their lunch meeting with a rival company’s executive. Tim quickly checks the MDM administration tool and identifies that the user’s smartphone is still communicating with the MDM, and displays its location on a map. What should Tim do next to ensure the stolen device’s data remains confidential and inaccessible to the thief?
Identify the IP address of the smartphone
Remotely encrypt the device
Perform a remote wipe of the device
Reset the device’s password
Identify the IP address of the smartphoneRemotely encrypt the deviceCorrect answerPerform a remote wipe of the deviceReset the device’s passwordOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: To ensure the data remains confidential and is not accessed by the thief, Tim should perform a remote wipe of the device from the MDM. This will ensure any corporate data is erased before anyone accesses it. Additionally, Tim could reset the device’s password, but if the thief can guess or crack the password, they would have access to the data. Identifying the smartphone’s IP address is not a useful step in protecting the data on the device. Additionally, devices should be encrypted BEFORE they are lost or stolen, not after. Therefore, the option to remotely encrypt the device is provided as a wrong answer and a distractor.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 65:
What type of connector provides power to an internal hard drive from the computer’s power supply using a 4-pin connector?
SATA
Molex
SCSI
Thunderbolt
SATACorrect answerMolexSCSIThunderboltOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: A Molex connector provides DC power to the various drives inside a computer case. Molex and Mini-Molex are both 4-pins connectors, with Mini-Molex only being used to support floppy disk drives. The large-sized one is used for hard disk drives, CD-ROM drives, and DVD drives. SATA connectors have 15 pin and 7 pin varieties. Thunderbolt has 20 and 24 pin varieties. SCSI has 50 and 36 pin varieties.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 66:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
Mini PCIe
Reset jumper
CMOS battery
Memory slot
Mini PCIeReset jumperCorrect answerCMOS batteryMemory slotOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the CMOS battery on this motherboard. The CMOS battery is used to keep power to the BIOS configurations, such as the date and time, when the power is removed from a desktop or workstation. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 67:
Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 480 Mbps?
USB 2.0
USB 1.0
USB 1.1
USB 3.0
Correct answerUSB 2.0USB 1.0USB 1.1USB 3.0Overall explanationOBJ-3.1: USB 2.0 can support data rates up to 480 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 68:
Jason booted up a Windows 10 laptop and noticed that the icon appeared very large and the image appeared blurry. What is the most LIKELY cause of these issues?
Incorrect color depth
Incorrect resolution
Incorrect cable used
Faulty digitizer
Incorrect color depthCorrect answerIncorrect resolutionIncorrect cable usedFaulty digitizerOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, if the computer rebooted into Safe Mode, it will default back to 800x600 pixel resolution instead of the 16:9 ratio of 1920x1080 pixels used by modern laptops. This is also referred to as VGA mode.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 69:
Which of the following DC voltages are not found within a printer when the laser printer converts AC power into DC power for use?
+24 VDC
-5 VDC
+5 VDC
-24 VDC
ERROR!
Question 70:
Which of the following synchronization methods does NOT work with Android devices?
iTunes
Flickr
Office 365
Google Workspace
Correct answeriTunesFlickrOffice 365Google WorkspaceOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: Android can not use iTunes to perform synchronization functions. The iTunes application only works with Apple devices, such as iPhones and iPads. Android devices can use Google Workspace with Gmail to sync emails and contacts. Android devices can also use Office 365 to sync emails, contacts, and other files if you are a Microsoft subscriber. Android devices can use Flickr to sync photos.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 71:
Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations?
13
11
6
1
Correct answer131161Overall explanationOBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.Domain2 - Networking
Question 72:
You work for the city’s Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV). There are five DMV locations spread out across the city that you have been asked to connect with a network. You have created a list of requirements for this network, including that it must be wired and support at least 1 Gbps of bandwidth. Which of the following network types would MOST likely be used for the DMV to connect their internal networks across the city securely?
LAN
PAN
MAN
WAN
LANPANCorrect answerMANWANOverall explanationOBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. This is the most appropriate choice based on the requirements provided. MAN is a term applied to the interconnection of local area networks (LANs) or campus area networks (CANs) across a city into a single larger network. A MAN is larger than a CAN or LAN but smaller than a WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.Domain2 - Networking
Question 73:
A customer contacts the service desk because their laptop will not power on when plugged in, and the battery is dead. The service desk replaces its battery, connects it to a different power adapter, and the laptop works all day until the battery runs out. Now, the laptop won’t turn on, and the battery won’t charge. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue?
Replace the power adapter
Replace the battery
Connect the laptop to a 220v outlet
Replace the DC jack
Replace the power adapterReplace the batteryConnect the laptop to a 220v outletCorrect answerReplace the DC jackOverall explanationOBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates that the DC jack is faulty. Since the battery was replaced and the laptop continues to work, this indicates it isn’t a battery issue but is, instead, most likely a DC jack issue. The DC jack often gets broken on a laptop, and if the jack is broken, the device cannot charge or receive power from the power adapter or wall outlet.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 74:
Which of the following is an open-source wireless communication protocol operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation?
Z-Wave
Zigbee
Bluetooth
NFC
Z-WaveCorrect answerZigbeeBluetoothNFCOverall explanationOBJ-2.4: Zigbee is an open-source wireless communication protocol used for home automation. Zigbee is open-source, unlike Z-Wave, which is proprietary. Zigbee uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. This higher frequency allows more data bandwidth at the expense of range than Z-Wave and the greater risk of interference from other 2.4 GHz radio communications. Zigbee supports more overall devices within a single network (65,000 compared to 232 for Z-wave), and there is no hop limit for communication between devices. Z-wave is a low-power wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-wave uses radio frequencies in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz frequency ranges. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.Domain2 - Networking
Question 75:
During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true?
Both a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtime
A virtual machine has more downtime than a physical server
A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server
A virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancing
Both a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtimeA virtual machine has more downtime than a physical serverCorrect answerA virtual machine has less downtime than a physical serverA virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancingOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 76:
You are building a Desktop PC for a newly hired employee at Dion Training. The computer’s motherboard doesn’t have a wireless network adapter integrated into it, so you need to purchase an expansion card to provide this functionality. Which of the following motherboard connections will most likely be used to connect the wireless network adapter card?
PCIe x1
PCIe x16
AGP
eSATA
Correct answerPCIe x1PCIe x16AGPeSATAOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has several PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Network adapters and Wi-Fi network cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x1 expansion slots or a USB connection for their connectivity. Graphics cards usually rely on a PCIe x16 expansion slot. eSATA is an external SATA port used to connect an external storage device such as a hard drive. The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 77:
Which of the following locations are you likely to find the antenna wires located within a laptop or mobile device?
Connected externally via USB
Located under the keyboard
Laying on top of the battery
Positioned around the display panel
Connected externally via USBLocated under the keyboardLaying on top of the batteryCorrect answerPositioned around the display panelOverall explanationOBJ-1.2: The antenna wires for the wireless cards and cellular radios are usually routed around the screen within the casing of the laptop or mobile device. The antenna connections can be tricky to install/remove and are delicate. When updating or replacing a wireless or cellular card, the technician must be careful to reconnect the antenna wires and reinstall them in the proper location. External antennas are available only when connected to an external wireless card.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 78:
Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv4 address?
192.168.1.254
::1
192:168:1:55
00:AB:FA:B1:07:34
Correct answer192.168.1.254::1192:168:1:5500:AB:FA:B1:07:34Overall explanationOBJ-2.5: An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.Domain2 - Networking
Question 79:
A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the power supply needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?
Continuous reboot
Distended capacitors
Incorrect date/time on the workstation
Burning smell
Continuous rebootDistended capacitorsIncorrect date/time on the workstationCorrect answerBurning smellOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 80:
You just rebooted your Windows 10 workstation, and the desktop’s background picture looks strange. Upon closer examination, you notice that only a few hundred unique colors are being shown in the image. Which of the following settings should you reconfigure?
Color depth
Refresh rate
Resolution
App size
Correct answerColor depthRefresh rateResolutionApp sizeOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536 colors), 24-bit (16.7 million colors), or 32-bit (4.2 billion colors).Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 81:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
USB connector
Audio connector
Reset jumper
Fan power
USB connectorAudio connectorCorrect answerReset jumperFan powerOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the reset jumper on this motherboard. A reset jumper is a small plastic block with a metal connection inside. To reset the motherboard’s BIOS, you would connect the jumper over this area to make an electrical connection between the two pins. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 82:
Your computer keeps losing track of time and the date in the system. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this issue?
The memory is corrupted
The power supply is faulty
The motherboard’s device drivers need to be updated
The CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced
The memory is corruptedThe power supply is faultyThe motherboard’s device drivers need to be updatedCorrect answerThe CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replacedOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: Most motherboards (especially older ones) have a small coin-sized battery installed on them to power the CMOS RAM when the computer is powered down. This is where the BIOS settings and date/time are saved when power is removed from a workstation. If a computer continually loses track of the day/time, this is a classic sign that the CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced. Please note that some newer motherboards have replaced the need for a CMOS battery by replacing it with an area of nonvolatile memory used instead to store the BIOS settings and the date/time.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 83:
Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default?
3389
389
53
427
3389Correct answer38953427Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.Domain2 - Networking
Question 84:
You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to send their emails when out of the office. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to send their mail?
IMAP
SMTP
POP3
HTTPS
IMAPCorrect answerSMTPPOP3HTTPSOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: You should configure SMTP since it is the only protocol used to send emails. POP3 and IMAP are used to receive emails. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 85:
Johnny is trying to download a file from a remote FTP server but keeps receiving an error that a connection cannot be opened. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve the problem?
Flush the DNS cache on the local workstation
Ensure that port 20 is open
Validate the security certificate from the host
Ensure that port 161 is open
Flush the DNS cache on the local workstationCorrect answerEnsure that port 20 is openValidate the security certificate from the hostEnsure that port 161 is openOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: Executing an FTP connection from a client is a two-stage process requiring the use of two different ports. Once the user enters the name of the server and the login credentials in the FTP client’s authorization fields, the FTP connection is attempted over port 21. Once the connection is established, FTP sends the data over port 20 back to the client from the server. For FTP to function properly, you should have both ports 20 and 21 open.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 86:
Dion Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize?
Coaxial
Shielded
Plenum
Fiber
Correct answerCoaxialShieldedPlenumFiberOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: A coaxial cable is a cable used to transmit video, communications, and audio. A coaxial or coax cable is most commonly used as a cable to connect a TV to a cable TV service. Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). An optical fiber consists of an ultra-fine core of glass to carry the light signals surrounded by glass or plastic cladding, which guides the light pulses along the core, and a protective coating. The fiber optic cable is contained in a protective jacket and terminated by a connector. Fiber optic cables use light signals to carry data across a cable at extremely high bandwidths.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 87:
Which of the following technologies can provide the precise latitude and longitude of a device’s location when it is located outdoors?
GPS
Bluetooth
Wi-Fi
Cellular
Correct answerGPSBluetoothWi-FiCellularOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device’s GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters. Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device’s location within 1-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device’s location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS).Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 88:
The touch screen on your Windows 10 laptop is not working properly. You have been asked to troubleshoot the laptop. What should you check FIRST?
Device manager
System configuration
Digitizer settings
Performance monitor
Device managerSystem configurationCorrect answerDigitizer settingsPerformance monitorOverall explanationOBJ-5.5: Most laptops have a digitizer and an LCD screen if they are touchscreen devices. The digitizer is a piece of glass glued to the LCD’s surface and is used to capture your touches and translate them into input for your system. If the touch screen is not working, but the display doesn’t look cracked or broken, this is often a sign that the digitizer settings are incorrect or the digitizer is defective.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 89:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.)
Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as J?
eSATA
USB 3.0
FireWire
USB 2.0
eSATAUSB 3.0FireWireCorrect answerUSB 2.0Overall explanationOBJ-3.1: These ports are the USB 2.0 connections. This is indicated by their black color (instead of being red or blue for USB 3.0 ports). Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 90:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
Memory slot
CPU slot
Mini PCIe
CPU power
Memory slotCorrect answerCPU slotMini PCIeCPU powerOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the CPU slot. This is where the processor is installed into the motherboard. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 1:
A customer is trying to configure an 802.11b wireless card in an old laptop to connect to an 802.11g wireless router. When the customer scans for the wireless network’s SSID (Dion-Corp), it is not displayed within Windows. What is the MOST likely reason that the SSID is not being displayed?
The wireless router is not configured for DHCP support
802.11g and 802.11b use different frequencies
The wireless router is configured with WPA2 encryption
The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router
The wireless router is not configured for DHCP support802.11g and 802.11b use different frequenciesThe wireless router is configured with WPA2 encryptionCorrect answerThe broadcast is disabled on the wireless routerOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: If the SSID (Secure Set Identifier) is disabled, then the wireless network name will not be broadcast to any available devices within range. Both Wireless B and G use the same frequency band (2.4 GHz) and would not cause this issue. Similarly, encryption that is enabled or disabled would not affect the SSID broadcast since the SSID is sent out in cleartext. DHCP support is used once a device connects to the network. Therefore it would not affect the SSID broadcast.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 2:
The printer in the Dion Training offices routinely has issues anytime there is a power outage. The printer is a multi-function, network-enabled printer that connects directly to the network switch using a CAT 5e cable. Which of the following should you do to resolve this continuing issue?
Disable the SSID broadcast on the wireless access point
Rollback the print drivers on the print server
Update the print drivers on each employee’s machine
Configure a static IP for the printer
Disable the SSID broadcast on the wireless access pointRollback the print drivers on the print serverUpdate the print drivers on each employee’s machineCorrect answerConfigure a static IP for the printerOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: Since the problem always occurs after a power outage, the printer is likely turning on faster than the DHCP server. This could lead to the printer not getting a new IP address properly or the clients not locating the printer on the network. Therefore, you should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 3:
Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow for both onsite systems and cloud services to work together seamlessly. What type of cloud model should you recommend?
Private Cloud
Community Cloud
Public Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
Private CloudCommunity CloudPublic CloudCorrect answerHybrid CloudOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: A hybrid cloud model allows for the seamless integration of both onsite and cloud services to the end-user simultaneously. Hybrid clouds can be cost-efficient, flexible, easy to migrate to a complete cloud solution in the future, and require less maintenance than completely onsite options. As with all cloud options, the contents must be properly secured due to the elastic storage nature of all cloud solutions and the possibility of data remnants. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 4:
Which of the following types of networking hardware is installed in a computer or server to connect to an ethernet switch using a CAT 6 cable?
Cable modem
Digital subscriber line
Network interface card
Optical network terminal
Cable modemDigital subscriber lineCorrect answerNetwork interface cardOptical network terminalOverall explanationOBJ-2.2: A network interface card is an expansion card that enables a PC to connect to a LAN. Network interface cards are also referred to as network adapters. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.Domain2 - Networking
Question 5:
Which of the following cables supports both charging and data transfer with a non-directional connector inserted into a port on the device?
Mini-USB
USB-C
USB-A
Micro-USB
Mini-USBCorrect answerUSB-CUSB-AMicro-USBOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: USB-C can be inserted in any direction since it is designed as a non-directional connector. There are many other variations of USB cables in use today such as Micro-USB, Mini-USB, USB-A, and USB-B that can only be inserted into the port in a single direction due to the physical shape of their connector. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 6:
Which of the following types of power supplies allows the installer to attach or remove cables from the power supply as needed to reduce cable clutter inside the computer’s case?
Dual voltage power supply
Modular power supply
Redundant power supply
750 watt rated power supply
Dual voltage power supplyCorrect answerModular power supplyRedundant power supply750 watt rated power supplyOverall explanationOBJ-3.5: A modular power supply will allow the user to attach or detach cables to the power supply as needed. This helps reduce the cable clutter inside of the case and increases airflow for cooling. A redundant power supply is when a single piece of computer equipment operates using two or more physical power supplies. Each of the power supplies will have the capacity to run the device on its own, which will allow it to operate even if one goes down. A 750-watt power supply is commonly used in gaming computers since they have high-powered graphics cards. A dual voltage power supply allows the power supply to use either 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 7:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.)
Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as K?
SPDIF
Audio cluster
RG-6
DVI-I
SPDIFCorrect answerAudio clusterRG-6DVI-IOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: This port is the audio cluster on the rear of this motherboard. This contains the audio inputs and outputs in mini-jack format. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 8:
What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Test the theory to determine the cause
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures
Test the theory to determine the causeEstablish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutionDocument findings, actions, and outcomesCorrect answerVerify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measuresOverall explanationOBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 9:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the motherboard.)
Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?
CPU slot
AGP
Mini PCIe
CMOS battery
CPU slotAGPCorrect answerMini PCIeCMOS batteryOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the Mini PCIe slot. Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. These slots can also be used to connect motherboard mounted solid-state storage devices. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 10:
What is the simplest and most cost-efficient way to allow other network users to access a printer if the printer does not have an RJ-45 or WiFi adapter available?
Establish a print share on the local host
Establish a printer share on the network switch
Order another printer with network capabilities and share it on the network
Order a printer port converter to share a non-networked printer
Correct answerEstablish a print share on the local hostEstablish a printer share on the network switchOrder another printer with network capabilities and share it on the networkOrder a printer port converter to share a non-networked printerOverall explanationOBJ-5.6: The simplest and most cost-efficient way to share a printer is to share the printer via the local host and allow sharing across everyone to access the printer. While this costs nothing to establish and requires no additional hardware, it does require that the local host remains on 24 hours a day so that others can print to it at any time. If you are willing to spend a little money, though, you can purchase a wireless print server or a new network-capable printer instead.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 11:
Jason recently purchases a wearable fitness tracker to count the number of steps he is taking each day. Which of the following technologies is used to determine how many steps he takes each day?
Accelerometer
Digitizer
Inverter
NFC
Correct answerAccelerometerDigitizerInverterNFCOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: Most wearable fitness devices come with a 3-axis accelerometer to track movement in every direction. Some more advanced trackers will also use a gyroscope to measure the orientation and rotation of the device. However, the accelerometer is still the crucial component to measure the activity of the user. The data collected is then converted into steps and activity and from then into calories and sleep quality. Near field communications (NFC) is a standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radio communications over very short (around 4”) distances that facilitate contactless payment and similar technologies. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 12:
Which of the following ports is used for the request and distribution of DHCP configuration information?
80
162
67
53
80162Correct answer6753Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper).Domain2 - Networking
Question 13:
While troubleshooting a switch at the Dion Training offices, you believe that one of the ports on a switch is defective. To prove your hypothesis, which of the following tools should you use?
Punchdown tool
Cable tester
Crimper
Loopback plug
Punchdown toolCable testerCrimperCorrect answerLoopback plugOverall explanationOBJ-2.8: A loopback plug is used to test a port. It involves connecting pin 1 to pin 3 and pin 2 to pin 6. You can do this either by rewiring the jack or twisting the relevant pairs together on a cable stub. Alternatively, you can purchase a prefabricated loopback plug. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack.Domain2 - Networking
Question 14:
Which of the following cellular technologies was not widely used outside of the United States?
3G
GSM
CDMA
4G
3GGSMCorrect answerCDMA4GOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. CDMA was only popular in the United States with a few providers (Verizon and Sprint). Most of the world instead uses GSM. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 15:
An auto mechanic needs to purchase a new printer for their shop. The printer will be used to create estimates and invoices for their customers. The printer must support the ability to create duplicate invoices using multiple sheets of paper separated by carbon paper using tractor-fed paper. Which of the following types of printers should be used?
Inkjet
Laser
Impact
Thermal
InkjetLaserCorrect answerImpactThermalOverall explanationOBJ-3.7: An impact or dot-matrix printer is an older type of printer that works by pressing a ribbon of ink onto the top sheet of paper using a series of dots. This is called an impact printer because it pushes the ribbon against the paper to create the image or text using a series of dots to create the image or text. These printers are most commonly used when multiple copies of a document must be created at once (like a 3-part form or contract to be signed). As these older printers are being retired and it is harder to find impact printers to purchase, most organizations are now switching to laser or inkjet printers and requiring customers to sign multiple copies of the same invoice after they are printed using a laser printer. Thermal printers are commonly used for receipts such as those at the grocery store or a restaurant.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 16:
Jason is attending the CompTIA Partner’s Summit convention this year. While at the conference, Jason will need to ensure his smartphone has enough battery power to last the entire day without having to recharge it since it is hard to find an available electrical outlet in the conference rooms. Jason needs to ensure his smartphone is always available for use to receive updates from his team back home, as well. Which of the following would you recommend Jason use to ensure he can use the phone all day without his smartphone running out of power?
Use a wireless charging pad
Set the smartphone to airplane mode
Use a smartphone case with a built-in battery
Bring a power strip so that more than one person can use an electrical wall outlet
Use a wireless charging padSet the smartphone to airplane modeCorrect answerUse a smartphone case with a built-in batteryBring a power strip so that more than one person can use an electrical wall outletOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: To extend the device’s battery life and enable Jason to use it continuously throughout the day, it is recommended that he use a smartphone case with a built-in battery. These cases can provide enough battery power for an additional 8-12 hours of use. A wireless charging pad is a bad choice since you cannot easily use the phone while it is on the charger, and the charger still needs a power source (like an outlet). A power strip would also be a poor choice because it assumes there is a wall outlet available. Airplane mode is a bad choice because it may reduce the power needed (and therefore extend the battery life), but it also will prevent any connectivity over the cellular network.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 17:
Which of the following ports are used by the NetBIOS protocol to share files and printers on a Windows network? (Select ANY that apply)
110
443
21
139
11044321Correct answer139Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21.Domain2 - Networking
Question 18:
You want to build a virtualization workstation that will be used to run four different server operating systems simultaneously to create a test lab environment. Each guest operating system only requires 20 GB of storage on the host workstation. Which of the following is the MOST important piece of hardware needed for this system to run efficiently?
Dedicated GPU
ATX motherboard
Multi-core processor
5400 RPM hard disk drive
Dedicated GPUATX motherboardCorrect answerMulti-core processor5400 RPM hard disk driveOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: For a virtualization workstation, it is important to have a fast processor with multiple cores. In addition to a multi-core processor, it is good to have lots of memory and a fast HDD (but not necessarily a large HDD). A dedicated GPU (graphical processing unit) is not important for a virtualization workstation. Many virtualized servers run in text-only mode or with a headless display, making a dedicated GPU a poor choice.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 19:
Jason presents a “how to pass your certification exams on the first attempt” lesson for his students using an overhead projector. After 24 minutes, the project goes blank. Jason allows the students to take a 15-minute coffee break while he attempts to turn the project back on. The project runs for another 4 minutes and then turns off again. What is MOST likely wrong with the projector and the laptop setup?
The laptop’s display driver needs to be updated
The projector is overheating
The sleep setting on the laptop is too short
The HDMI cable is unplugged
The laptop’s display driver needs to be updatedCorrect answerThe projector is overheatingThe sleep setting on the laptop is too shortThe HDMI cable is unpluggedOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: The most likely cause is that the projector is overheating. A faulty or clogged cooling fan could cause this. If the projector overheats, it will turn off the projector’s bulb to reduce the machine’s heat load. The laptop’s sleep setting is not the cause since it is randomly turning off at different amounts of time.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 20:
You are traveling to Thailand on a business trip. Your laptop’s touchscreen display is visibly flickering between being too bright and too dim when plugged into the power outlet at a local coffee shop. You take your laptop to your hotel room, and you notice it doesn’t flicker when plugged in there. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
The coffee shop was experiencing power fluctuations that led to the flickering of the display
The battery of the laptop is failing to charge
The inverter of the laptop is faulty
The digitizer of the laptop is faulty
Correct answerThe coffee shop was experiencing power fluctuations that led to the flickering of the displayThe battery of the laptop is failing to chargeThe inverter of the laptop is faultyThe digitizer of the laptop is faultyOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: Since the only change between the flickering and non-flickering was the change in location and the power source, it is likely the cause of the issue. In some areas of the world, power is less stable and reliable than in more industrialized countries like the United States, Canada, England, and Japan. Some locations around the world have less reliable power that is subject to more power fluctuations. Flicker is a visible change in a lamp’s brightness due to rapid fluctuations in the power supply voltage. The voltage drop is generated over the grid’s source impedance by the changing load current of equipment or facility. These fluctuations can generate the visible flicker noticed by the user of the device.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 21:
Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?
802.3af
802.11s
802.11ac
802.3at
Correct answer802.3af802.11s802.11ac802.3atOverall explanationOBJ-2.2: Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.Domain2 - Networking
Question 22:
Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101?
Hub
Unmanaged switch
Router
Wireless access point
HubUnmanaged switchCorrect answerRouterWireless access pointOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 23:
You want to build a new gaming computer but intend to reuse as many of the parts as possible from your old computer. You have determined that the motherboard and the case will be reused, and you will purchase a new graphics card, sound card, network interface card, and a USB 3.0 expansion card to increase your system’s overall speed and performance. You are a bit worried that your old computer’s power supply may not be able to support all of these new expansion cards. Which of the following cards is MOST likely to consume the most power during operations and require you to purchase a new power supply to support it?
Sound card
NIC
USB 3.0
Graphics card
Sound cardNICUSB 3.0Correct answerGraphics cardOverall explanationOBJ-3.5: The power consumption of today’s graphics cards has increased a lot. The top models demand between 110 and 270 watts from the power supply; in fact, a powerful graphics card under full load requires as much power as the rest of the components of a PC system combined. If your old computer didn’t have a dedicated graphics card, it is unlikely that the power supply will be powerful enough to support one without replacing the power supply. Most business computers have a 300-watt power supply. Most low-end gaming computers have a power supply of 450 to 500 watts. If you are building a high-end gaming workstation, you may require a power supply with 750 watts to 850 watts to support all processing power, graphics processing, and other expansion cards installed in the system.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 24:
Which of the following technologies would allow your laptop to share content with a mobile device wirelessly using touchless transfer?
NFC
NVMe
USB-C
mPCIe
Correct answerNFCNVMeUSB-CmPCIeOverall explanationOBJ-1.1: Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 25:
You have just installed a second monitor for a salesperson’s workstation. The user wants to clone the display so that both monitors show the exact same image. This will allow them to see one of the displays while their customer sees the other from across their desk. When you connect the second monitor and clone the display, the second monitor displays text twice as large as the other monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure?
Extended mode
Resolution
Color depth
Refresh rate
Extended modeCorrect answerResolutionColor depthRefresh rateOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen’s resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur. The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 26:
A user has reported that their workstation is running slowly. You perform a reboot of their workstation and receive a S.M.A.R.T. error during the boot-up process. Which of the following actions should you perform FIRST?
Run chkdsk
Backup the hard drive
Reformat the hard drive
Run diskpart
Run chkdskCorrect answerBackup the hard driveReformat the hard driveRun diskpartOverall explanationOBJ-5.3: S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 27:
You have been asked to set up the email on a corporate laptop. The employees of Dion Training are only allowed to receive their email on one device. The email should be removed from the server’s mailbox whenever the client connects to the server to download the messages. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow an employee to receive their mail on their laptop and meet these requirements?
POP3
HTTPS
SMTP
IMAP
Correct answerPOP3HTTPSSMTPIMAPOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: You should configure POP3 because the mail is downloaded to the device and removes mail from the server’s mailbox by default. IMAP does not remove the mail from the server when the client connects but instead maintains a copy on the server indefinitely until the user forces it to be deleted. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 28:
Jason is teaching a CompTIA course at a large company, but they do not allow non-employees to connect to their network. Since Jason needs the Internet for an in-class demonstration, he connects his laptop to his iPhone over Wi-Fi and essentially connects to the Internet using the smartphone as a modem. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration?
Tunneling
Baseband update
Hotspot
USB tethering
TunnelingBaseband updateCorrect answerHotspotUSB tetheringOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: A portable hotspot is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users. Most smartphones can conduct wireless tethering as a form of creating a hotspot. Tethering uses the cellular data plan of a mobile device to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi (a mobile hotspot). One method of doing this is to connect the laptop to the device using a Wi-Fi connection and routing all of your data from your laptop to the phone over Wi-Fi and then from the phone to the Internet using the phone’s built-in cellular modem. A tunneling (or encapsulation) protocol wraps up data from one protocol for transfer over a different type of network. For example, PPP can carry TCP/IP data over a dial-up line, enabling a remote computer to communicate with the LAN. A baseband update is the modification of the firmware of a cellular modem.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 29:
Jason is building a new gaming computer for his son. Jason has calculated that the required wattage needed is 420 watts to the video card and all of the other internal devices. Which of the following power supplies should Jason purchase to meet the minimum power requirements for this computer?
525 W
350 W
750 W
250 W
Correct answer525 W350 W750 W250 WOverall explanationOBJ-3.5: When purchasing a new power supply, it is important to understand the wattage requirements. Since the new computer needs a minimum of 420 watts of power, you must find a power supply that is large enough to meet this demand. In this case, the minimum rating that would meet this requirement is the 525-watt power supply. If a power supply doesn’t have a high enough wattage rating to provide the power needed, some or all of the devices will not power on or function properly. If a power supply is chosen that is too large, it will generate excessive heat that can overheat the computer and its components.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 30:
Tom, a salesman, is trying to print a 3-page report to the network printer located in the Sales department’s office space. He walks over to the printer but doesn’t see the pages in the printer’s output tray. He checks the on-screen display of the printer, but he doesn’t see any errors listed. Tom tries a few more times, but he gets the same results. Frustrated, Tom selects the network printer for the Customer Service department and sends his print job there. He walks over to their offices and finds his 3-page report sitting in that printer’s output tray. Tom asks you to help him solve this printing problem. What action should you take FIRST to help solve Tom’s problem?
Stop and restart the PC’s print spooler service using your administrator account
Log in to the network’s print server, stop and restart all of the shared printer queues, and then try to reprint the document
Ask one of Tom’s coworkers to attempt to print something to the Sales department’s printer to verify it is working properly
Verify that Tom has been sending the document to the correct network printer’s queue
Stop and restart the PC’s print spooler service using your administrator accountLog in to the network’s print server, stop and restart all of the shared printer queues, and then try to reprint the documentAsk one of Tom’s coworkers to attempt to print something to the Sales department’s printer to verify it is working properlyCorrect answerVerify that Tom has been sending the document to the correct network printer’s queueOverall explanationOBJ-5.6: The first thing you should do is verify that this problem is not caused by user error. To do this, you should verify which network printer queue Tom had been sending the document to the first few times. You may wish to ask a coworker to print to the Sales department’s printer, but that would be your second step AFTER verifying the user was printing to that print queue properly first. Since the print job was successful once Tom switched to another printer, the PC’s print spooler worked properly, so you don’t need to restart it. You should not restart all of the shared printer queues unless it is necessary because this would affect all company employees and is not necessary to solve this issue.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 31:
Dion Training’s video editor wants to install a new dedicated GPU using an expansion card. Which of the following should they verify before installing the new card?
The power supply’s efficiency rating
The number of SATA connectors available
The power supply’s wattage rating
The power supply supports a 12 VDC input
The power supply’s efficiency ratingThe number of SATA connectors availableCorrect answerThe power supply’s wattage ratingThe power supply supports a 12 VDC inputOverall explanationOBJ-3.5: Dedicated graphics cards use the most power of any component in a computer. If someone is installing or replacing a graphics card, it is important to compare the current system’s power usage to the wattage rating of the power supply to ensure it can support the new graphics card. SATA connectors are not used with graphics cards but are instead used for storage devices and optical drives. The power supply should support 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input and provide 12 VDC, 5 VDC, and 3.3 VDC as its output. The power supply’s efficiency rating would tell the user how much of the input power is being converted to output power, but this is not important in deciding if the power supply can support the new graphics card.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 32:
What command is used to test if your own network card’s driver is working properly?
ping 192.168.1.1
ping 8.8.8.8
ping 1.1.1.1
ping 127.0.0.1
ping 192.168.1.1ping 8.8.8.8ping 1.1.1.1Correct answerping 127.0.0.1Overall explanationOBJ-5.7: The IP Address 127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC’s driver.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 33:
Which of the following is the virtualization technology supported by most modern Intel processors?
AMD-V
HT
Intel-V
VT
AMD-VHTIntel-VCorrect answerVTOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: To use virtualization and have virtual machines running on a single workstation, you need to have a CPU specifically designed to support virtualization. For Intel processors, they must support VT or Virtualization Technology. If you are using an AMD processor, it should support AMD-V (AMD’s virtualization technology). HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. Intel-V is a made-up term used as a distractor on this question.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 34:
Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?
Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the network
Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround
Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB
Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network
Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the networkConfigure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaroundPurchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USBCorrect answerPurchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the networkOverall explanationOBJ-3.6: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 35:
Jason’s new iPhone has locked up, and the touchscreen is unresponsive. He tries to tap the screen, press the buttons, and still, nothing happens. What should he do next?
Hold down the home button for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
Hold down power and home buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
Hold down the power button and then the sleep/wake button simultaneously for about 10 seconds
Hold down the home button for 10 seconds, then slide to power offHold down power and home buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power offCorrect answerHold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power offHold down the power button and then the sleep/wake button simultaneously for about 10 secondsOverall explanationOBJ-5.5: Smartphones can become frozen, hung up, or locked up to the point they are unresponsive to touch or some button presses. The best solution is to hold down the power and volume down buttons simultaneously on an iPhone and then slide to power off.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 36:
Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass?
Pickup roller
Duplexing assembly
Transfer roller
Transfer belt
Pickup rollerDuplexing assemblyTransfer rollerCorrect answerTransfer beltOverall explanationOBJ-3.7: The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 37:
You work as a PC Technician for a real estate company. The company has decided to use laptops instead of desktops in the office so that the real estate agents can easily take their laptops with them when they leave to show properties for sale. You want to create an easy solution for the agents to quickly connect an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, a wired network connection, and an additional hard drive for storage to the laptop whenever they come back into the office. Unfortunately, the laptops used by the agents don’t have a built-in wired network connection. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?
Thunderbolt
USB 4-port hub
Docking station
Port replicator
ThunderboltUSB 4-port hubCorrect answerDocking stationPort replicatorOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 38:
Which of the following is true of a dedicated video card in a computer system?
Share the use of the system’s memory
Can be upgraded or replaced
Cannot be upgraded or replaced
Less expensive than an integrated video card
Share the use of the system’s memoryCorrect answerCan be upgraded or replacedCannot be upgraded or replacedLess expensive than an integrated video cardOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: It is more expensive to have a dedicated GPU or video card, but it does provide higher performance than an integrated GPU. A dedicated GPU also can be upgraded with a newer graphics card in the future to increase performance. An integrated video card is built as part of the main system motherboard or CPU. An integrated GPU is cheaper than a dedicated GPU, but it has limited performance and shares the use of the computer system’s RAM. An integrated video card cannot be upgraded since it is part of the processor or motherboard. If a system is being designed for gaming, video editing, or 3D rendering, it should use a separate video card with a dedicated GPU.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 39:
You are troubleshooting a network connection issue between the wall jack in a user’s office and the switch in the communications closet. When you plug a network cable into the wall jack, there is no connection. You check the switch in the communications closet to determine if the wall jack is properly connected to the switch. Unfortunately, none of the cables in the communication closet are labeled. Which of the following tools should you use to determine which cable in the communications closet is connected to the wall jack in the user’s office since none of the cables are properly labeled?
Punchdown tool
Loopback plug
Tone generator and probe
Multimeter
Punchdown toolLoopback plugCorrect answerTone generator and probeMultimeterOverall explanationOBJ-2.8: A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. While a multimeter could be used (in resistance mode) to determine if two ends of a cable are attached to the same cable, the distance between the user’s office and the communication closet would prevent a multimeter from being used in this case. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack.Domain2 - Networking
Question 40:
The projector in the Dion Training conference room is creating a distorted image when in use. The technician measures the top of the screen at 72” wide and the bottom of the screen at only 66” wide. The technician checks the projector’s resolution and the resolution in the operating system’s display settings. They notice that they are both set correctly to HDTV (1920 x 1080) mode. Which of the following settings on the project should the technician adjust to fix this distortion?
Contrast
Brightness
Keystone
Color depth
ContrastBrightnessCorrect answerKeystoneColor depthOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: A keystone effect occurs when the top of a projected image is wider or narrower than the bottom of the image. This creates a trapezoid instead of a rectangular image and leads to distortion. To fix the keystone effect in an image, you need to adjust the keystone setting in the projector. The brightness setting will increase or decrease the number of lumens of the projected image to make it lighter or darker. The contrast is the amount of difference between the whiteness and darkness in a projected image. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Brightness, contrast, and color depth do not affect the size or shape of the image being projected.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 41:
You are installing Windows 2019 on a rack-mounted server and hosting multiple virtual machines within the physical server. You just finished the installation and now want to begin creating and provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should you utilize to allow you to create and provision virtual machines?
Device manager
Disk management
Terminal services
Hypervisor
Device managerDisk managementTerminal servicesCorrect answerHypervisorOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VM Ware or VirtualBox. Disk Management is a system utility in Windows that enables you to perform advanced storage tasks. Device Manager is a component of the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. Remote Desktop Services, known as Terminal Services in Windows Server 2008 and earlier, is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allow a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 42:
Which of the following is a security concern when dealing with virtual machines?
Rogue VM
Resource pooling
Virtual NIC
Symmetric multiprocessing
Correct answerRogue VMResource poolingVirtual NICSymmetric multiprocessingOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as VM sprawl. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 43:
Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue?
Bandwidth saturation
Incorrect antenna type
Signal attenuation
DHCP exhaustion
Bandwidth saturationIncorrect antenna typeCorrect answerSignal attenuationDHCP exhaustionOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas. DHCP exhaustion occurs when the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses and stops issuing DHCP bindings. If DHCP exhaustion occurred, the users would not have received an IP address and they would have no connectivity instead of intermittent connectivity. The question does not mention anything about the antennas being moved or replaced recently, so it is unlikely to be an issue with the antennas since they worked previously with the same wireless network and distanced. Bandwidth saturation occurs if too many devices are on one WAN link, but nothing in the question indicates that more users have been added and causing an issue.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 44:
What type of network cable should be used to prevent crosstalk?
Plenum
RJ-11
UTP
STP
PlenumRJ-11UTPCorrect answerSTPOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Cables are often clustered together with a high amount of data passing through from one device to another, causing EMI (electromagnetic interference). EMI causes signal interference and errors in the transfer of data that is known as crosstalk. Unshielded cables do not contain this braided foil shield and are more affected by EMI than a shielded cable. Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 45:
You connect a VOIP device on a user’s desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch?
Coaxial
Fiber
CAT 6
CAT 3
CoaxialFiberCorrect answerCAT 6CAT 3Overall explanationOBJ-2.2: VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device’s power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.Domain2 - Networking
Question 46:
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to create network infrastructures within the cloud?
Digital subscriber line
Cable modem
Software-defined networking
Optical network terminal
Digital subscriber lineCable modemCorrect answerSoftware-defined networkingOptical network terminalOverall explanationOBJ-2.2: Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.Domain2 - Networking
Question 47:
A client’s laptop appears to have been infected with malware. You have begun troubleshooting, established a plan of action, and have already implemented your proposed solution. According to the best practice troubleshooting methodology, what is the NEXT step you should take?
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Test the theory to determine the cause
Verify full system functionality
Identify the problem
Document findings, actions, and outcomesTest the theory to determine the causeCorrect answerVerify full system functionalityIdentify the problemOverall explanationOBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 48:
Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?
21
22
80
143
21Correct answer2280143Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.Domain2 - Networking
Question 49:
(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real exam, you may be given a chart with numerous ports and protocols and be asked to drag and drop them to match the ports with the protocols. Note: there is no chart for this question in this practice exam.) What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize?
21, 22
20, 21
22, 23
21, 23
Correct answer21, 2220, 2122, 2321, 23Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22. Port 23 is used by Telnet. If this were a question on the real exam, you would see a list of ports on one side and a list of protocols on the other, and you would drag and drop each one to match them up. (It might also have 4-6 different pairs to match up.)Domain2 - Networking
Question 50:
Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee’s office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee?
Connect the thin client to a printer
Install the operating system
Install the necessary applications
Install the latest security updates
Connect the thin client to the network
Connect the device to a second monitor
Connect the thin client to a printerInstall the operating systemCorrect selectionInstall the necessary applicationsCorrect selectionInstall the latest security updatesCorrect selectionConnect the thin client to the networkConnect the device to a second monitorOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 51:
Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one?
Battery
Screen
Cellular card
DC jack
BatteryScreenCellular cardCorrect answerDC jackOverall explanationOBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 52:
An employee’s workstation will operate for a short period of time, but then it unexpectedly shuts down. When you check the workstation, you hear the hum of the cooling fans. What is most likely the issue?
CPU overheated
GPU overheated
Defective case fan
Defective NIC card
Correct answerCPU overheatedGPU overheatedDefective case fanDefective NIC cardOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: If a computer’s CPU becomes overheated, the system will unexpectedly shut down the computer to protect the processor from damage. This usually occurs if the CPU’s cooling fan isn’t working properly, the heat sink is dislodged, or the thermal paste breaks down. In this case, you would need to remove the heat sink, remove the processor, reseat the processor, reapply thermal paste, reattach the heat sink, and reconnect the processor fan before rebooting the computer to solve this issue.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 53:
Tim’s laptop was recently upgraded to Windows 11 but is now running more slowly due to the increased memory requirements. He has decided to install some additional RAM to speed up the laptop. Which of the following should he install?
SODIMM
GDDR5
VRAM
DIMM
Correct answerSODIMMGDDR5VRAMDIMMOverall explanationOBJ-1.1: Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module’s smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop. A dual in-line memory module (DIMM) comprises a series of dynamic random-access memory integrated circuits. A DIMM is used in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. GDDR5 is the DDR5 memory for a graphics card, not a laptop. For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 54:
Eleanor, a user, contacts the help desk to report that her workstation will not boot up this morning. The help desk technician verifies that the workstation’s memory, power supply, and monitor function properly. The technician believes that the hard drive is not recognized by the system based on an error message displayed on the screen. Which of the following error messages was being displayed?
NTLDR not found
Operating system not found
No boot device available
BIOS ROM checksum error
NTLDR not foundOperating system not foundCorrect answerNo boot device availableBIOS ROM checksum errorOverall explanationOBJ-5.3: “No boot device available” is an error message that indicates the workstation is not recognizing the hard drive. If the error message were “Operating system not found” or “NTLDR not found,” this would indicate that the hard drive was recognized but that the Windows OS was not installed properly. The “BIOS ROM checksum error” would indicate an issue with the BIOS, not the hard drive.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 55:
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to connect two dissimilar networks such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the wide area network (WAN)?
Access point
Managed switch
Router
Hub
Access pointManaged switchCorrect answerRouterHubOverall explanationOBJ-2.2: A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator.Domain2 - Networking
Question 56:
Which of the following is NOT an example of another name for a Crash Screen?
DoS
Kernel Panic
BSOD
Pinwheel of Death
Correct answerDoSKernel PanicBSODPinwheel of DeathOverall explanationOBJ 5.3 - DoS stands for Denial of Service. It is a form of cyber attack, not a name for a crash screen. Crash screens are referred to by different names based on the operating system. BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) is used for Windows. The Pinwheel of Death is used for MacOS. Kernel Panic is used for Linux.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 57:
An employee at Dion Training complains that their smartphone is broken. They state that it cannot connect to the internet, nor can it make or receive phone calls and text messages. You ask them to start up the music player on his phone, and it opens without any issues. It appears the common issue has to do with the device’s network connectivity. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with this smartphone?
The VPN password was entered incorrectly
The cellular radio in it is broken
The Bluetooth connection is disabled
Airplane mode is enabled on the device
The VPN password was entered incorrectlyThe cellular radio in it is brokenThe Bluetooth connection is disabledCorrect answerAirplane mode is enabled on the deviceOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: If the smartphone is functioning properly except for applications that require network connectivity, then the issue is either a misconfiguration (like enabling airplane mode by mistake), a defective cellular radio chip, or a similar issue. The most likely cause is that the employee accidentally enabled the airplane mode on the device that turns off the cellular radio for the smartphone and can cause the network connectivity to be lost. A technician should first verify that airplane mode is disabled and that the cellular radio is enabled. If that doesn’t solve the problem, then the technician should investigate whether it is a hardware issue (such as a broken cellular radio chip). The Bluetooth connection being disabled would affect paired devices like a headset or wireless speaker, not the ability of the device to connect to the internet. According to the scenario presented, there is no mention of a VPN, so the VPN password being incorrectly answered is not correct.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 58:
A computer technician tries to determine if a computer with an Intel i7 processor has virtualization enabled to run a second operating system within VirtualBox. Which of the following should be checked to determine if the system can run a virtual machine?
Enable virtualization within Windows
Enable virtualization within the BIOS
Verify AMD-V is installed
Verify Hyper-V is installed
Enable virtualization within WindowsCorrect answerEnable virtualization within the BIOSVerify AMD-V is installedVerify Hyper-V is installedOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: By checking the settings in the BIOS, it can be determined if virtualization was enabled. For an Intel processor, this option is usually listed as VT (Virtualization Technology). For an AMD processor, this is usually listed as AMD-V. Virtualization allows the system to run another operating system within a virtualized environment, such as VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 59:
A technician is troubleshooting a newly installed WAP that is sporadically dropping connections to devices on the network. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST during troubleshooting?
Encryption type
WAP placement
WAP SSID
Bandwidth saturation
Encryption typeCorrect answerWAP placementWAP SSIDBandwidth saturationOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: For optimal network performance, the placement of the Wireless Access Point (WAP) guidelines should be taken into consideration to ensure that the building’s construction doesn’t cause interference with the wireless signals. To determine if adequate coverage and signal strength is being received in the building, you can conduct a wireless site survey. The service set identifier (SSID) is a group of wireless network devices which share a common natural language label, such as a network name. The SSID would not affect the devices and cause sporadic connection drops. Bandwidth saturation is a phenomenon that occurs when all of a circuit’s available bandwidth in a given direction is being utilized by a large upload or download which can result in high latency and performance issues. Bandwidth saturation would not cause the wireless connection to drop, though. Encryption type refers to the type of security used on a wireless network, such as WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3. The security type used on a network would not cause sporadic drops of the network connection, though.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 60:
Which RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server?
RAID 1
RAID 0
RAID 10
RAID 5
RAID 1RAID 0Correct answerRAID 10RAID 5Overall explanationOBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 61:
Which button on a desktop computer begins a reboot of the computer without power being removed from the computer’s components?
Reset
Suspend
Power
Hibernate
Correct answerResetSuspendPowerHibernateOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: The reset button is usually located on the front panel of a desktop computer next to the power button. When the reset button is pressed, it allows the user to reboot the computer without releasing power from the system’s components. This is often used when software has malfunctioned and caused the computer to halt or lock up. The power button is used to shut down or put the computer to sleep. There is usually not a dedicated suspend or hibernate button, but these are instead provided as software buttons in the operating system.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 62:
When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network?
Virtual NIC
VNC
VDI
VPN
Correct answerVirtual NICVNCVDIVPNOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 63:
Which of the following network configurations on a virtual machine are used to prevent the VM from accessing the internet, but still allow it to communicate with other VMs on the host and the host itself?
Internal
Private
Localhost
External
Correct answerInternalPrivateLocalhostExternalOverall explanationOBJ-4.2: Virtual machines can have their network configured as internal to prevent them from communicating with the internet. When configured to internal, the VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 64:
Your company has decided to upgrade its legacy phone system to use VoIP devices instead. The new phones will download the configurations from a server each time they boot up. Which of the following ports needs to be opened on the firewall to ensure the phones can communicate with the TFTP server and download their boot-up configurations?
53
69
21
161
53Correct answer6921161Overall explanationOBJ-2.1: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple protocol that provides a basic file transfer function with no user authentication. TFTP uses port 69 to communicate. TFTP is intended for applications that do not need the sophisticated interactions that File Transfer Protocol (FTP) provides. The File Transfer Protocol is a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client on a computer network. FTP uses port 21 to communicate. The Domain Name System (DNS) is used to translate requests for names into IP addresses, controlling which server an end-user will reach when they type a domain name into their web browser. DNS uses port 53 to communicate. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a networking protocol used for the management and monitoring of network-connected devices in Internet Protocol networks. SNMP uses port 161 to communicate.Domain2 - Networking
Question 65:
You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community’s public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue?
Disable the Windows Firewall to ensure it isn’t blocking your access to the website
Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server
Enable DHCP inside of your laptop’s network adapter settings
Disable the Broadcast SSID option for the wireless access point
Disable the Windows Firewall to ensure it isn’t blocking your access to the websiteCorrect answerVerify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS serverEnable DHCP inside of your laptop’s network adapter settingsDisable the Broadcast SSID option for the wireless access pointOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 66:
Dion Training has asked you to consult on the installation of their new file server. The current server consists of a RAID 5 array with three 1 TB 7200 RPM hard disk drives. Due to the increased reliance on the new file server, you have been asked to recommend a RAID solution that will help ensure there is no unscheduled downtime, no data loss, and increase speed/performance over the current file server. Based on these requirements, which of the following RAID solutions should you recommend?
RAID 5
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 10
RAID 5RAID 0RAID 1Correct answerRAID 10Overall explanationOBJ-3.3: A RAID 10 is the best solution to meet all of these requirements since it provides a fully redundant RAID with both the advantages of mirroring and disk striping. RAID 5 provides redundancy, but it will not improve the speed/performance over the current file server in use since it was also a RAID 5. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 67:
Which of the following types of optical discs can only support storing up to 700 MB on a single piece of media?
SD
DVD-R
BD-R
CD-RW
SDDVD-RBD-RCorrect answerCD-RWOverall explanationOBJ-3.3: A CD can store up to 700 MB. A DVD can store 4.7 GB for a single-layer disc or 8.5 GB for a dual-layer disc. A Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB for a single-layer disc or 50 GB for a dual-layer disc. A SD card is a type of memory card and is not considered an optical disc.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 68:
Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a backup solution that can backup non-sensitive data in the most cost-efficient way. The company already has an Office 365 subscription for each employee. The employees should be able to backup and access their data from anywhere using their laptops, smartphones, or tablets. Which of the following solutions should you recommend?
OneDrive
G Suite
iCloud
AWS S3
Correct answerOneDriveG SuiteiCloudAWS S3Overall explanationOBJ-4.1: OneDrive is a Microsoft product that comes as part of the Office 365 subscription package. The other options can also provide the capabilities requested, but there would be a separate cost to utilize them. Therefore, you should recommend OneDrive in this scenario. OneDrive can utilize the storage that is easy to access from a laptop, smartphone, or tablet while the employees are away from their offices. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 69:
Which of the following describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default?
Gateway
Static IP
Subnet mask
Dynamic IP
Correct answerGatewayStatic IPSubnet maskDynamic IPOverall explanationOBJ-2.5: The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. The subnet mask is used in IPv4 to distinguish these two components within a single IP address. The subnet mask differentiates the two portions of an IP address into the Network ID and the Host ID.Domain2 - Networking
Question 70:
You are troubleshooting a computer that will not boot. You do not hear anything when you attempt to boot the computer, but you smell something that reminds you of burning plastic. Which of the following tools should you use to diagnose the problem with this computer?
Power supply tester
Toner probe
Cable tester
ESD strap
Correct answerPower supply testerToner probeCable testerESD strapOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: The smell of burning plastic and the computer not turning on are symptoms of a power supply issue. Therefore, you should use a power supply (PSU) tester. A burning smell emitting from your laptop indicates that your machine’s cooling system is not functioning properly. If your laptop smells like something is burning, this usually means that your computer is overheating. This can be caused by a fan not working properly. For example, if the power supply unit’s fan isn’t working properly, the unit can overheat, and the wiring in the power supply’s transformer can start to burn or melt. This can then cause the power supply unit to fail, too.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 71:
Which of the following is used when a CDMA smartphone attempts to connect to the cellular network while traveling? (Select ANY that apply)
Baseband
Firmware
PRI
PRL
BasebandFirmwareCorrect selectionPRICorrect selectionPRLOverall explanationOBJ-1.4: The PRI and PRL must be updated and referenced when traveling. The preferred roaming index (PRI) is an index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower. The baseband is the embedded operating system in the firmware of a smartphone or other cellular device. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types. The baseband and firmware would not be updated or changed based on your location. The baseband is changed or updated when a security update is needed.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 72:
Which of the following is an APIPA or link-local address?
33.52.7.83
127.0.0.1
169.254.64.23
192.168.1.34
33.52.7.83127.0.0.1Correct answer169.254.64.23192.168.1.34Overall explanationOBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. An APIPA address is also referred to as a link-local address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.Domain2 - Networking
Question 73:
What is used to distribute traffic across multiple sets of devices or connections to increase the overall efficiency of the network and its data processing?
Load balancing
High availability
Traffic shaping
Fault tolerance
Correct answerLoad balancingHigh availabilityTraffic shapingFault toleranceOverall explanationOBJ-2.4: Load balancing refers to the process of distributing a set of tasks over a set of resources to make their overall processing more efficient. Load balancing can optimize the response time and avoid unevenly overloading some compute nodes while other compute nodes are left idle. Traffic shaping, also known as packet shaping, is the manipulation and prioritization of network traffic to reduce the impact of heavy users or machines from affecting other users. Traffic shaping is used to optimize or guarantee performance, improve latency, or increase usable bandwidth for some kinds of packets by delaying other kinds. High availability (HA) is a component of a technology system that eliminates single points of failure to ensure continuous operations or uptime for an extended period. Fault tolerance refers to the ability of a system (computer, network, cloud cluster, etc.) to continue operating without interruption when one or more of its components fail.Domain2 - Networking
Question 74:
You are configuring a workstation to be used as a point of sale (POS) device. Which of the following peripherals should you install with the device?
Webcam
Flatbed scanner
Memory card reader
Signature pad
WebcamFlatbed scannerMemory card readerCorrect answerSignature padOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: A signature pad is a common peripheral used with a point of sale workstation. This allows a customer to sign a contract or sales receipt digitally. A webcam is a video camera that feeds or streams an image or video in real-time to or through a computer to a computer network, such as the Internet. Webcams are typically small cameras that sit on a desk, attach to a user’s monitor, or are built into a laptop, desktop, or mobile device. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A scanner is a type of photocopier that can convert the image of a physical object into an electronic data file. The two main components of a scanner are the lamp, which illuminates the object, and the recording device, an array of CCDs (Charge Coupled Devices). There are flatbed and sheet-fed versions, with sheet-fed versions typically being incorporated with a printer and fax machine into a multifunction device.Domain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 75:
Tony, a system administrator, set up a printer on John’s workstation. During the setup, Tony was able to print a test page. Later, when John attempted to print a document, an error message was displayed that indicates access was denied to the printer. John tried to restart the printer and workstation, but the same error message is displayed when he attempts to print a document. Which of the following MOST likely caused this issue?
The printer lacks the memory required to process the document
The user lacks adequate security permissions to the printer
The printer is offline
The print spooler is hung and must be restarted
The printer lacks the memory required to process the documentCorrect answerThe user lacks adequate security permissions to the printerThe printer is offlineThe print spooler is hung and must be restartedOverall explanationOBJ-5.6: A printer needs the user to have the proper permissions to print. Since Tony was a system administrator, he had adequate permissions to print the test page. But, if Tony neglected to add the proper permissions to John’s account, then John would be unable to print. This is indicated by the access denied error message received when he attempts to print a document. The printer is not offline since it is powered on and properly connected to the workstation. The print spooler is not hung as evidenced by the system administrator can print to it. Memory limitations can be a factor, but that produces a different error message.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 76:
Jason is printing out a copy of Dion Training’s new logo on his color laser printer. When the logo is printed, the blue color does not appear to be the same as the one on the screen. Jason believes the issue is an incorrect chroma display between the monitor and the printer. Which of the following solutions would best fix this issue?
Update the print drivers to ensure they are operating properly
Set the color profile to a sepia tone to eliminate the issue
Calibrate the monitor and printer to use the same color profile
Replace the toner cartridge since the printout is faded
Update the print drivers to ensure they are operating properlySet the color profile to a sepia tone to eliminate the issueCorrect answerCalibrate the monitor and printer to use the same color profileReplace the toner cartridge since the printout is fadedOverall explanationOBJ-5.6: Incorrect chroma display occurs when the printer and the monitor are using different color profiles. To fix this issue, it is important to calibrate both the printer and the monitor to the same standard so that the colors will match. Changing the color to a sepia tone would make the printout appear brown which would not solve this issue. Replacing the toner would help if the printout is faded, but that is not occurring in this scenario. The print drivers would not cause the color to be incorrect, only the incorrect chroma settings and calibration would.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 77:
Your company’s printer is displaying an error of “Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty.” Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using?
3-D
Impact
Inkjet
Laser
Thermal
Correct answer3-DImpactInkjetLaserThermalOverall explanationOBJ-3.7: 3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 78:
You just received a phone call from one of your customers regarding an old monitor. The monitor uses a VGA port, and the customer is worried because they only have an old VGA cable that has a few pins broken off. The customer asks you what would happen if they used that cable to connect the monitor over VGA. What would MOST likely happen?
The monitor will be black and white
The monitor will be dim or start to flicker
The display will show incorrect colors on the screen
The monitor will cause distorted images on the screen
The monitor will be black and whiteThe monitor will be dim or start to flickerCorrect answerThe display will show incorrect colors on the screenThe monitor will cause distorted images on the screenOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: Unfortunately, a missing or broken pin or two can cause an array of issues. Each of the 15 pins is used to create a composite image on the screen. There are three rows of pins, with 5 pins per row. Due to the pinout of a VGA cable, if pins 1, 2, or 3 are missing, the display will be miscolored. If pins 13 or 14 are missing, the screen will not hold horizontal or vertical sync. The other pins are not used or are used as ground wires. Therefore, either the incorrect colors will show up on the screen, or the screen won’t display at all. The other options are not possible.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 79:
A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has only two hard drives available for use and needs to ensure that the data’s fault tolerance and redundancy. Which of the following would be is the best configuration to implement?
RAID 0
RAID 5
RAID 10
RAID 1
RAID 0RAID 5RAID 10Correct answerRAID 1Overall explanationOBJ-3.3: While either a RAID 0 or RAID 1 can be used with only two drives, only a RAID 1 will provide redundancy and fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. With a RAID 1, one of the hard drives can fail while the other drive can still operate until the bad drive is replaced. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 5 requires at least three hard drives to operate, and a RAID 10 requires at least four hard drives to operate; therefore, neither is an acceptable solution to this problem.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 80:
Dion Training has recently installed a new VoIP telephone service in their offices. The employees are now complaining that their phone calls are being dropped during the middle of their conversations. The company has a single 48-port gigabit ethernet layer 3 switch that supports their desktops, laptops, and VoIP devices. Which of the following should the company do to prevent VoIP calls from dropping?
Increase the MTU
Enforce MAC filtering
Implement QoS
Configure the DHCP server
Increase the MTUEnforce MAC filteringCorrect answerImplement QoSConfigure the DHCP serverOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets’ timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads. MAC Filtering refers to a security access control method whereby the MAC address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. MTU is the largest unit that can be transmitted across a network. If the MTU is set at a value above 1500, the network is configured to support jumbo frames.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 81:
On Saturdays, your best friend goes to the local farmer’s market to sell his homemade craft root beer. He wants to add the ability to take credit card payments from customers on his mobile phone. Which of the following devices should he purchase and configure?
Bluetooth card reader
Memory card reader
DB-9 reader
IR reader
Correct answerBluetooth card readerMemory card readerDB-9 readerIR readerOverall explanationOBJ-1.3: A Bluetooth card reader can be used to capture the purchaser’s credit card details. These Bluetooth card readers may support magnetic card reading capabilities (swiping a card), smart chip reading capabilities (chip and pin), or even NFC reading capabilities (Google Pay, Apple Pay, etc.). For example, in the United States, Square’s mobile payment terminal is popular for small businesses and entrepreneurs. By capturing the credit card details electronically (instead of just typing them in), the merchant pays a lower payment processing fee and saves on credit card fees charged when a customer makes a purchase. DB-9 is a type of serial port connector used on legacy desktops and laptops. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A memory card is a flash drive typically used for digital cameras and smartphonesDomain1 - Mobile Devices
Question 82:
What type of expansion bus technology uses lanes with point-to-point communication paths between two components on the motherboard?
PCI-X
PCIe
PCI
AGP
PCI-XCorrect answerPCIePCIAGPOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) uses lanes between any two intercommunicating devices. This utilizes a separated pair of wires for both directions of traffic. This increases the bus lanes’ speed since there is no possibility of collisions or waiting for other devices to finish communicating. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. AGP, PCI, and PCI-X are older technologies that rely on shared busses for communication.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 83:
Which of the following is NOT considered part of the Internet of Things?
ICS
Laptop
Smart television
SCADA
ICSCorrect answerLaptopSmart televisionSCADAOverall explanationOBJ-2.4: Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, industrial control systems (ICS), internet-connected televisions, thermostats, and many other things examples of devices classified as the Internet of Things (IoT). A laptop would be better classified as a computer or host than part of the Internet of Things. The Internet of things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines provided with unique identifiers (UIDs), and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.Domain2 - Networking
Question 84:
Which of the following protocols operates over port 3389 by default?
RDP
POP3
Telnet
SSH
Correct answerRDPPOP3TelnetSSHOverall explanationOBJ-2.1: The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Telnet is the protocol used for remote command-line administration of a host using TCP port 23. Telnet is considered insecure since it is unauthenticated and unencrypted. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them.Domain2 - Networking
Question 85:
A client claims that their computer keeps rebooting itself without warning. Which of the following is the BEST action you should take to investigate and troubleshoot this issue?
Reinstall the operating system
Replace the cooling fan
Replace the power supply
Test the power supply
Reinstall the operating systemReplace the cooling fanReplace the power supplyCorrect answerTest the power supplyOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: A computer that keeps rebooting itself is a symptom of a faulty power supply or a computer that is overheating. If the power supply is faulty, the computer will reboot itself. If the issue is caused by an overheating issue (such as a cooling fan failure), the computer will usually reboot itself after running for 15-20 minutes (once enough heat is built-up). Therefore, you should test the power supply first to determine if that is the root cause of the issue, and then replace the power supply, if required.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 86:
What is the name of the networking protocol used by macOS to find available printers on the network to use?
Cloud Print
Internet Printing Protocol
Line Printer Daemon
Bonjour
Cloud PrintInternet Printing ProtocolLine Printer DaemonCorrect answerBonjourOverall explanationOBJ-3.6: Bonjour, Apple’s zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP. Cloud Print is a service that allows users to print from any device in the network cloud to any printer that has Cloud Print support enabled.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 87:
What type of connector can be inserted into the port in either direction without damaging the port?
USB Type B
USB Type A
FireWire
USB Type C
USB Type BUSB Type AFireWireCorrect answerUSB Type COverall explanationOBJ-3.1: A USB Type C (USB-C) is a 24-pin USB connector with a rotational symmetrical connector, which means it can be plugged into the port in either direction. USB-C makes it easier and more convenient to plug into a USB-C female port than previous versions like Type A and Type B. FireWire and USB Type B use a d-shaped connector that can only be inserted in one direction. USB Type A uses a rectangular connector with a protrusion on one half of the connector to force insertion in only one direction.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 88:
You are working at the service desk when a customer calls up and complains that their laptop’s monitor looks strange. When pressed for further details, they state that there are black bars on the left and right sides of the screen and that the image appears squashed and distorted. What is MOST likely the cause of this issue?
External RF interference
Incorrect color depth
Bad video card
Incorrect display resolution
External RF interferenceIncorrect color depthBad video cardCorrect answerIncorrect display resolutionOverall explanationOBJ-5.4: This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, most laptops operate as a 16:9 or 16:10 aspect ratio. Older VGA monitors relied on a 4:3 aspect ratio using 1024x768 pixels whereas newer monitors use a 16:9 ratio at 1920x1080 pixels.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 89:
You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize?
Channel 12
Channel 11
Channel 10
Channel 9
Channel 12Correct answerChannel 11Channel 10Channel 9Overall explanationOBJ-2.3: With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.Domain2 - Networking
Question 90:
What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet?
PaaS
SaaS
IaaS
DaaS
PaaSSaaSCorrect answerIaaSDaaSOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 1:
A military contracting firm is worried about proprietary corporate information being removed from the company’s network. To combat this, they have created strict rules regarding what types of information can leave their office building. You have been asked to fix a workstation for the company and have been brought on-site to troubleshoot the issue. You have properly followed the troubleshooting steps and have created a plan of action to fix the workstation. Unfortunately, your solution will require that the workstation be taken back to your off-site repair shop to solve the workstation’s problems fully. What is the NEXT thing you should do to fix this workstation?
Format the hard drive of the workstation to delete all proprietary data before taking the workstation to your repair shop
Remove the internal hard disk drive and then take the workstation with you to your repair shop to fix it
Verify the contracting firm’s corporate polices regarding the removal of a workstation for repairs
Ask the employee who usually works on the workstation if you can take it to your repair shop
Format the hard drive of the workstation to delete all proprietary data before taking the workstation to your repair shopRemove the internal hard disk drive and then take the workstation with you to your repair shop to fix itCorrect answerVerify the contracting firm’s corporate polices regarding the removal of a workstation for repairsAsk the employee who usually works on the workstation if you can take it to your repair shopOverall explanationOBJ-5.1: You should always verify the company’s corporate policies you are working with for any specialized procedures or requirements involved when you are asked to work on a machine containing proprietary information. Based on their corporate policies, they may require you to remove the hard drive, delete the information on the hard drive, or follow other technical or administrative procedures before you can remove the workstation from their facility. It is not simply enough to ask the employee who normally works on that computer since they may not be authorized to make that decision (based on their corporate policies).Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 2:
Which cloud computing concept allows users to store files on a cloud-based server when necessary and copy that data from the cloud, and put it back on the device when space once again becomes available on the device?
On-demand
Shared resources
Synchronization application
Resource pooling
Correct answerOn-demandShared resourcesSynchronization applicationResource poolingOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. In this question, the cloud storage is provisioned and deprovisioned automatically for the user, and thereby it would be categorized as on-demand. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Shared resources are any resources shared by multiple users or systems within an internal or cloud-based network.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 3:
A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the motherboard needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?
Distended capacitors
Incorrect date/time on the workstation
Continuous reboot
Burning smell
Correct answerDistended capacitorsIncorrect date/time on the workstationContinuous rebootBurning smellOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 4:
Dion Training has just installed a new web server and created an A record for DionTraining.com. When users try entering www.DionTraining.com, though, they get an error. You tell their network administrator that the problem is because he forgot to add the appropriate DNS record to create an alias for www to the domain’s root. Which type of DNS record should be added to fix this issue?
AAAA
NS
PTR
CNAME
AAAANSPTRCorrect answerCNAMEOverall explanationOBJ 2.6: A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME). An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. A Name Server (NS) is for identifying authoritative name servers. A Pointer (PTR) is for reverse DNS lookups.Domain2 - Networking
Question 5:
Which of the following provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism to positively identify an organization as the authorized sender of email for a particular domain name?
SMTP
DKIM
DMARC
SPF
SMTPCorrect answerDKIMDMARCSPFOverall explanationOBJ-2.6: DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public key as a TXT record in the DNS server. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a DNS record published by an organization hosting an email service. The SPF record identifies the hosts authorized to send emails from that domain, and there must be only one per domain. SPF does not provide a cryptographic authentication mechanism like DKIM does, though. The Domain-Based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework can ensure that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC relies on DKMI for the cryptographic authentication mechanism, making it the incorrect option for this question. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol for electronic mail transmission, which does not utilize cryptographic authentication mechanisms by default.Domain2 - Networking
Question 6:
Samuel is building a backup file server, and he wants to ensure that he can minimize downtime. Which of the following considerations should be MOST important when choosing a storage controller card for this server?
Support for at least 100 TB of connected storage
Support for hot-swappable drives
Support for the fastest speeds available
Providing the least expensive option available
Support for at least 100 TB of connected storageCorrect answerSupport for hot-swappable drivesSupport for the fastest speeds availableProviding the least expensive option availableOverall explanationOBJ-3.3: The primary consideration for the storage controller card is that it supports hot-swappable drives. Being hot-swappable means that a bad HDD can be removed and replaced while the server runs, which prevents downtime. Data loss can be prevented by configuring a RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 6, or RAID 10, and the RAID can automatically replicate the data to the new hard drive that is replaced during the hot swapping process without any downtime or data loss. While the other options may be good features to have, the most important feature is support for hot-swapping to minimize downtime.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 7:
Which of the following tools is used to identify why an 802.11g network is intermittently dropping network traffic?
Cable tester
Tone generator and probe
WiFi analyzer
Multimeter
Cable testerTone generator and probeCorrect answerWiFi analyzerMultimeterOverall explanationOBJ-5.7: A WiFi analyzer can determine the wireless network’s signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference. Based on the issue described in the question, the network may have dead zones that could be fixed by adding additional access points to increase the network’s wireless coverage. Another possible issue could be radio frequency interference from other devices, which a WiFi analyzer could help identify. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 8:
Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow your company’s employees to use the service while preventing anyone else from accessing it. What type of cloud model would you recommend to ensure the contents are best secured from those outside your company?
Hybrid Cloud
Public Cloud
Community Cloud
Private Cloud
Hybrid CloudPublic CloudCommunity CloudCorrect answerPrivate CloudOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: A private cloud service would be the best recommendation to protect and secure the services from those outside the company from accessing its contents. The private cloud is defined as computing services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. Private cloud computing gives businesses many of the benefits of a public cloud including self-service, scalability, and elasticity with the additional control and customization available from dedicated resources over a computing infrastructure hosted on-premises. Private clouds also deliver a higher level of security and privacy through both company firewalls and internal hosting to ensure operations and sensitive data are not accessible to third-party providers. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 9:
Which of the following devices is installed in a communication closet to connect network wall jacks to a network switch using pre-wired RJ-45 ports?
Access point
Router
Hub
Patch panel
Access pointRouterHubCorrect answerPatch panelOverall explanationOBJ-2.2: A patch panel is used in a structured cabling system. A computer is connected to a wall jack in this cable system and then connected to a patch panel by cabling running through the walls. A pre-wired RJ-45 port on the patch panel is then connected to a port on the switch using a straight-through or patch cable. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which can slow down the entire network.Domain2 - Networking
Question 10:
Jason’s iPad only had 12% battery remaining at the end of the day, so he connected his iPad to the lightning cable and wall adapter last night before going to bed. In the morning, Jason tried to turn on the iPad, but it appeared to be completely powered down, and the battery was drained. Jason connected the lightning cable to his iPhone, and the iPhone began charging. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason that the iPad didn’t charge overnight?
Defective battery
Defective lightning cable
Defective AC adapter
Defective charging port on the iPad
Defective batteryDefective lightning cableDefective AC adapterCorrect answerDefective charging port on the iPadOverall explanationOBJ-5.5: Since the iPad didn’t charge overnight, but the iPhone could charge with the same wall adapter and lightning cable, so we must suspect that the charging port or the battery on the iPad is defective. Since the iPad’s battery was working yesterday during the day (as noted by the 12% battery remaining at the end of the day), it is MOST likely that the charging port is defective.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 11:
Dion Training’s file server uses a RAID 5 for its main data store. Recently, the RAID began flashing from green to yellow. Additionally, an alert was received that stated, “RAID ARRAY DISK1 FAILURE”. Unfortunately, the company no longer has any spare 1 TB, 5400 RPM Seagate drives, so a technician replaces DISK1 with a 1 TB, 7200 RPM Western Digital drive. When the technician attempts to rebuild the array, the drive stays in degraded operation and continues to alert that “RAID ARRAY DISK1 FAILURE” is occurring. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
The new drive is not formatted as FAT32
Bad SATA cable
The HDD is incompatible
Incorrect SCSI ID set
The new drive is not formatted as FAT32Bad SATA cableCorrect answerThe HDD is incompatibleIncorrect SCSI ID setOverall explanationOBJ-5.3: In this scenario, likely, the replacement HDD may not be compatible with the RAID. This will cause the RAID to stay degraded and the alert to continue to display. Whenever you need to replace a disk in a RAID, it is considered a best practice to replace it with the same brand and model of the hard drive. For this reason, most professionals purchase spare hard drives when initially building out their RAID array.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 12:
You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD?
Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD
Enable the paging file within the operating system
Enable the power-saving mode of the SSD
Disable memory caching on the SSD
Correct answerDisable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSDEnable the paging file within the operating systemEnable the power-saving mode of the SSDDisable memory caching on the SSDOverall explanationOBJ-3.3: An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive’s lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn’t matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when using an SSD to extend its lifespan.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 13:
(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component’s name onto the proper location on the port cluster.)
Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as D?
DVI-D
VGA
HDMI
DVI-I
DVI-DVGACorrect answerHDMIDVI-IOverall explanationOBJ-3.1: This port is an HDMI connection. A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) connection is used to provide high-specification digital content to audio-video equipment from a computer. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 14:
John is setting up 100 Windows 10 computers for a new corporate office. He wants to ensure that unauthorized applications are prevented from being installed during the bootup process. What feature should he ensure is enabled?
Secure Boot
BIOS password required
RAM integrity checking
Full disk encryption
Correct answerSecure BootBIOS password requiredRAM integrity checkingFull disk encryptionOverall explanationOBJ-3.4: The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system. The OEM can use instructions from the firmware manufacturer to create Secure boot keys and to store them in the PC firmware. When you add UEFI drivers, you’ll also need to make sure these are signed and included in the Secure Boot database. Full disk encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. RAM integrity checking is conducted by default on most systems during the initial boot process but it doesn’t check the contents of the memory for malware. The BIOS password would prevent the system from booting up without the correct password being entered, but this would not prevent unauthorized applications from being installed during the bootup process.Domain3 - Hardware
Question 15:
What type of cloud service bills consumers based on the actual usage of the service and may charge different prices based on the time of day it was utilized?
Measured services
Metered services
Resource pooling
Rapid elasticity
Measured servicesCorrect answerMetered servicesResource poolingRapid elasticityOverall explanationOBJ-4.1: Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning.Domain4 - Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question 16:
Eduardo’s laptop is shutting down intermittently. Sometimes, the laptop will work for 20 minutes before shutting itself down, and other times it can work for 90 minutes before shutting itself down. He noticed that if he is doing more processor-intensive work such as video editing, the laptop will shut down more quickly than if he is doing simple word processing tasks. A technician examines the laptop and does not smell any unusual odors coming from it. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the laptop to intermittently shut down?
The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheating
The laptop’s battery connection is loose
The laptop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitor
The laptop’s CMOS battery has failed
Correct answerThe laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheatingThe laptop’s battery connection is looseThe laptop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitorThe laptop’s CMOS battery has failedOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: If the laptop had inadequate airflow, it intermittently shuts down at random times. Since the laptop shuts down faster if more intensive processor tasks are performed, this also indicates an overheating issue when the heat from the processor cannot be dissipated fast enough. If a laptop has a swollen capacitor, then a technician will smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard. A swollen capacitor indicates a motherboard failure that can lead to strange issues occurring on the laptop. If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 17:
Which of the following protocols operates over port 139 by default?
NetBIOS
HTTPS
SMB
IMAP
Correct answerNetBIOSHTTPSSMBIMAPOverall explanationOBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.Domain2 - Networking
Question 18:
A customer complains that their smartphone is hot to the touch when charging and their rubber phone case no longer fits it properly. What should you do?
Let the smartphone cool down for a few hours and try to recharge it again
Turn off the phone, do not plug into the wall outlet, and replace the battery
Put the phone under a heavy textbook to reshape the battery
Open the battery meter app to see what is placing a large load on the battery
Let the smartphone cool down for a few hours and try to recharge it againCorrect answerTurn off the phone, do not plug into the wall outlet, and replace the batteryPut the phone under a heavy textbook to reshape the batteryOpen the battery meter app to see what is placing a large load on the batteryOverall explanationOBJ-5.5: Anytime there is excessive heat and swelling, the battery should be replaced and the phone should not be used until the battery is properly replaced by a certified technician. On 2 September 2016, Samsung suspended sales of the Galaxy Note 7 and announced an informal recall after it was found that a manufacturing defect in the phones’ batteries had caused some of them to generate excessive heat that resulted in swelling batteries, fires, and sometimes explosions.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 19:
Jonni’s laptop works perfectly when sitting at his desk. Whenever Jonni moves his laptop from his desk to the conference room, though, the laptop unexpectedly powers off. A technician examines the laptop and does not smell any unusual odors coming from it. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the laptop to lose power when moved?
The laptop’s battery connection is loose
The laptop’s CMOS battery has failed
The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheating
The laptop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitor
Correct answerThe laptop’s battery connection is looseThe laptop’s CMOS battery has failedThe laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheatingThe laptop’s motherboard has a swollen capacitorOverall explanationOBJ-5.2: If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. Since the laptop operates without any issues when on the user’s desk, it indicates that the connection comes loose during movement. If the laptop had inadequate airflow, it intermittently shuts down at random times and not only when moved. If the laptop had a swollen capacitor, the technician would smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard. If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings but the laptop would not shut down intermittently.Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question 20:
You are troubleshooting an issue on a client’s computer and need to make some computer changes to test your theory of probable cause. What should you do BEFORE you make any changes to the computer to test your theory?
Create a system restore point in the operating system
Verify that a recent backup of all of the client’s important files has been created
Order a spare power supply in case you need to replace it
Provide the customer with an invoice for the work
Create a system restore point in the operating systemCorrect answerVerify that a recent backup of all of the client’s important files has been createdOrder a spare power supply in case you need to replace itProvide the customer with an invoice for the workOverall explanationOBJ-5.1: You should always ensure that a recent backup of all of the client’s important and critical files has been created before making any changes to the computer. After all, it is easy to replace hardware if you break the computer, but the client’s personal files may be irreplaceable. For example, if you accidentally delete or remove the customer’s pictures of their baby, you can’t just take new baby pictures to replace them!Domain5 - Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
