Transfusion Flashcards

1
Q

Soure of antibody heterogenity is

A

Gene arrangement in the central immune organs

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of acute hemolytic transfusoin reaction?

A

ABO errors

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3
Q

Regarding platelet transfusion, anti-HLA antibodies play a key role in development of

A

Refractoriness to platelet transfusions

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4
Q

Which is the most common type of genetic variants among blood group antigens?

A

Single nucleotide polymorpisns (SNP)

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5
Q

Who should be deferred from blood donation

A

All of the above (febrile donors, persons returning from zika-endemic places, persons on iv. drug use)

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6
Q

Obligatory donor screening test in all developed countries EXCEPT

A

Hepatic enzyme levels (ASAT, ALAT) or serum bilirubin

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7
Q

Which of the following are accepted definitions of “massive blood loss”

A

Blood loss >150ml/min

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8
Q

Platelets can be transfused regardless of donor RhD

A

A young man aged 22

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9
Q

The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM)..

A

Can be either beneficial or harmful, depending on the clinical situation

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10
Q

The most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand’s disease

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11
Q

The most likely source of Yersinia contamination of a red blood cell unit is

A

Transient asymptomatic donor bacteremia

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12
Q

Advantages of the subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution, EXCEPT:

A

Lack of local side effects

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13
Q

MHC (HLA) class I complex

A

Is expressed in all nucleated cells

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14
Q

The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM) is associated with

A

All the above (the living leukocytes transfused by the blood product,
soluble factors released during storage, soluble HLA molecules)

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15
Q

Possible way to collect more plasma for fractionation than whole blood donation

A

Plasmapheresis

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16
Q

A person of unknown ABO/RhD type should be transfused with

A

RhD negative red blood cells and ABO fresh frozen plasma

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17
Q

Characteristic for intravenous immunoglobulin products, EXCEPT

A

High IgG aggregate content

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18
Q

The immunogenicity of a red cell antigen indicates

A

Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual for the giv..

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19
Q

The window period of an infection is a time period

A

When antigens are already cleared but antibodies are not produced yet

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20
Q

Which is the maximum benefit that can be expected from a directed blood donation?

A

A family member with hepatitis can be identified

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21
Q

Commonly applied treatments in excessive menstrual bleeding caused by von Willebrand disease EXCEPT

A

recombinant VIII factor products

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22
Q

Passenger leukocytes are responsible for all of the following adverse events EXCEPT

A

anaphylaxia

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23
Q

Benefits of autologous blood transfusion EXCEPT

A

urgency, available also in urgent situations

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24
Q

Which blood group is determined by a transferase

A

ABO blood group

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25
Q

Indications for intraoperative cell salvage in adults and children EXCEPT

A

surgery where the anticipated blood loss is <20% of the patients estimated blood volume

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26
Q

Which is not characteristic for subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution treatment

A

Can be used only with infusion pump

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27
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A

Transfusion related bacterial infections and hemolytic reactions cause completely different clinical symptoms

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28
Q

Transfusion associated graft versus host disease can be prevented by

A

irreadiation with a minimum dose of 25 Gy

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29
Q

The positive selection means

A

All T-cells are killed in thymus if not recognizing self MHC

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30
Q

What is the most common cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

ABO errors

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31
Q

The optimal rate of blood donation activity (donation/inhabitants)

A

5%

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32
Q

The most widespread screening tests to prevent transfusion transmitted infections are:

A

HBsAg, anti HBc, anti-HCV, Anti HIV, HCV PCR, Syphilis serology (VDRL)

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33
Q

The immunogenicity of a red blood cell antigen indicates:

A

Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibody in an individual negative for the given antigen

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34
Q

Who discovered the ABO blood group system?

A

Karl Landsteiner

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35
Q

Blood transfusion for a potential organ transplant recipient…?

A

…should be indicated after a thorough consideration, because the risk of harmful HLA sensitization or the potential graft survival advantage is not predictable

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36
Q

Which of the following statements are true about volunteer and paid donors?

A

Patients receiving blood products from paid donors carry higher risk of transmitted infections

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37
Q

The most frequent cause of serious lethal transfusion associated adverse events:

A

Incorrect blood component transfused

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38
Q

What is the complication that is less likely if HLA-match is perfect in hematopoetic stem cell transplantation?

A

GVHD

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39
Q

What are the most important characteristics of tissue stem cells?

A

self-preservation and differentiation capability

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40
Q

Which therapeutic approach is inappropriate in patients with common variable immunodeficiency (CIVD)?

A

Which therapeutic approach is inappropriate in patients with common variable immunodeficiency (CIVD)?

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41
Q

The most widespread screening tests to prevent transfusion transmitted infections are

A

HBsAg, anti-HBc, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, HCV PCR, syphilis serology

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42
Q

The primary immune organs are:

A

Bone marrow and thymus

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43
Q

The T-cell receptors are consisting of:

A

Two variable and two constant chains

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44
Q

Which alleles are not inherited in a co-dominant way?

A

RhD blood group: D and d

45
Q

Which type of transplantation has the greatest requirement of blood?

A

Liver

46
Q

Cross-match prior to kidney transplantation allows

A

The prevention of hyperacute rejection

47
Q

The risk of transfusion related potassium toxicity can be decreased by

A

Utilizing fresh (not older than 1 week) RBC product

48
Q

Disease frequently causing platelet function alterations, except

A

Hyperuricaemia (gout)

49
Q

Risk of HCV transmission can be decreased by, EXCEPT:

A

decrease allo- antigen expression of RBC

50
Q

Indications for albumin support, except

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

51
Q

MHC (HLA) class ll molecules are expressed

A

dendritic cell

52
Q

Options for living donations, Except:

A

emotional relative

53
Q

What is the mechanism by which mesenchymal stem cells enhance the regeneration of damaged tissue?

A

synthesis of trophic and/or anti-apoptotic factors

54
Q

Primary function of the MHC (HLA) system

A

antigen presentation

55
Q

The advantages of intraoperative cell salvages, except

A

low level of 2,3 DPG

56
Q

A potential donor should be deferred in case, except:

A

a previous blood donation, 6 months earlier

57
Q

Potential cause of ineffective RBC transfusion, except?

A

acute autoimmune disease

58
Q

Appropriate therapy against citrate toxicity

A

calcium gluconate Or calcium chloride

59
Q

the following technique for unstable blood product allows lower than 1 x 106 WBC/unit

A

apheresisis technique

60
Q

in massive bleeding, the factor that the soonest reaches critical levels

A

Fibrinogen

61
Q

Regarding platelet transfusion, anti HLA antibodies play a key role in the development of.

A

refractoriness to platelet transfusion

62
Q

Which phenotype is caused by an inactive Abo glycocosil transferase ?

A

O

63
Q

What is the minimal frequency of heart rate control during transfusion

A

Prior and after each unit transfused

64
Q

The person should be deferred from blood donation, except

A

Regularly-plasma donation

65
Q

structurally carbohydrate blood group antigen

A

H

66
Q

Which autoimmune disease has the strongest correlation to HLA antigens?

A

Celiac disease

67
Q

What is the HLA-Haplotype:

A

The group of HLA alleles physically linked on a single chromosome

68
Q

What is the disease that has a marked component of HLA association?

A

Coeliakia (gluten sensitive enteropathies)

69
Q

What is the approach to restore haemostasis after a loss of 100% of blood volume?

A

Red blood cells + Fresh Frozen plasma + Factors (ll + Vll + LX + X + Fibrinogen +/- platelets

70
Q

The source of antibody heterogeneity is:

A

Gene rearrangement in the central immune organs

71
Q

Common donor eligibility criteria, except

A

Level of education

72
Q

In case of bone marrow failure, how much blood should be transfused?

A

1 bage of RBC per week

73
Q

What is the difference between IgG and IgM?

A

IgM cant cross placenta while IgG can

74
Q

Symptoms of TACO (transfusion associated circulatory overload) except:

A

Bradyarrhytmia

75
Q

Sign of brain death (something like that.)

A

No corneal reflex

76
Q

What is the function of the Rh on RBC?

A

Protein that holds together RBC membrane

77
Q

When should we monitor blood pressure ..(in transfused patient).. nobody knows.

A

Before and after transfusion

78
Q

What is synthesized by the endothelium?

A

Von Willebrand + NO + Signal Protein ERK5

79
Q

How much does 1 unit of RBC increase the HG level approximately?

A

1g/dl

80
Q

Which transplanted organ needs the highest amount of O2?

A

Kidney

81
Q

Which antigen is Carbohydrate (something like that)?

A

H

82
Q

Most frequent main diagnosis for cadaveric ( deceased) donors

A

Cerebrovascular attack

83
Q

Regarding platelet transfusion anti-HLA antibodies play a key role on the development of

A

Refractoriness to platelet transfusion

84
Q

The most favourable donor population

A

Voluntary donors without remuneration

85
Q

Important information in the history with respect to allo immunization

A

Previous pregnancies and their proceess

86
Q

Which of the following symptoms require urgent therapy for a patient with delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction ?

A

Oliguria

87
Q

Role of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa in hemostasis:

A

Binds fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet binding

88
Q

Dynamic testing options of the coagulation system:

A

Viscoelastic tests (TEG, ROTEM)

89
Q

Function of the Rh blood group proteins

A

Gas transporter (transports CO2 or NH3)

90
Q

Complications with increased risk after the transfusion of long-stored (old) red blood cell concentrate, EXCEPT

A

Circulatory overload

91
Q

Diagnostic tests to be performed on the cadaver donor to facilitate transplantation, EXCEPT

A

CT-angiography

92
Q

What is the treatment of post transfusion purpura (PTP):

A

High dose IVIG (this is the 1st choice, other can be plasmapheresis and corticosteroids)

93
Q

What can happen if you transfuse unwarm blood, EXCEPT:

A

Hemolysis

94
Q

What are the signs of hemolysis, EXCEPT:

A

Alkalosis

95
Q

Pathomechanism of hyperacute reaction, EXCEPT

A

Normal cytotoxic T-cells

96
Q

MHC type I receptors are present, EXCEPT:

A

Platelets

97
Q

Pathomechanism of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

A

Neutrophil-mediated endothelial damage

98
Q

Consequences of traumatic massive bleeding, EXCEPT:Consequences of traumatic massive bleeding, EXCEPT:

A

Alkalosis

99
Q

What are reasons for a coagulopathy to occur, except?

A

Hypokalemia

100
Q

Potential complications of massive transfusion

A

Citrate toxicity

101
Q

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) can develop in the presence of

A

A complement binding allo-antibodies

102
Q

Characteristic element of the pathomechanism of post transfusion purpura

A

allo-antibody against platelet antigens

103
Q

The risk of transfusion related hemosiderosis is increased in

A

Beta thalassemia major

104
Q

Which components are indicated for transfusion in case of 100% blood loss.

A

RBC + FFP + coagulation factors II, V, VII, IX, X + platelets

105
Q

What do you give to someone who needs 100% blood

A

RBC + plasma + fibrinogen +/- platelets

106
Q

approximate effect on hemoglobin level of 1 unit RBC concentrate in a healthy adult with average body weight without blood loss?

A

approx. 1g/dl

107
Q

What is the correct sequence of key activities in transfusion medicine?

A

Donor - product - recipient - outcome

108
Q

What is the primary goal of crossmatching prior to solid organ transplantation?

A

to prevent hyperacute rejection