TOoLs Flashcards

1
Q

What wavelengths does the peptide backbone absorb light at?

A

190 and 220nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What wavelengths do alpha helices have a trough in?

A

208nm and 222nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the threshold voltage of spectroscopy at which the detector becomes unreliable?

A

650 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define mass spectrometry:

A

The separation of gaseous ions by their mass and charge to determine their mass and compostion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Lorentz force law?

A

F=q(E + v x B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Above which FWMH is considered high resolution?

A

10000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two ‘soft’ ionisation methods?

A

ESI and MALDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does MALDI stand for?

A

Matrix Assisted Laser Desorption Ionisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does ESI stand for?

A

Electrospray Ionisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the four main stages of mass spectrometry?

A
  1. Sample preparation
  2. Ionisation
  3. Measure intact ions or fragment ions
  4. Detect ions and data analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the four main types of Mass spec?

A

Time of Flight
FT-ICR
Quadrupoles
Ion-traps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can mass spectrometry determine?

A

Mass/charge of ions
Intensity of peptide and fragment ions
Liquid chromatography gives retention for the peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the uses of Flourescence Microscopy?

A

Localisation- flourescence microscopy
Binding interactions- Environment sensitive probes, FRET
Accessibility of molecules- use of quenching agents
Mobility of proteins- Flourescence anisotropy, polarisation
Molecular ruler- FRET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the fluorescence parameters?

A

Excitation wavelenght
Emission wavelength
Quantum efficiency (QE) -emitted photons/absorbed photons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the effect of a polar environment on flourescence?

A

Fluorescence moves to red and and becomes less intense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the effect of a non-polar environment on fluorescence?

A

Fluorescence moves to blue and and becomes more intense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is photobleaching?

A

Permanent loss of fluorescence due to photo induced chemical modification of a molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name three quenching agents:

A

Iodide
Acrylamide
O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

KD is used as a measure of what?

A

How well a molecule fits a receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the Languiir 1:1 model?

A
  1. The two binders are pure
  2. All sites are equivalent
  3. Each binding site can hold one molecule of lingand
  4. There are no interactions between adjacent sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do neonicotineoids bind to?

A

A nAChR subtype unique to insects- Alpha4 Beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name 3 label free assays:

A

SPR, Biacore
Fluorescence
Thermal shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does SPR stand for and what does it do?

A

Surface Plasmon Resonance

It characterises proteins as they interact with other proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the requirements for SPR?

A

Microgram quantities
Based on 5 mins cycles per compound:
-6 concs+ 1 duplicate+ 1 zero= 8 injections/compounds
-40 mins to characterise each positive hit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is IC50?

A

the concentration of an inhibitor where the response (or binding) is reduced by half
It is a frequent biological estimation of inhibitor efficacy measured by bioassay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Van’t Hoff equation?

A

▲G=▲H-T▲S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does ITC stand for and what can it determine?

A
Isothermal Titration Colourimetry
Binding constants (KD), reaction stoicheometry (n), enthalpy(▲H), and entropy (▲S)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In ITC what is the equation to determine sample concentration?

A

M=cKn

Sample concentration= (5-500)(expected affinity)(expected stoichiometry)

29
Q

What is Lipinski’s rule (Ro5)?

A

A compound is more likely to exhibit poor absorbtion or permeation when two or more of the physiochemical criteria are fulfilled:

  • The Mr is greater than 500Da
  • The calculated 1-octoanol-water partition coefficient is greater than 10
  • There are more than 5 hydrogen bond donors
  • There are more than 10 hydrogen bond acceptors
30
Q

What genes did the two plasmids contain in the first yeast-2-hybrid assay?

A

Plasmid One- Gal4DBD, SNF1, His3

Plasmid Two- Gal4AD, SNF4, Leu2

31
Q

What beads are used in immunoprecipitation?

A

Protein A sepharose (binds to Fc regions of antibodies)

32
Q

What are commonly used affinity tags?

A

FLAG-DYKDDDDK
Hemaglutinin
C-myc
They are cloned on to a terminus of the protein

33
Q

What do bait and prey bind to?

A

Bait: The known protein/ligand
Prey: The interacting protein/ligand we’re looking for

34
Q

What can protein microarrays can be used to screen for?

A
  • Biochemical activity
  • Protein/protein activity
  • Protein/DNA or protein/RNA interactions
  • Protein/ligand interactions
35
Q

What was whole-genome yeast protein chips used to identify?

A

Many new calmoduling and phospholipid interacting proteins

A common binding motif for calmodulin

36
Q

What does BiFC stand for, what is it, what does it enable?

A

Bimolecular Fluorescence Complementation
The formation of a fluorescent complex by fragments of an xFP brought together by the association of two interacting partners
It enables visualisation of the subcellular sites of protein interactions

37
Q

What is the mechanism of BiFC?

A
  1. Divide YFP into two fragments (half barrels)
  2. Fuse these fragments at the C-terminal ends of the bZIP domains of Fos and Jun
  3. Express in E.Coli, alone or together
38
Q

Define the interactome:

A

A map of all protein interactions in a given cell. Proteins of known structure, cellular location and function tend to cluster together

39
Q

What wavelengths do X-ray diffraction experiments generally use?

A

0.5 to 2 Amstroms

40
Q

What are Millers indices?

A

Sets of planes diffract only if they cut each of the unit cell edges an integral number of times

41
Q

What does the convolution theory state?

A

The Fourier transform of the convolution of two products is equal to the product of the Fourier transforms of the two separate functions

42
Q

What does the Inversion theorum state?

A

If function f is the Fourier transform of function g then function g is the Fourier transform of function f

43
Q

What are the characteristics of purification?

A

Protein should be chemically and conformationally homogenous
Proteins should be soluble at concentrations around 5-10 mg/ml
Proteins should generally not be aggregated

44
Q

How are X-rays generated?

A

Electrons boil off the cathode and are accelerated by the high potential towards the anode. Interaction with the anode generates X-rays

45
Q

What does the process of cyrocrystallography entail?

A

Diffraction experiments are conducted at liquid N2 temperatures by to reduce crystal destruction by x-rays
The protein lattice is protected from damage due to ice crystals by briefly soaking it in a cryproprotectant
Freeze trapping catalytic intermediates

46
Q

What are the characteristics of syncotrons?

A

More intense highly collimated x rays
Use smaller crystals
More information from weakly diffracting crystals
You can change the wavelengths of the X-rays

47
Q

What are four methods of determining phase?

A

Direct methods
Isomorphous replacement
Multiwave anomalous dispersion (MAD)
Molecular replacement

48
Q

What are common heavy metal reagents and what do they bind to?

A

Mercury-Exposed thiol groups
Gold- Histidine
Platinum- methionine

49
Q

What is the Patterson Function and how can it be calculated?

A

Fourier transform of the structure factor intensities

Can be calculated directly without knowing phases

50
Q

What is anomalous dispersion?

A

Generally, an atom scatters X-rays without changing their phase: The atomic scattering factor can be drawn as a real number

51
Q

What are the two stages of molecular replacement?

A

A translation function

A rotation function

52
Q

What is NMR?

A

Nuclear magnetic resonance is the physical phenomenon that certain nuclei in a magnetic field can absorb and re-emit electromagnetic radiation at specific frequency

53
Q

What is scalar coupling?

A

Interaction through chemical bonds (

54
Q

What does NOE stand for and what is it?

A

The Nuclear Overhauser Effect is the transfer of nuclear spin polarisation from one spin system to another through cross relaxation

55
Q

What does COSY detect?

A

Coupling between directly connected neighbouring protons

56
Q

What does TOCSY stand for and what it detect?

A

Total Correlation Spectroscopy shows all the coupling if there is a complet chain of coupled protons

57
Q

What does NOESY stand for and what does it detect?

A

Nuclear Overhauser Effect Spectroscopy detects all continuous proton-proton coupling through space

58
Q

What does HSQC stand for and what does it detect?

A

Heteronuclear Single-Quantum Correlation spectroscopy detects direct proton-carbon connection

59
Q

What does HMBC stand for and what does it detect?

A

Heteronuclear Multiple-Bond Correlation spectroscopy detects direct H-C coupling through multiple bonds, the carbon which hydrogen is directly connected to is not observed

60
Q

What are the two main types of electron microscope?

A

Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) - electrons go through the sample
Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) - electrons are reflected back off the sample

61
Q

What is vitreous ice?

A

Ice lacking hexagonal or cubic crystal order, generated by shock freezing

62
Q

What is the theory of common lines?

A

Fourier transforms of two projections originating from the same object can intersect at a common line (Used in angular reconstitution)

63
Q

Name three methods to determine orientations in Cryo-EM:

A

Angular reconstitution
Projection matching
Analyse FT of ordered sample

64
Q

What are the two types of Cryo-EM contrast?

A

Amplitude contrast gives clear images but information is lost
Phase contrast provides noisy images containing 3D information on the original object

65
Q

What does Cryo-electron Tomography allow?

A

3D images of complex structures can be obtained

No need for averaging procedures so you can image a unique sample

66
Q

What are the limitations of Cryo-electron Tomography?

A

The sample has to be thin
(less than 500nm thick, thinner than most eukaryotic cells)
The electron dose should not be greater than 3000-5000 electrons nm-2

67
Q

What is the process involved in a CCD detector?

A

Electrons stimulate photon release from scintillator
Photons transferred by fibre optic layer
Photons converted to electronic signal which is then transmitted and stored

68
Q

Who developed the Ballcock?

A

Thomas Crapper