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Tests from MindTap Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

(Chp 2)

Which of the following actions would make the medical assistant appear to be unprofessional?

a. Letting your supervisor know about your need for time off
b. Asking the patient about their personal life
c. Chatting with your co-workers about recent changes in the field of health care
d. Arriving late for your shift

A

d. Arriving late for your shift

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2
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following describes behaviors that are inherent or natural?

a. Inactive	
b. Innate	
c. Informal	
d. Informational
A

b. Innate

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3
Q

(Chp 2)

Which of the following patients takes priority over other patients?

a. A patient in the office
b. A patient needing information on their bill
c. A patient on the telephone
d. A patient calling for medication refills

A

a. A patient in the office

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3
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following is an example of social diversity?

a. Race
b. Age
c. Ancestry
d. Religion

A

d. Religion

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4
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following is recommended as a way to embrace and learn more about diversity?

a. Find some commonalities between you and someone with a different background.
b. Read about diversity.
c. Make friends with an older person of a different race.
d. Follow your place of employment’s guidelines regarding bias.

A

a. Find some commonalities between you and someone with a different background.

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5
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following types of diversity is protected by law?

a. Use of tobacco	
b. Height	
c. Weight	
d. Sexual orientation
A

d. Sexual orientation

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6
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following is a potential consequence of biases and prejudices inhibiting therapeutic communication?

a. Young people may be susceptible to inaccurate care.
b. Diagnoses may be inaccurate
c. Inaccurately recorded patient history
d. Treatment may be started too soon or too late

A

c. Inaccurately recorded patient history

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7
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following is an example of a medical assistant applying critical thinking skills?

a. The medical assistant asks the provider what equipment will be needed for a patient’s exam.
b. The medical assistant looks at the schedule for the next day to make sure needed supplies are available.
c. The medical assistant explains a procedure to a patient.
d. The medical assistant calls the patient when the patient misses an appointment.

A

b. The medical assistant looks at the schedule for the next day to make sure needed supplies are available.

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8
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following is an option for a medical assistant to acquire continuing education credits?

a. Purchase medical articles
b. Attend professional conferences
c. Watch videos on health care topics
d. Subscribe to a medical journal

A

b. Attend professional conferences

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9
Q

(Chp 2)
It is considered professional for the medical assistant to wear which of the following type of jewelry?

a. No jewelry is considered professional.
b. Small nose ring
c. Loop earrings
d. Wedding ring

A

d. Wedding ring

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10
Q

(Chp 2)
Stepping up and rooming a patient for your coworker who is running behind is an example of what professional characteristic?

a. Quick learner
b. Confidence
c. Resourcefulness
d. Initiative

A

d. Initiative

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11
Q

(Chp 2)
Which word means to put yourself in another person’s shoes and to think about what is best for the patient?

a. Empathetic
b. Adaptable
c. Courteous
d. Sympathetic

A

a. Empathetic

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12
Q

(Chp 2)
One of the goals of time management is to:

a. multi-task.
b. be efficient.
c. project a positive attitude.
d. communicate effectively.

A

b. be efficient.

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13
Q

(Chp 2)
A medical assistant with a neat, clean appearance causes the patient to feel the medical assistant is more what?

A

competent

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14
Q

(Chp 2)
The Pareto Principle states that as little as what percent of your labors will result in 80 percent of your results?

a. 30
b. 10
c. 40
d. 20

A

D. 20

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15
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following is an example of bias and prejudice?

a. A nurse asks an overweight patient to describe their typical daily food consumption.
b. A receptionist speaks loudly to a patient that is hearing impaired.
c. A medical assistant asks a bilingual patient if the patient needs an interpreter.
d. A provider makes an assumption that a patient experiencing homelessness will not follow through with their treatment plans.

A

d. A provider makes an assumption that a patient experiencing homelessness will not follow through with their treatment plans.

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16
Q

(Chp 2)
Which of the following situations should take priority over the others?

a. Assisting the provider with performing procedures.
b. Calling patients back with test results.
c. Providing a patient with after-care instructions.
d. Calling in prescription orders.

A

a. Assisting the provider with performing procedures.

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17
Q

(Chp 2)
The skill of what can be a great stride toward eliminating procrastination.

A

critical thinking

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18
Q

(Chp 2)
Continuing education is necessary in order to stay current on healthcare issues. Part of this requires you to be a:

A

lifelong learner.

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19
Q

(Chp 2)
Participation in which of the following is important in continuing education for the medical assistant?

A

Professional organizations

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20
Q

(Chp 3)
In the United States, law is predominantly derived from:

a. legislative bodies.
b. the Supreme Court.
c. executive orders.
d. voter referendums.

A

a. legislative bodies.

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21
Q

(Chp 3)
The Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act (ADAAA) emphasizes that the definition of disability should be:

a. extensively analyzed.
b. applied to all persons seeking social security benefits.
c. interpreted to a higher, more difficult standard than that of the original ADA law.
d. construed in favor of broad coverage of individuals to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of the ADA.

A

d. construed in favor of broad coverage of individuals to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of the ADA.

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22
Q

(Chp 3)
Which of these is a felony?

a. Assault	
b. Vandalism	
c. Robbery	
d. Tax evasion
A

c. Robbery

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23
Q

(Chp 3)
Under tort law, a person who is harmed by the conduct of another may sue the person who caused the harm and receive:

a. punitive damages but not compensatory damages.
b. both compensatory damages and punitive damages.
c. compensatory damages but not punitive damages.
d. antitrust damages.

A

c. compensatory damages but not punitive damages.

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24
Q

(Chp 3)
The purpose of a Good Samaritan Act is to:

a. pay for health care for anyone who is injured in an accident.
b. protect the medical provider who gives emergency care from liability for any civil damages.
c. avoid having to render aid if it violates your religious beliefs.
d. require citizens to provide aid in the event of an emergency.

A

b. protect the medical provider who gives emergency care from liability for any civil damages.

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25
Q

(Chp 3)
The various codes of ethics and standards of practice set forth a general standard of behavior. They do not, and cannot be expected to, provide guidance for every specific question that can arise. Thus, the medical assistant must do which of the following?

a. use his or her best judgment regarding the application of ethical considerations to any given situation.
b. seek advice from the AAMA after the fact.
c. ask a co-worker and follow his or her advice.
d. seek legal advice before acting.

A

a. use his or her best judgment regarding the application of ethical considerations to any given situation.

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26
Q

(Chp 3)
Laws created by the United States Congress take precedence over state law due to:

a. the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
b. the supremacy clause.
c. statutory law.
d. the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.

A

b. the supremacy clause.

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27
Q

(Chp 3)
Which of the following is an example of personal ethics?

a. The AAMA’s Code of Ethics.
b. The values statement at a local hospital
c. The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
d. Your individual stance on human cloning.

A

d. Your individual stance on human cloning.

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28
Q

(Chp 3)
Which of the following statements is true?

a. As a medical assistant, you must be licensed in order to work in any state.
b. As a medical assistant, you must be visually supervised by a physician or a nurse at all times.
c. As a medical assistant, your scope of practice is similar to a Certified Nurse Assistant.
d. As a medical assistant, you are legally bound to obtain continuing education to maintain a license

A

d. As a medical assistant, you are legally bound to obtain continuing education to maintain a license

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29
Q

(Chp 3)
The chief mechanism for development of an ethical culture within an organization rests with:

a. mission statement.	
b. founding principles.	
c. vision statement.	
d. leadership.
A

d. leadership

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30
Q

(Chp 3)
Which statement describes an emancipated minor?

a. A person who is not legally an adult (18 years of age) but has obtained written parental permission to give consent and sign contracts.
b. A person who is not legally an adult (18 years of age) who is married, in the military, or otherwise no longer dependent on his or her parents.
c. Enables the provider to ask questions of the young person in order to determine whether or not the minor has the maturity to provide his or her own consent for treatment.
d. A person who is not legally an adult (18 years of age) and is free to give consent and sign contracts.

A

b. A person who is not legally an adult (18 years of age) who is married, in the military, or otherwise no longer dependent on his or her parents.

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31
Q

(Chp 3)
Which of the following is considered personal health information protected from unauthorized disclosure under HIPAA?

a. Posts the patient makes on social media sites.
b. Information related to a patient’s past mental health.
c. Deidentified photographs of a patient published in a medical journal.
d. Information included in a study that cannot be used to identify the patient.

A

b. Information related to a patient’s past mental health.

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32
Q

(Chp 3)
Electronic medical records are:

a. entirely secure.
b. stored in computers onsite.
c. unable to be altered.
d. able to be accessed by clinicians when not in the office.

A

Not c

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33
Q

(Chp 3)
Which of these is an example of an offense that a physician is required to report to the authorities?

a. Dog bite	
b. Child abuse	
c. Theft	
d. Substance abuse
A

b. Child abuse

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34
Q

(Chp 3)
It is the goal of which government agency to ensure that employers provide safe work environments for employees?

a. OSHA	
b. FDA	
c. HHS	
d. DEA
A

a. OSHA

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35
Q

(Chp 3)
Which of the following is a method by which a provider can be relieved of the duty of care for a particular patient?

a. The doctor retires and assigns care of the patient to another physician in the practice.
b. The patient believes they have been overcharged for services.
c. The doctor objects to the patient’s religious beliefs.
d. The patient complains about the care they received.

A

a. The doctor retires and assigns care of the patient to another physician in the practice.

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36
Q

(Chp 3)
Leonard, a medical assistant who works for Dr. Parveet, makes a clerical error that ultimately causes harm to a patient, who must then seek emergency care at the hospital. Under the doctrine of respondent superior which of the following is true?

a. Only Dr. Parveet may be held liable for Leonard’s error.
b. Leonard will face criminal charges.
c. Dr. Parveet and Leonard may be held liable for Leonard’s error.
d. Neither Leonard nor Dr. Parveet may be held liable because they were acting in good faith while providing medical care.

A

c. Dr. Parveet and Leonard may be held liable for Leonard’s error.

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37
Q

(Chp 3)
An ordinance would be created by:
a. a city council.
b. a state legislature.
c. the U.S. Supreme Court.
d. the U.S. Congress.

A

a. a city council.

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38
Q

(Chp 3)
The law that holds the physician liable for the acts of the medical assistant is called:

a. respondeat superior.	
b. duty of care.	
c. standard of care.	
d. provider breach of duty.
A

a. respondeat superior.

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39
Q

(Chp 3)
Pride in knowing you are upholding the high standards of the organization is an example of

A

intrinsic reward

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40
Q

(Chp 43)
Which of the following are minute blood vessels that convey blood from the arterioles to the venules?
a. Capillaries
b. Bronchioles
c. Arteries
d. Veins

A

a. Capillaries

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41
Q

(Chp 43)
Which is an ideal sample for many screening tests that require a very small amount of blood?
a. Capillary blood
b. Arteriole blood
c. Venous blood
d. Bronchiole blood

A

a. Capillary blood

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42
Q

(Chp 43)
Which of the following should you do to calm the fears of a child before you draw their blood?

a. Explain what you will be doing.
b. Tell them it will not hurt.
c. Show them the needles you will be using.
d. Ask the parent to hold the child still.

A

. Explain what you will be doing.

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43
Q

(Chp 43)
When performing a capillary puncture, the puncture should be made slightly off-center from the fleshy part of the fingertip,
what part / direction
to the fingerprints.

A

perpendicular

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44
Q

(Chp 43)
When performing a capillary puncture on newborns and infants, what part of the heel pad is used?
a. central
b. back side
c. centered
d. lateral side

A

d. lateral side

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45
Q

(Chp 43)

When the infant reaches around the age of one year or starts to walk, blood should be obtained from his or her finger. In rare instances the what body part can been used to obtain a specimen.

A

Earlobe

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46
Q

(Chp 43)

Which of the following is a sign of an accidental arterial puncture during the venipuncture procedure?

a. No blood flows into the tube
b. The blood will be blue
c. The needle is pushed out of the arm
d. A rapidly forming hematoma

A

d. A rapidly forming hematoma

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47
Q

(Chp 43)

A person trained to perform venipuncture is known as a:

a. phlebotomist.	
b. veinologist.	
c. technologist.	
d. puncturologist.
A

a. phlebotomist.

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48
Q

(Chp 43)
Name the blood tube by color to its use:

Lavender
Green
Red/gray (tiger)
Red
Gray
Gold (SST)
Light Blue

A

Lavender = Hematology
Green = Chemistry
Red/Gray = Chemistry
Red = Chemistry
Gray = Glucose/ Blood alcohol
Gold = Chemistry
Light blue = Coagulation studies

49
Q

(Chp 43)

Which of the following gauge needles is generally used for venipuncture?
a. 22 to 24 gauge
b. 20 to 22 gauge
c. 21 to 23 gauge
d. 23 to 25 gauge

A

c. 21 to 23 gauge

50
Q

(Chp 43)

Tourniquets are available in many materials; however which version are the most popular and economical.

A

disposable latex -free ones

51
Q

(Chp 43)

Tourniquets that are worn or permanently visibly soiled (even after disinfecting) should be:
a. sanitized.
b. discarded.
c. disinfected.
d. sterilized.

A

b. discarded.

52
Q

(Chp 43)

With patients whose blood is very difficult to draw, what can you use as a tourniquet?
a. Stethoscope
b. Leather belt
c. Restraint
d. Blood pressure cuff

A

d. Blood pressure cuff

53
Q

(Chp 43)

When drawing blood, which method is probably the most popular because it is so convenient?
a. Capillary
b. Syringe
c. Vacuum
d. Butterfly

A

c. Vacuum

54
Q
A
55
Q

(Chp 43)

If a patient faints during venipuncture, which of the following can help revive the patient?
a. Ammonia inhalant
b. An ice pack
c. Orange juice
d. A hot pack

A

a. Ammonia inhalant

56
Q

(Chp 43)

If a patient alerts you that they may faint while venipuncture is performed, it is best to:

a. not draw their blood.
b. have the patient standing up.
c. have the patient lying on the examination table.
d. have the patient sitting down in a chair.

A

c. have the patient lying on the examination table.

57
Q

(Chp 43)

Specimens collected and sent for analysis must be recorded and kept in a:

a. placeholder.	
b. ledger.	
c. statement.	
d. log book.
A

d. log book.

58
Q

(Chp 43)

The needle and syringe method are often used when what are involved because it is less damaging to the tissues than the vacuum method.

A

very small veins

59
Q

(Chp 43)

When processing specimens, which instrument rotates at variable rates of speed to separate components of the blood?

a. Centrifuge	
b. Autoclave	
c. Microscope	
d. Scalpel
A

a. Centrifuge

60
Q

(Chp 13)

The circulatory system transports oxygen and
what to the body’s cells.

A

nutrients

61
Q

(Chp 13)

The outer wall of the heart is surrounded by a sac called:

a. diastole.	
b. pericardium.	
c. endocardium.	
d. systole.
A

b. pericardium.

62
Q

(Chp 13)

Which of the following is true about premature contractions?

a. they can be deadly
b. they are hereditary
c. they are caused by obesity
d. they are more common before the age of 30

A

a. they can be deadly

63
Q

(Chp 13)

When a stethoscope is used to listen to the heartbeat, two distinct sounds can be heard. This is called:
a. hub, bub.
b. dub, dub.
c. lub, dub.
d. lub, bub.

A

c. lub, dub.

64
Q

(Chp 13)

A tissue that lines the interior surface of the heart is known as:

a. pericardium.	
b. endocardium.	
c. myocardium.	
d. pleura.
A

b. endocardium

65
Q

(Chp 13)

There is an interruption in the message from the SA node to the AV node in which cardiac condition?

A

Heart block

66
Q

(Chp 13)

Which of the following is a protein found in plasma?

a. Fibrinogen	
b. Hemoglobin	
c. White blood cells	
d. Red blood cells
A

a. Fibrinogen

67
Q

(Chp 13)

A heart rate that is constantly rapid (over 100 beats per minute) is called:
a. tachycardia.
b. bradycardia.
c. ischemia.
d. arrhythmia.

A

a. tachycardia.

68
Q
A
69
Q

(Chp 13)

Which is part of the lymphatic system?

a. Liver	
b. Stomach	
c. Spleen	
d. Skin
A

c. Spleen

70
Q

(Chp 13)

A heartbeat that is consistently rapid is known as:

a. arrhythmia.	
b. tachycardia.	
c. bradycardia.	
d. atrial contractions.
A

b. tachycardia.

71
Q

(Chp 13)

The spleen is an organ composed of lymphatic tissue that lies just beneath the
which side of the diaphragm.

A

right

72
Q

(Chp 13)

Which of the following is the most common form of anemia?

a. low oxygen	
b. thrombotic	
c. low iron	
d. allergic
A

c. low iron

73
Q

(Chp 13)

How many pints of blood are in the average adult body?

A

8-10 pints

74
Q

(Chp 13)

The cellular portion of blood can be divided into three types of cells:

A

red, white and platelets

75
Q

(Chp 13)

Blood is composed of only two main parts: plasma and _____.

a. vitamins	
b. cells	
c. minerals	
d. oxygen
A

b. cells

76
Q

(Chp 13)

A new form of hepatitis has been identified. What is it called?

a. Hepatitis G	
b. Hepatitis J	
c. Hepatitis H	
d. Hepatitis I
A

a. Hepatitis G

77
Q

(Chp 13)

The substance in the blood from the metabolism of fats in the diet is called:

.

A

cholesterol

78
Q

(Chp 13)

Which of the following is a test to evaluate the condition of the myocardium of the heart?

a. Heart scan	
b. Venogram	
c. Stress ECG	
d. MUGA scan
A

c. Stress ECG

79
Q

(Chp 13)
Which of the following is the most common tool used to evaluate heart performance?

a. Heart scan	
b. MUGA scan	
c. ECG	
d. Venogram
A

c. ECG

80
Q

(Chp 41)

If anyone is injured in the medical office, no matter how insignificant it might seem, who must examine the individual?
a. Nurse
b. Receptionist
c. Provider
d. Medical assistant

A

c. Provider

81
Q

(Chp 41)
In most situations, who will know if you did or did not follow standard precautions and quality assurance recommendations?

a. The patient	
b. The provider	
c. Everybody at the facility	
d. You
A

d. You

82
Q

(Chp 41)
Which of the following should be used when performing a safety inspection of the lab and medical environment?

a. Thermometer	
b. Camera	
c. Tape measure	
d. Checklist
A

d. Checklist

83
Q

(Chp 41)
When collecting specimens from patients, the basic recommended PPE includes gloves, face shields, fluid-resistant lab coats, and
what else is used for airborne pathogens.

A

respirators

84
Q

(Chp 41)
Gloves that are too small will most likely:

a. stretch.	
b. tear.	
c. snag.	
d. loosen.
A

b. tear.

85
Q

(Chp 41)
If you are assisting with a sigmoidoscopy, you should complete the assisting, clean up, and complete the charting after you do which of the following?

a. Wash the instruments	
b. Change the table paper	
c. Sterilize the scope	
d. Remove the contaminated barriers
A

c. Sterilize the scope

86
Q

(Chp 41)
Excessive jewelry is not only inappropriate but could present a dangerous situation.

A
87
Q

(Chp 41)

For those who have respiratory conditions, having protection to which of the following diseases is recommended?

a. Pneumonia and influenza
b. Hepatitis A and B
c. Measles and mumps
d. Meningitis and chicken pox

A

a. Pneumonia and influenza

88
Q
A
89
Q

(Chp 41)

If you are going to be working directly with patients and there is a risk of coming in contact with blood or other body fluids, you should receive the series of three _____ injections.

a. HIB	
b. HBV	
c. HAV	
d. HIV
A

b. HBV

90
Q

(Chp 41)

Which of the following states employers must develop, implement, and maintain at the workplace a written, comprehensive hazard communication program that includes provisions for container labeling, collection and availability of safety data sheets, and an employee training program?

a. Global harmonized system
b. Hazard communication standard
c. Safety data sheet
d. Bloodborne pathogen standard

A

c. Safety data sheet

91
Q

(Chp 41)

Which organization created SDSs so employers and employees receive materials regarding the hazards of any chemicals and products they encounter and to ensure that all chemicals produced or imported are evaluated?

a. COLA	
b. CDC	
c. OSHA	
    d. CLIA
A

c. OSHA

92
Q

(Chp 41)

Which of the following is a new, single unified system for standardizing and harmonizing the classification and labeling of chemicals, making it more effective, consistent, and easier to understand?

a. CDC	
b. CLIA	
c. OSHA	
d. GHS
A

d. GHS

93
Q

(Chp 41)

The HCS requires all labels to have which of the following on them, alerting all users of the chemical hazards they are being exposed to?

a. bar codes	
b. serial numbers	
c. color codes	
d. pictograms
A

d. pictograms

94
Q
A
95
Q

(Chp 41)

The local fire department will conduct routine walkthroughs of the facility to verify compliance with fire codes. When should this be done?

a. when first moving into an office, prior to seeing patients
b. anytime they can do the walkthrough
c. in January each year
d. three times per year

A

a. when first moving into an office, prior to seeing patients

96
Q

(Chp 41)

Which of the following laboratory tests goes beyond the preceding requirements in that the testing personnel must have very specific and specialized training to perform those tests?

a. Highly complex	
b. Moderately complex	
c. Low complex	
d. Waived complex
A

a. Highly complex

97
Q

(Chp 41)

Why must a supply of lens paper be kept nearby when using the microscope?

a. To conform with OSHA standards
b. To satisfy safety protocols
c. To follow manufacturer’s recommendations
d. To clean the lens after each use

A

d. To clean the lens after each use

98
Q

(Chp 41)

Which of the following is a process that assesses testing procedures, reagents, and technique of the person performing the tests?

a. quality control
b. provider performed microscopy procedures
c. biohazard communications
d. quality assurance

A

a. quality control

99
Q

(Chp 41)

Which of the following does quality assurance involve?

a. Control groups	
b. Higher reimbursement	
c. Patient satisfaction	
d. Proper patient identification
A

d. Proper patient identification

100
Q

(Chp 42)

Through partial voiding before collection, which part of the body is cleared of contaminants such as bacteria, mucus, cells, or other debris that could adversely affect the results?

a. Urethra	
b. kidney	
c. Ureter	
    d. bladder
A

a. Urethra

101
Q

(Chp 42)

Which of the following urine samples is the best for testing because the urine, having been in the bladder overnight, is the most concentrated specimen?

a. the first morning specimen
b. the one collected after a large meal
c. the last specimen of the day
d. one collected after drinking plenty of liquids

A

a. the first morning specimen

102
Q

(Chp 42)

Which of the following is the first step in collecting a specimen for testing?

a. Process the specimen	
b. Prepare the patient	
c. Chart the process	
d. Verify the correct patient
A

d. Verify the correct patient

103
Q

(Chp 42)

Catheterization includes the introduction of a sterile plastic tube into the:

a. bladder.	
b. ovary.	
c. ureter.	
d. kidney.
A

a. bladder.

104
Q

(Chp 42)

Which is a specialized type of urine collection that is indicated when the patient is unable to void?

a. Clean catch	
b. 24 hour	
c. Random	
d. Catheterization
A

d. Catheterization

105
Q

(Chp 42)

For the collection of specimens for substance abuse analysis and chain of custody, patients should be informed that all drugs that have been consumed within the
how many days prior to testing are likely to be revealed by the test, even including over the counter (OTC) medications.

A
106
Q

(Chp 42)

What method is used to collect a urine specimen from an infant?

a. Clean catch	
b. 24 hour	
c. Catheterization	
d. Collection bag
A

d. Collection bag

107
Q

(Chp 42)

What is added to the toilet prior to the patient entering the bathroom facility for the collection of specimens for substance abuse analysis and chain of custody?

a. Red dye	
b. A collection container	
c. Bluing	
d. Hot water
A

c. Bluing

108
Q

(Chp 42)

Match urine components to its normal value

Epithelial cells
Mucus
RBC
WBC
Bacteria

A

Epithelial cells = Few to moderate ( not seen often in males)

Mucus = Slight

RB = Females, 5-10/hpf ( non mensural)
Males = 0

WBC = females, 10-20/hpf
males, 0-10/hpf

Bateria = none to slight

109
Q

(Chp 42)

Which of the following is immediately checked following collection and recorded with the patient observing you?

a. clarity of the specimen
b. Temperature of the specimen
c. Volume of the specimen
d. Color of the specimen

A

c. Volume of the specimen

110
Q

(Chp 42)

What type of specimen is used in most POLs for home pregnancy tests and screening tests?

a. Blood	
b. Sputum	
c. Urine	
d. Saliva
A

c. Urine

111
Q

(Chp 42)

If a urine pregnancy test is determined to be negative, which of the patient’s levels must be tested in order to determine how concentrated the urine is?

a. protein	
b. volume	
c. pH	
d. specific gravity
A

d. specific gravity

112
Q

(Chp 42)

Which of the following should a patient be advised to avoid starting seven days before obtaining a fecal blood test?

a. Aspirin	
b. Coffee	
c. Sugar	
d. Dairy
A

a. Aspirin

113
Q

(Chp 42)

What is NOT included in the physical testing of the urine specimen?

a. Protein	
b. Clarity	
c. Specific gravity	
d. Color
A

a. Protein

114
Q

(Chp 42)

Match the urine color to what it represents:

Red -
Orange -
Green -
Blue -
Brown -

A

Red = Blood
Orange = Pyridium
Green = jaundice
Blue = certain medications
Brown = old blood

115
Q

(Chp 42)

Which of the following is the normal pH for urine?

a. 6.0 to 8.0	
b. 3.0-5.0	
c. 4.0 to 6.0	
d. 5.0 to 7.0
A

d. 5.0 to 7.0

116
Q

(Chp 42)

Cancer is detected in the sputum specimen using the same stain used for the detection of cancer of the cervix in women. Which of the following stains is used?

a. Ziehl-Neelsen stain	
b. Acid fast stain	
c. Papanicolaou stain	
d. Gram stain
A

c. Papanicolaou stain

117
Q

(Chp 42)

What time of day is best for collecting a sputum specimen?

a. Right after eating	
b. First thing in the morning	
c. Right after drinking water	
d. Right before bed
A

b. First thing in the morning

118
Q

(Chp 42)

Throat cultures are usually inoculated to blood agar and chocolate agar; if strep is present in the specimen, the blood agar will show what, which assists the microbiologist in determining the strain of Streptococci.

A

hemolysis

119
Q

(Chp 42)

Which organisms are rod-shaped?

a. Cocci	
b. Corkscrew	
c. Spiral	
d. Bacilli
A

d. Bacilli

Medical Assistant (8 decks)

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