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Ssgt > Testing > Flashcards

Testing Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the only person authorized to void the DD form 1805, US states district court violations notice?

A

Chief security forces

CSF

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2
Q

Where would you annotate on DD form 1920 alcohol incident report, the results of a suspects blood alcohol chemical test

A

Section 3 standard field sobriety testing

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3
Q

What happens to the original copy of the AF form 75 visitor vehicle pass once you have completed it

A

Given to the individual

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4
Q

What should you do if you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing he scene

A

Record it’s original position

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5
Q

Which of the following is a simple courtroom rule SF members follow

A

Do not talk to court members

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6
Q

Terminate a walk and turn field sobriety test when a suspect

A

Steps off the line three or more times

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7
Q

Which part of the M713/M715/M716 ground markers (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced

A

Ogive

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8
Q

How should you conduct s simple search of a vehicle

A

Throughly and systematically

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9
Q

What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check

A

Object size

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10
Q

At least how many SF members should be present when conducting entry point checks

A

Two

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11
Q

What is the max effective range of the M9 pistol

A

50 Meters

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12
Q

Capabilities based integrated defense is a fundamental battle competency for all

A

Airmen

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13
Q

Before releasing a mwd to search a building the handler must

A

Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog

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14
Q

Who is responsible to ensure personnel are SFMIS trained

A

Chief security forces

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15
Q

What approach is primarily used to interrogate

A

Direct

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16
Q

What rule applies in the summary reporting system under number of premises entered if several dwelling units under a single manager are burglarized and the manager reports it to the police

A

Hotel

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17
Q

When should you begin taking crime scene notes

A

As soon as you are dispatched

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18
Q

From what position is the M240B loaded

A

Bolt opened or closed

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19
Q

Searching fire is most often I’m used on

A

Level or evenly sloping ground

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20
Q

If you use the question and answer technique with a suspect on the AF Form 1168 have

A

The person giving the statement initial after each question and answer

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21
Q

The chain of custody for an item of evidence on the AF form 52 evidence tag is initiated by the

A

Person who obtained or collected the property

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22
Q

A conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the definition is a/an

A

Attempted suicide

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23
Q

Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target

A

Quickly and accurately

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24
Q

The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are

A

Simple and complete

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25
Q

Within how many months after qualification training must SF and battlefield airmen complete unit live fire sustainment training on their primary weapon

A

5- 7 months

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26
Q

In addition to analyzing law enforcement statistics the security forces management information system also analyzes threat

A

Fusion

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27
Q

What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress

A

Recognizing stress

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28
Q

What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the one leg stand field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content of at least .08

A

Two

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29
Q

What two AF documents help you manage manpower resources

A

UMD AND UPMR

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30
Q

You will apply specific security principles to a close in security area that contains

A

Nuclear weapons

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31
Q

An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called

A

A stoppage

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32
Q

How far from bunkers fighting positions or contamination areas should collection point be located

A

10 feet and downwind

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33
Q

In meters what is the max range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area targets

A

400 M

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34
Q

For quickness when conducting a search of an individual it should be

A

Systematic and through

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35
Q

Which is an example of a weapon system PL resource

A

Command, control, communications and computers systems of active nuclear missions

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36
Q

What purpose does physical protection surveys in preventing crime

A

Education personnel about the steps they can take to protect themselves and their property

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37
Q

What must you do if during a search the individual withdrawals a previous consent to search

A

Stop search immediately

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38
Q

Who can authorize a search of people and property for evidence of a crime

A

Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched

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39
Q

Which type of child abuse is most difficult to identify

A

Emotional maltreatment

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40
Q

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

A

Clean and properly lubricated

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41
Q

How many copies of the DD form 2708 receipt for inmate or detained person should you prepare and where are the copies kept

A

Two: the case file and the person receiving custody

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42
Q

What is the waiting period in seconds from the time of a failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203

A

30 seconds

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43
Q

What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position

A

Prominent natural and man made features that could be likely targets

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44
Q

Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form

A

2707 confinement order

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45
Q

How is ammunition fed into the M240B

A

100 round bandolier split link belt

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46
Q

What does the acronym blank firing adapter stand for BFA

A

blank firing adapter

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47
Q

When should you give your opinion during court proceedings

A

Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense

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48
Q

The budget program operates on a fiscal year basis beginning the first day of

A

October and ending on 30 sept

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49
Q

The use of pro words in radio communications help

A

Shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception

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50
Q

Under the Stan/ Eval program unit functional areas are inspected once

A

Every 12 months

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51
Q

Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they

A

Have an UIF unfavorable information file

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52
Q

The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant and threatening situations is known as

A

Stress

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53
Q

Integrated Defense forces vary depending on the theater and may include all of the following except

A

Friendly forces

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54
Q

What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check

A

Stop the check immediately and apprehend/ detain individual

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55
Q

Which of the following is used primarily to control direct fire weapons but may also be used for indirect fire weapons

A

Target reference point

TRP

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56
Q

What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the HGN field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content of at least .08

A

Four

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57
Q

What is the M249 maximum range for a point target using a bipod

A

600

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58
Q

Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as

A

Critical

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59
Q

When clearing fields of fire at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward

A

100

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60
Q

Where would you sketch in magnetic north on your range card

A

Marginal data area

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61
Q

What document establishes the rules of evidence

A

Manuals for court martial MCM

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62
Q

In order to preserve law and order title 18 section 1382 of the US code authorizes security forces to

A

Detain civilians for on base offenses

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63
Q

What type of demarcation do fences serve when they are used to secure area boundaries

A

Legal and physical

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64
Q

What happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the Korean War

A

They were suddenly over run by the enemy

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65
Q

The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role

A

The close quarter battle role

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66
Q

In October 1997 he security specialists, law enforcement specialists and combat arms training and maintenance career fields merged into one career field that

A

Was re designated security forces.

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67
Q

On the M9 pistol the dual purpose of the extractor/ loaded chamber indicator is

A

Case extractor and loaded chamber indicator

68
Q

Apply immediately actions to an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

A

Instinctive

69
Q

How many types of 9mm ammo are used with the M9 pistol

A

Four

70
Q

Which section acts as a liaison between the unit, base supply hazardous material, general services administration and defense reutilization marketing office

A

S4S supply

71
Q

Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with

A

AFI 31-207 arming and use of force by AF personnel

72
Q

To use the chest grab technique when being pushed /grabbed you must quickly trap the suspects hand by grabbing the suspects arm

A

Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down and trapping the suspects hand on your chest

73
Q

When you arrive at a crime scene your object is to

A

Keep the scene in its original state

74
Q

Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government

A

US army

75
Q

How many feet apart would you display restricted area boundaries

A

100 ft

76
Q

Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who is in your presence commits a crime amounting to breach of the peace

A

Citizens right of arrest

77
Q

Which type of lighting is a low illuminating light used In Nuclear restricted areas

A

Very near infrared

78
Q

How close to firm ground must the fence fabric extend in a restricted area

A

Two inches

79
Q

Which of the following is not an allowable type of apprehension/detention code on the AF form 3545 incident report

A

Detained

80
Q

What are there 2 most common malfunctions for the M240B

A

Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire

81
Q

Which sentence is an example of using active voice in a report

A

Ssgt smith struck Amn Jones

82
Q

Investigators will conduct Pretrial preparations with

A

Staff judge advocate

83
Q

What type of M249 ammo is used during mechanical training dry fire exercises and function checks

A

M199 dummy

84
Q

What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement

A

Enforce the traffic code

85
Q

Which detection stage of alarm protection provide response forces with the least amount of warning

A

Point

86
Q

During a traffic stop how far from the violators vehicle do you position your vehicle

A

10-12 feet to the rear and 3 feet to the left

87
Q

What is posse commitatis

A

A summon for all able bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or pursuing criminals

88
Q

In the stages of alarm protection motion detection is also called

A

Volumetric or space

89
Q

How many calendar days is a completed AF form 1109 visitor registration log maintained

A

90

90
Q

Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training will stan/eval be conducted

A

30

91
Q

Which AF form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis

A

1297 temporary issue receipt

92
Q

Which action is the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger

A

Firing

93
Q

The main source of stress can be found in your

A

Personal life and job

94
Q

Under the national Law enforcement telecommunications system NLETS program where is the communication terminal located

A

At the authorized SF control centers

95
Q

You respond to a dispute and determined it was verbal because

A

A physical assault had not occurred

96
Q

What does the acronym FPL stand for

A

Final protective line

97
Q

Which article of the UCMJ gives security forces member the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties

A

Article 92

98
Q

What type of evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense

A

Circumstantial

99
Q

How should you position your vehicle at the scene of the accident

A

To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard

100
Q

When directing traffic on a one way street it is best for you to stand

A

Off to the side of the road

101
Q

How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility

A

Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side of it rather than directly at it

102
Q

The most common mistakes when moving past windows are exposing the head and

A

Not being aware of basement windows

103
Q

Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments

A

Intergovernmental organization

104
Q

MWD’s should be kept on leash except when they must

A

Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building

105
Q

What are the two most important factors to remember when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension

A

Your position and attitude

106
Q

How many way points can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN-11

A

999

107
Q

What are the three ways of concealing yourself from enemy detection

A

Hiding, blending and deceiving

108
Q

When providing missile field security, how often do you test the alarm system to ensure operational capabilities of the security system

A

As necessary

109
Q

Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called

A

Flagging

110
Q

Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators

A

Communications

111
Q

You use the bounding overwatch formation when

A

Enemy contact is expected

112
Q

What is achieved by the balanced employment of fire power and patrolling

A

Aggressive defense

113
Q

To avoid detection by the government how will insurgents operate

A

In small bands

114
Q

What should a flight sector sketch show

A

Flight squadron identification

115
Q

Which agency will the base defense operation center BDOC up channel covered wagon reportable incidents through

A

Installation command post

116
Q

Based on the terrain vegetation and visibility leaders established en route rally points every 100 to

A

400 meters

117
Q

Which of the DAGR mode uses the most power and track satellites to Produce a continuous PVT solution

A

Continuous

118
Q

During offense of an defense of operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage?

A

The weather and type of material used

119
Q

Which movement technique do you use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely

A

Traveling

120
Q

What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 m method of range determination

A

Accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer

121
Q

Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinates, divide the grid squares into

A

Tenths

122
Q

The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are

A

An emmitter head with battery case, sensor head and transmitter

123
Q

The DAGR provides to the user position

A

Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities

124
Q

Where can you find the sheet name of a map

A

In the center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin

125
Q

The level of performance for that AN\PVS – 14 depends upon the level of

A

Light

126
Q

Selection of team movement techniques is based on

A

Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed

127
Q

When recovering the M 49 a one trip flair, what is the first step using the pull pin method

A

Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip

128
Q

After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and re-organize friendly forces and restore operations

A

Recovery

129
Q

How many people are required to set up the wide area to surveillance thermal image tripod

A

Two

130
Q

The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use

A

Violence to achieve political goals

131
Q

What determines if you will build overhead cover up or down on a defensive firing position

A

The potential for enemy observation of position

132
Q

What does the term METT – TC mean

A 
Mission
Enemy 
Terrain 
Weather troops 
Time available
133
Q

What are the three types of contour lines used on a topographic map

A

Index, intermediate, and supplementary

134
Q

To ensure proper functioning of a compass the safe separation distance from telephone wire is

A

10 meters

135
Q

If you use the Watch method to find directions on daylight savings time the north-south line is between the hour hand and

A

1300 hours

136
Q

What are the components of the AN\PVS 7night vision goggles

A

Facemask and goggles

137
Q

Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US

A

Department of state

138
Q

Who directs the US forces to respond rapidly to certain crisis either unilaterally or as part of a an inter-agency and or multi national effort

A

President or secretary of defense

139
Q

When marking targets the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is

A

Aiming point

140
Q

Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization

A

The United Nations

141
Q

What are the principles of NIDD

A

Notify, impede, disable and destroy

142
Q

Aerial ports of demarcation, border crossings and seaports of demarcation are all examples of key

A

Sovereignty issues

143
Q

Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens

A

Noncombatant evacuation

144
Q

What types of slope are evenly spaced, but close together

A

Steep

145
Q

What consist of a collection of position and movement data for a geographic location

A

Situational awareness

146
Q

Save operating distance of radiofrequency transmitters around refueling locations

A

50 m

147
Q

On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular

A

Eye relief adjustment

148
Q

What is the WSTI used for

A

To assess the alarms of a sensors activation

149
Q

Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapons accident

A

Disaster control group

150
Q

When the launch facility is penetrated or unlocked or a payloader with a weapon is present the LF is designated as

A

A limited area

151
Q

What type of ammo is used to engage lightly armored targets

A

M61

152
Q

How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence

A

Physical injury or emotional disturbance

153
Q

Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents

A

Security forces personnel

154
Q

In which portion of the UFM phase can you expect to use physical apprehension and restraint techniques (PART)

A

Resistance active

155
Q

The success of any community policing program depends on

A

The extent to which the program meets the community needs

156
Q

The M107 Sniper rifle operates by means of

A

Short recoil principle

157
Q

In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved

A

1957

158
Q

What cartridge used in the m4 is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance

A

M856

159
Q

When selecting crew served weapons position which type of fire organizes the battlefield

A

Predetermined

160
Q

Before firing the light anti armor weapons (LAW) what should you check

A

Backblast area

161
Q

The 3 principle target areas, for using the baton on a suspect, are arms

A

Legs and knees

162
Q

Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

A

A stoppage

163
Q

What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge

A

Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise

164
Q

What portion of the UFM that a subjects actions are located within can you expect to use approved electronic control devices

A

Resistance active

165
Q

If a person subject to military law committed an offense overseas that person

A

Can be tried in the US and vice versa

166
Q

Under what circumstances would you use the MK19 ammunition in the M203

A

Under no circumstances

Ssgt (1 decks)

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