Testing Flashcards
Who is the only person authorized to void the DD form 1805, US states district court violations notice?
Chief security forces
CSF
Where would you annotate on DD form 1920 alcohol incident report, the results of a suspects blood alcohol chemical test
Section 3 standard field sobriety testing
What happens to the original copy of the AF form 75 visitor vehicle pass once you have completed it
Given to the individual
What should you do if you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing he scene
Record it’s original position
Which of the following is a simple courtroom rule SF members follow
Do not talk to court members
Terminate a walk and turn field sobriety test when a suspect
Steps off the line three or more times
Which part of the M713/M715/M716 ground markers (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced
Ogive
How should you conduct s simple search of a vehicle
Throughly and systematically
What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check
Object size
At least how many SF members should be present when conducting entry point checks
Two
What is the max effective range of the M9 pistol
50 Meters
Capabilities based integrated defense is a fundamental battle competency for all
Airmen
Before releasing a mwd to search a building the handler must
Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog
Who is responsible to ensure personnel are SFMIS trained
Chief security forces
What approach is primarily used to interrogate
Direct
What rule applies in the summary reporting system under number of premises entered if several dwelling units under a single manager are burglarized and the manager reports it to the police
Hotel
When should you begin taking crime scene notes
As soon as you are dispatched
From what position is the M240B loaded
Bolt opened or closed
Searching fire is most often I’m used on
Level or evenly sloping ground
If you use the question and answer technique with a suspect on the AF Form 1168 have
The person giving the statement initial after each question and answer
The chain of custody for an item of evidence on the AF form 52 evidence tag is initiated by the
Person who obtained or collected the property
A conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the definition is a/an
Attempted suicide
Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
Quickly and accurately
The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are
Simple and complete
Within how many months after qualification training must SF and battlefield airmen complete unit live fire sustainment training on their primary weapon
5- 7 months
In addition to analyzing law enforcement statistics the security forces management information system also analyzes threat
Fusion
What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress
Recognizing stress
What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the one leg stand field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content of at least .08
Two
What two AF documents help you manage manpower resources
UMD AND UPMR
You will apply specific security principles to a close in security area that contains
Nuclear weapons
An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called
A stoppage
How far from bunkers fighting positions or contamination areas should collection point be located
10 feet and downwind
In meters what is the max range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area targets
400 M
For quickness when conducting a search of an individual it should be
Systematic and through
Which is an example of a weapon system PL resource
Command, control, communications and computers systems of active nuclear missions
What purpose does physical protection surveys in preventing crime
Education personnel about the steps they can take to protect themselves and their property
What must you do if during a search the individual withdrawals a previous consent to search
Stop search immediately
Who can authorize a search of people and property for evidence of a crime
Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched
Which type of child abuse is most difficult to identify
Emotional maltreatment
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
Clean and properly lubricated
How many copies of the DD form 2708 receipt for inmate or detained person should you prepare and where are the copies kept
Two: the case file and the person receiving custody
What is the waiting period in seconds from the time of a failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203
30 seconds
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position
Prominent natural and man made features that could be likely targets
Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form
2707 confinement order
How is ammunition fed into the M240B
100 round bandolier split link belt
What does the acronym blank firing adapter stand for BFA
blank firing adapter
When should you give your opinion during court proceedings
Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense
The budget program operates on a fiscal year basis beginning the first day of
October and ending on 30 sept
The use of pro words in radio communications help
Shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception
Under the Stan/ Eval program unit functional areas are inspected once
Every 12 months
Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they
Have an UIF unfavorable information file
The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant and threatening situations is known as
Stress
Integrated Defense forces vary depending on the theater and may include all of the following except
Friendly forces
What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check
Stop the check immediately and apprehend/ detain individual
Which of the following is used primarily to control direct fire weapons but may also be used for indirect fire weapons
Target reference point
TRP
What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the HGN field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content of at least .08
Four
What is the M249 maximum range for a point target using a bipod
600
Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as
Critical
When clearing fields of fire at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward
100
Where would you sketch in magnetic north on your range card
Marginal data area
What document establishes the rules of evidence
Manuals for court martial MCM
In order to preserve law and order title 18 section 1382 of the US code authorizes security forces to
Detain civilians for on base offenses
What type of demarcation do fences serve when they are used to secure area boundaries
Legal and physical
What happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the Korean War
They were suddenly over run by the enemy
The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role
The close quarter battle role
In October 1997 he security specialists, law enforcement specialists and combat arms training and maintenance career fields merged into one career field that
Was re designated security forces.
On the M9 pistol the dual purpose of the extractor/ loaded chamber indicator is
Case extractor and loaded chamber indicator
Apply immediately actions to an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
Instinctive
How many types of 9mm ammo are used with the M9 pistol
Four
Which section acts as a liaison between the unit, base supply hazardous material, general services administration and defense reutilization marketing office
S4S supply
Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with
AFI 31-207 arming and use of force by AF personnel
To use the chest grab technique when being pushed /grabbed you must quickly trap the suspects hand by grabbing the suspects arm
Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down and trapping the suspects hand on your chest
When you arrive at a crime scene your object is to
Keep the scene in its original state
Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government
US army
How many feet apart would you display restricted area boundaries
100 ft
Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who is in your presence commits a crime amounting to breach of the peace
Citizens right of arrest
Which type of lighting is a low illuminating light used In Nuclear restricted areas
Very near infrared
How close to firm ground must the fence fabric extend in a restricted area
Two inches
Which of the following is not an allowable type of apprehension/detention code on the AF form 3545 incident report
Detained
What are there 2 most common malfunctions for the M240B
Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire
Which sentence is an example of using active voice in a report
Ssgt smith struck Amn Jones
Investigators will conduct Pretrial preparations with
Staff judge advocate
What type of M249 ammo is used during mechanical training dry fire exercises and function checks
M199 dummy
What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement
Enforce the traffic code
Which detection stage of alarm protection provide response forces with the least amount of warning
Point
During a traffic stop how far from the violators vehicle do you position your vehicle
10-12 feet to the rear and 3 feet to the left
What is posse commitatis
A summon for all able bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or pursuing criminals
In the stages of alarm protection motion detection is also called
Volumetric or space
How many calendar days is a completed AF form 1109 visitor registration log maintained
90
Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training will stan/eval be conducted
30
Which AF form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis
1297 temporary issue receipt
Which action is the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger
Firing
The main source of stress can be found in your
Personal life and job
Under the national Law enforcement telecommunications system NLETS program where is the communication terminal located
At the authorized SF control centers
You respond to a dispute and determined it was verbal because
A physical assault had not occurred
What does the acronym FPL stand for
Final protective line
Which article of the UCMJ gives security forces member the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties
Article 92
What type of evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense
Circumstantial
How should you position your vehicle at the scene of the accident
To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard
When directing traffic on a one way street it is best for you to stand
Off to the side of the road
How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility
Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side of it rather than directly at it
The most common mistakes when moving past windows are exposing the head and
Not being aware of basement windows
Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments
Intergovernmental organization
MWD’s should be kept on leash except when they must
Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building
What are the two most important factors to remember when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension
Your position and attitude
How many way points can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN-11
999
What are the three ways of concealing yourself from enemy detection
Hiding, blending and deceiving
When providing missile field security, how often do you test the alarm system to ensure operational capabilities of the security system
As necessary
Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called
Flagging
Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators
Communications
You use the bounding overwatch formation when
Enemy contact is expected
What is achieved by the balanced employment of fire power and patrolling
Aggressive defense
To avoid detection by the government how will insurgents operate
In small bands
What should a flight sector sketch show
Flight squadron identification
Which agency will the base defense operation center BDOC up channel covered wagon reportable incidents through
Installation command post
Based on the terrain vegetation and visibility leaders established en route rally points every 100 to
400 meters
Which of the DAGR mode uses the most power and track satellites to Produce a continuous PVT solution
Continuous
During offense of an defense of operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage?
The weather and type of material used
Which movement technique do you use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely
Traveling
What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 m method of range determination
Accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer
Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinates, divide the grid squares into
Tenths
The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are
An emmitter head with battery case, sensor head and transmitter
The DAGR provides to the user position
Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities
Where can you find the sheet name of a map
In the center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin
The level of performance for that AN\PVS – 14 depends upon the level of
Light
Selection of team movement techniques is based on
Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
When recovering the M 49 a one trip flair, what is the first step using the pull pin method
Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip
After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and re-organize friendly forces and restore operations
Recovery
How many people are required to set up the wide area to surveillance thermal image tripod
Two
The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use
Violence to achieve political goals
What determines if you will build overhead cover up or down on a defensive firing position
The potential for enemy observation of position
What does the term METT – TC mean
Mission Enemy Terrain Weather troops Time available
What are the three types of contour lines used on a topographic map
Index, intermediate, and supplementary
To ensure proper functioning of a compass the safe separation distance from telephone wire is
10 meters
If you use the Watch method to find directions on daylight savings time the north-south line is between the hour hand and
1300 hours
What are the components of the AN\PVS 7night vision goggles
Facemask and goggles
Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US
Department of state
Who directs the US forces to respond rapidly to certain crisis either unilaterally or as part of a an inter-agency and or multi national effort
President or secretary of defense
When marking targets the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
Aiming point
Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization
The United Nations
What are the principles of NIDD
Notify, impede, disable and destroy
Aerial ports of demarcation, border crossings and seaports of demarcation are all examples of key
Sovereignty issues
Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens
Noncombatant evacuation
What types of slope are evenly spaced, but close together
Steep
What consist of a collection of position and movement data for a geographic location
Situational awareness
Save operating distance of radiofrequency transmitters around refueling locations
50 m
On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular
Eye relief adjustment
What is the WSTI used for
To assess the alarms of a sensors activation
Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapons accident
Disaster control group
When the launch facility is penetrated or unlocked or a payloader with a weapon is present the LF is designated as
A limited area
What type of ammo is used to engage lightly armored targets
M61
How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence
Physical injury or emotional disturbance
Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents
Security forces personnel
In which portion of the UFM phase can you expect to use physical apprehension and restraint techniques (PART)
Resistance active
The success of any community policing program depends on
The extent to which the program meets the community needs
The M107 Sniper rifle operates by means of
Short recoil principle
In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved
1957
What cartridge used in the m4 is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance
M856
When selecting crew served weapons position which type of fire organizes the battlefield
Predetermined
Before firing the light anti armor weapons (LAW) what should you check
Backblast area
The 3 principle target areas, for using the baton on a suspect, are arms
Legs and knees
Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
A stoppage
What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge
Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise
What portion of the UFM that a subjects actions are located within can you expect to use approved electronic control devices
Resistance active
If a person subject to military law committed an offense overseas that person
Can be tried in the US and vice versa
Under what circumstances would you use the MK19 ammunition in the M203
Under no circumstances
