Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Foundations 2 > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Anesthesia

A

State of depressed CNS activity, marked by depression of consciousness, loss of responsiveness, and muscle relaxation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Moderate Sedation

A

Type of anesthesia in which that client does NOT loose consciousness but induction of amnesia and analgesia is still achieved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

General anesthesia

A

Loss of sensation, consciousness and reflexes. (Used from major surgery)

Can be injected or inhaled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Local Anesthesia

A

Loss of sensation. NO loss off consciousness.

  • Blocks transmission along nerves
  • loss of autonomic function to a specific area of the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many stages of general anesthesia are there?

A

Three:

1) Induction
2) Maintenance
3) Emergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inhaled Anesthetics

A

Volatile gases or liquids that are dissolved in O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Injectable Anesthetics

A

Usually given through IV.

  • Propofol (diprican) is the most common.
  • patients allergic to eggs or soy bean oil may be allergic to Propofol.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Opioids

A

For pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Reduces anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antiemetics

A

For nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Decrease risk of Bradycardia during surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sedatives

A

Sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents

A

Relaxation of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nursing actions before surgery

A
  • consent is signed
  • have client void before meds
  • ensure bed is low/side rails up
  • monitor airway and 02 saturation
  • monitor lab values
  • monitor cardiac rhythm
  • monitor temperature
  • monitor drains
  • assess levels if sedation
  • monitor hypotension
  • notify surgeon if abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Local anesthesia routes

A

Topical, injection, regional nerve block (injection around specific nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Spinal nerve block

A

Injection into CSF in subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Epidermal nerve block

A

Anesthetic injected into epidural space in thoracic or lumbar areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nerve block

A

Around or into area of nerves to block sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Field block

A

Nerve black around operative field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Peripheral nerve block

A

Specific nerve for analgesic or anesthetic use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Moderate sedation

A

Patient is relaxed but can respond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Preoperative nursing care takes place….

A

At the time a client is scheduled for surgery, until care is transferred to operating suite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nursing assessment in Preoperative care include…

A

History, allergies, anxiety level, lab results, and head to toe, vitals, baseline data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nurses job during Informed consent

A
  • nurse can clarify information but can not provide new information
  • must witness clients signature
  • make sure client is 18 or older, mentally capable, not under meds.

*two witnesses are required if patient signs with X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Preoperative teaching includes?

A

*pain control
*importance of splinting,coughing,deep breathing
*ROM exercises
*early ambulation
*stockings and compression devices
*postoperative diet
*invasive devices
*incentive spirometer
*hold smoking 24 hrs
Asprin should be stopped 1 week before
*herbal meds stopped 2-3 weeks b4
*cannot eat 6hrs/ clear liquids 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PACU

A

Post anesthesia care unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the priority care in PACU?

A

Airway patency and ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What position should unconscious patients be in?

A

Lateral (left or right) to prevent aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Alderete score system

A

**Monitors recovery from anesthesia

Scores: activity, consciousness, respirations, o2, circulation

*needs to have a score of 8-10 to be discharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

Massive loss of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Paralytic ileus

A

Absent bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Wound dishisance

A

Spontaneous opening of wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Evisceration

A

Intestine through the incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Intracellular fluid (ICF)

A

2/3 of bodies water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Extra cellular fluid (ECF)

A

1/3 of bodies water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fluid volume deficits (FVDs)

A

Hypovolemia-isotonic:loss of water and electrolytes from extra cellular fluid

Dehydration-osmolar:loss of water with no loss of electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hemoconcentration

A

Occurs with dehydration, resulting in high HCT, serum electrolytes, and urine specific gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hypovolemia vitals

A 
Hyperthermia
Tachycardia 
Threads pulse 
Hypotension 
Tachypneic 
Hypoxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

Decreased hemoglobin, O2 saturation

*administer o2, provide fluids, administer vasoconstrictors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Teaching method

A

Demonstrate, have patient explain back to you, have patient demonstrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

PCA

A

Patient controlled anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Older adults surgical risk factors

A

*Decreased cardiac output/peripheral circulation.
*increased BP
Considerations:
*chronic illnesses
*malnutrition
*impaired self care ability
*allergies
Stress from surgery
Mental status changes
Risk for falls
*inadequate support system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Elective surgery

A

Not an emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Urgent surgery

A

Needs to be done quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Emergent surgery

A

ASAP (trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Simple surgery

A

Example: biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Radical surgery

A

Very extensive

Ex: removing something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Minimally invasive surgery (MIS)

A

Decreased risk of infection and blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Latex allergy indication

A

Bananas and kiwi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hypercoagulation

A

Clots easy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hypocoagulation

A

Bleeds easy

51
Q

Patients at risk for VTE (venous thromboembolism)

A
  • decreased mobility
  • obesity
  • age 40 or older
  • history of cancer
  • spinal cord injury
  • history of VTE, PE, varicose vein, edema
  • *oral contraceptives
  • smoking
  • decreased cardiac output
  • hip fracture or total knee/hip replacement
52
Q

Intestinal preparation for surgery

A
  • performed to prevent injury to colon, reduced number or intestinal bacteria
  • enema or laxative night before it morning of surgery
53
Q

Preoperative patient prep.

A
  • provide gown
  • leave valuables with family or lock up
  • tape rings in place if can’t be removed
  • ensure patient is wearing ID band
  • Provide patient with warmed blanket
54
Q

Hypothermia

A
  • increased chances of wound infection
  • alters metabolism of meds
  • coagulation
  • cardiac dysrhythmia
55
Q

Prophylactic Antibiotics

A

1 hour before surgery

56
Q

Circulating nurse

A

Coordinates all activities in OR, sets up, and checks equipment, prepares patient, documents all care and events, completes count of sponges and instruments.

57
Q

Scrub nurse

A

Sets up sterile field, drapes patient, hands sterile instruments, supplies to surgeon, maintains accurate count of sponges and equipment.

58
Q

Grounding pads

A

Needed with Minimally invasive surgery (MIS)

59
Q

Who scrubs in for surgery? Who doesn’t have to?

A

Surgeon, surgical assistant, scrub nurse have to scrub in.

Anesthetist and circulating nurse don’t have to.

60
Q

Four stages of general anesthesia

A

Stage 1- analgesia and sedation, relaxation
Stage 2- excitement, delirium
Stage 3- operative anesthesia, surgical anesthesia
Stage 4- danger

61
Q

Balanced anesthesia

A

Combination of iv drugs and inhalation to obtain specific effects.

62
Q

Complications from general anesthesia

A
  • Malignant hyperthermia
  • Overdose
  • unrecognized hypoventalation
  • problems with anesthetic agents
  • intubation problems
63
Q

Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia

A

Tachycardia, tachypnea, elevated temp, muscle rigidity, skin mottling, cyanosis, myoglobinuria, decreased pulse ox

64
Q

Dantromine

A

Iv muscle relaxant

65
Q

Postoperative period

A

Begins with completion of surgery and transfer to PACU, ambulatory care unit, or ICU.

66
Q

Returning from local or regional anesthesia….

A

Touch comes back first, followed by movement, pain, warmth, and cold

67
Q

Meds for nausea and vomiting

A

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Meclizine (Antivert, Dramamine)

68
Q

How much does 1 L of water weigh?

A

1 kg or 2.2 lbs

69
Q

Extracellular fluid consist of?

A

Intravascular and interstitial fluid

70
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

Caused water to push against a membrane when fluid is confined

71
Q

Water moves…

A

From a high to low pressure gradient

72
Q

Diffusion

A

Movement of particles across a permeable membrane

73
Q

Osmosis

A

Movement of water only through a simi-permeable membrane

74
Q

Hypotonic

A

Osmolar of less than 270 mOsm/L

*0.5 normal saline

75
Q

Isotonic

A

Osmolarity of 270-300 mOsm/L

*0.9% sodium chloride

76
Q

Hypertonic

A

Osmolarity if greater then 300 mOsm

*give 1.5 or 3% normal saline

77
Q

Aldosterone

A

Excreted by the cortex or the adrenal gland in response to low Na+ levels, prevents sodium and water loss.

78
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH))

A

Produced in the posterior pituitary, acts in kidneys to make kidneys reabsorb more water so that the body can retain more fluid.

79
Q

Natriuretic peptides (NPs)

A

Secreted by cells that are the heart or vascular system in response to increased volume levels. Fluid is released

80
Q

Renin angiotensin system

A

Released to raise BP back to normal.
Renin activates angiotensin 1 which is then converted by angiotensin-converting enzyme into angiotensin 2 (the active form).

Angiotensin 2 is a vasoconstrictor which causes kidneys to constrict and not release water.

81
Q

Third spacing

A

Retaining fluid in extra cellular fluid

82
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Patient urinates often

83
Q

Dehydration-osmolar

A

Loss of water only, not electrolytes.

Hematocrit and hemoglobin becomes high

84
Q

Fluid volume deficit signs and symptoms

A

Symptoms: dizziness, weakness, lethargy, fatigue

Signs:hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypotension, syncope, confusion, diminished cap refill, weight loss

85
Q

Crystalloids

A

Used for dehydration.
Isotonic fluids
Lactated ringers and normal saline

86
Q

Colloids

A

Used for patients that are bleeding.

Large molecules that draw fluid into intravascular space

87
Q

Fluid volume excess (FVE) signs and symptoms

A

Symptoms: confusion, sob, lethargy, muscle weakness

Signs: tachycardia, hypertension, tachypnea, weight gain, crackles, JVD, edema

88
Q

Sodium serum levels

A

135-145 mEq/L

Major cation of the ECF

89
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Sodium levels lower then 136

Causes cell water to shift to ICF causing cerebral edema

Hypotension, muscle weakness, hyperactive bowel sounds

90
Q

Hyponatremia treatment

A 
Fluid restrictions if cause by fluid overload. 
Administration of diuretics 
Hypertonic fluids (3%NaCl) 
Encourage intake of high sodium foods

Do not correct sodium levels too quickly!!

91
Q

Hypernatremia

A

Serum sodium greater then 145 mEq/L

Hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypotension, hyperactive bowel sounds, oliguria

92
Q

Hypernatremia treatment

A

Hypotonic iv fluids or isotonic iv fluids

93
Q

Potassium (Kalemia)

A

Normal 3.5-5.0 mEq/L

Vital to muscle contractions, cell metabolism, and electrical impulse transmission. In the Intracellular fluid

Can cause cardiac problems if too high or low

94
Q

Hypokalemia

A

High potassium

Muscle cramps, constipation, fluttering in chest. Hypotension, weak pulse, confusion, inverted T wave

95
Q

Hypokalemia treatment

A

Administer oral K+ (best way)
Administer iv K—NEVER bollus!

Should be corrected as quickly as it can be safely done!

96
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

High potassium.
Levels higher then 5.0 mEq/L

Restlessness, weakness, nausea, irregular pulse, tall peaked t wave, diarrhea, oliguria.

97
Q

Hyperkalemia treatment

A

Administer calcium to get potassium into cells.

Insulin will cause potassium to go into cells and D50 will keep sugar from bottoming out

98
Q

Calcium

A

Causes skeletal muscle problems

9-10.5 mEq/L

Most is stored in bones

99
Q

Hypocalemia

A

Low calcium levels (below 9.0)

Frequent muscle cramps
Parenthesis in extremities and face

100
Q

Hypocalcemia treatment

A

Replace calcium orally or iv.
Administer vitamin D

At risk for falls because muscle spasms

101
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

Above serum calcium levels 10.5

Greater risk for dvts because fast clotting
Muscle weakness
Lethargy
Abdominal cramping
EKG changes, tachycardia for mild and bradycardia for severe

102
Q

Hypercalcemia treatment

A

Stop intake of calcium and vitamin D
Isotonic solutions to restore balance
Lasixs, calcium binders
Dialysis

103
Q

Phosphorus normal serum levels

A

3.0-4.5

Will be the opposite of calcium

104
Q

Hypophosphatemia

A

Serum levels of phosphorus below 3.0

Generalized weakness
Bradycardia
Decreased bone density

Will be the opposite of calcium

Hypercalcimia

105
Q

Hypophosphatemia treatment

A

Iv phosphorus

Discontinue anti acids

106
Q

Hyperphosphatemia

A

Serum levels of phosphorus above 4.5

Causes muscle spasms

107
Q

Magnesium serum levels

A

1.3–2.1

108
Q

Hypomagnesemia

A

Levels below 1.3
Usually occurs with Hypocalcemia

Deep tendon reflexes

109
Q

Hypermagnesemia

A

Serum levels above 2.1

Lethargy, muscle weakness, reduced deep tendon reflex

110
Q

Frontal lobe function

A

Thought/speech, voluntary movements
Helps control mood
Making judgments

111
Q

Parietal lobe function

A 
Spatial awareness 
Temperature 
Touch 
Taste 
Movement from rest of body
112
Q

Temporal love function

A

Hearing
Memory
Language function

113
Q

Occipital lobe function

A

Processes visual information

114
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

Higher function of brain, processing and communicates info from PNS

115
Q

Motor cortex (in frontal lobe)

A

Controls voluntary movement

Corticospinal tracts begin here

116
Q

Contralateral

A

Damage to the right affects the left and vise versa

117
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Same side!

Right side if cerebellum controls right side

118
Q

Alert

A

Awake and responsive

119
Q

Lethargic

A

Drowsy or sleepy but easily awakened

120
Q

Stuporous

A

Arousable only with stimulation

121
Q

Comatose

A

Unconscious and cannot be aroused

122
Q

Glasgow coma scale

A

15 is normal nerve function

Below 8 is a coma

123
Q

First aid for siezure steps

A 
Keep calm 
Prevent injury by clearing area 
Ease person on floor 
Put something under head 
Turn person on side 
Time seizure 
Remove anything around neck
Call if longer then 5 min
124
Q

Seizures

A

Abnormal, sudden, excessive, uncontrolled electrical discharge of neurons within the brain that may result in loc

Foundations 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions