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Pathophys Words > Terms that are stoopid > Flashcards

Terms that are stoopid Flashcards

1
Q

MHC class 1

A
  • Major Histocompatability complex class 1
  • Is an antigen
  • Recognised on tumour cells by CD8+
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2
Q

MHC class 2

A
  • Present processed antigens to CD4+ Tcells

- Critical for initiation of antigen-specific imune response

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3
Q

MIC-A, MIC-B, ULB

A
  • Ligands (proteins) used to activate NKG2D receptors on NK cells, reactivating them
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4
Q

IFN-Y, IL-15/12

A
  • Cytokines (cytotoxic factors) that activate NK cells, increasing tumoricidal capacity
  • Produced by tumour specific T-cells
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5
Q

LAK

A
  • Lymphokine activated killer cells

- Activated by IL-2

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6
Q

TH1 cells

A
  • Secrete IFN-Y in response to intracellular infection or tumor
  • also produce IL-2 and TNF
  • Activate macrophages and ingest and destroy microbes
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7
Q

M1 and M2 macrophages

A
  • IFN-Y can differentiate macrophages into M1 type and promote inflamation by secreting pro-inflamatory cytokines (IL6,12 and TNF-Alpha) (THESE BADBOIS KILL TUMORS)
  • IL-4 (produced by TH2 cells) can convert macrophages into M2 type macrophages that inhibit inflamation (CAN PROMOTE TUMOR GROWTH - SECRETE VEGF and TGF-B)
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8
Q

Cyclin dependent kinase 4, B-Catenin, Caspase-8, MAGE-1/3

A

TUMOR ANTIGENS

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9
Q

APC

A
  • Antigen presenting cell
  • Can activate OR inhibit T-cells
  • inhibiting could be PD-L1 released onto PD-1 receptor
  • activating could be CD40 onto CD40L
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10
Q

Antigenicity

A
  • Capability of antigen to bind to T and B cells

- increased antigenicity = more antigens on tumor = better outcome

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11
Q

Neoantigen

A

Antigen newly formed due to mutation - a peptide brought about due to mutation

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12
Q

CTL

A

Cytotoxic Lymphocytes - Also known as CD8+ cells

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13
Q

Epitope

A

Epitope

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14
Q

HLA

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen - Protein marker on most cells of body: used to recognise which cells belong to your body and which cells do not

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15
Q

MDSC

A
  • Myeloid Derived Supressor cell
  • possess strong immunosupressive activities
  • Facilitate angiogenesis
  • Drive tumor invasion and metastases
    (NOT ALL BAD THOUGH - Can lower BSL, Reduce insulin tolerance and increase maternal-foetal tolerance and embryo implantation)
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16
Q

CD4+ vs CD8+

A
  • CD4+ = T Helper cells = Lead the fight against infection

- CD8+ = Cytotoxic T cells = Kill cancer cells

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17
Q

Treg cell

A
  • T-Regulatory cells = Suppress the immune response

- Patients with tumours = Higher Treg cell presentation

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18
Q

EGFR

A

Epidermal Growth Factor

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19
Q

Immunogenic

A

Ability to mount an immune response

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20
Q

CTLA-4

A

a receptor which downregulates the immune response when activated

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21
Q

PD-1

A

“programmed cell death protein-1”

a receptor found on T-cells which downregulates the immune response when activated (suppresses T cell)

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22
Q

PD-L1

A
  • a ligand binding to PD-1 receptor
  • B7 family protein
  • expressed on many tumors and APC’s
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23
Q

TGF-B

A
  • Transforming Growth Factor Beta
  • Cytokine
  • Inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis
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24
Q

CAR genes

A

Genes for “recombinant Chimeric Antigen Receptors” on T cells

They are composed of receptor domains specific for tumor antigens & signaling domains (ie. ITAMS, these promote robust T cell activation)

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25
Q

what ligand binds to:

a. ) CTLA4
b. ) PDL1 (this can be receptor somehow)
c. ) PD1

A

a. ) CD80, CD86
b. ) CD80
c. ) PDL1, PDL2

these all cause inhibition T cell
(this is all that Mauro said to know for this big slide)

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26
Q

activated T cell makes ___ which increases PD-L1 expression, in effort to regulate immune system

A

IFN-Y

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27
Q

state a type of anti-CTLA4 antibody?

A

ipillimumab, or Nivolamb

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28
Q

state a type of anti-PDL1 antibody?

A

Pembrolizumab

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29
Q

MMP

A
  • Matrix Metallo-Proteinases (MMP)

- Tumors use this substance to degrade the ECM

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30
Q

4 Most common destinations for tumor metastases

A

lung, liver, lymph nodes, bone

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31
Q

COX2

A

tumor cells have lots of an enzyme called COX2, COX2 produces prostalgandin-E2, which promotes inflammation

(note: PgE2 also inactivates T cells)

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32
Q

abscopal effect

A
  • Phenomenon within treatment of metastatic cancer where localized treatment of tumor causes shrinkage of not only this tumor, but also tumors in different compartments around the tumor
  • Usually applies to single-tumor with localised ratiation therapy
  • Occurs extremely rarely
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33
Q

Where are the most microbes in our immune system found?

A
  • Mostly in large intestine, but different groups of microbes prefer different areas
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34
Q

Autoimmune disease examples

A

rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, celiac, diabetes

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35
Q

3 events of immunoservailance

A

Escape, Equilibration, Elimination

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36
Q

IHD

A

Ischaemic heart disease

- Most common end result = Heart Failure

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37
Q

Stenosis

A

narrowing of passage

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38
Q

Angina

A

Chest Pain

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39
Q

AMI

A
  • Acute Myocardial Infarction (AKA A DAMN HEART ATTACK)
  • reduction in coronary artery blood supply leading to formation of necrotic myocardium - reduction may be sudden, absolute or relative
  • Caused usually by thrombosis or hemorrhage within atheromatous plaque in a coronary artery
  • Symptoms: Chest pain, Nausea/vommiting, Profuse sweating
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40
Q

IHD and AMI (their relationship)

A

Atherosclerosis causes IHD which causes AMI

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41
Q

coronary artery anastomoses

A

Only in intramural part! (mural means ‘wall’, thus within heart wall only not major CA’s)

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42
Q

mural thrombosis

A

many layers of thrombosis in infarcted area “The formation of an abnormal endothelial surface following infarction, occurring in interval of 1 week or more” - google

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43
Q

CHID

A

Chronic Ischemic Heart Disease

- Symptoms: Angina (during exercise), Impaired ventricular function

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44
Q

SADS

A

Sudden adult (arrhythmic) death syndrome

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45
Q

heart failure

A

General term used to describe the end-result of various types of cardiac dysfunction leading to inadequate perfusion of heart tissue
- Prognosis = Roughly 3 years to live

46
Q

Cor pulmonale

A
  • AKA: right sided Heart Failure

- alteration in structure and function of right ventricle

47
Q

dysponea

A

shortness of breath (SOB)

- First symptom of Heart Failure

48
Q

orthopnea

A

shortness of breath whilst supine - caused by increased VR to lungs in this position

49
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal dysponea

A

sudden urgent SOB during sleep

50
Q

CAD

A

coronary artery disease

51
Q

NO

A

most common endothelium-dependent relaxing factor for the dilation of coronaries
(so drug, ie. ACh –> effects NO in wall –> dilation)
- Produced by endothelial cells (Type III NO snythase)

52
Q

resistance arteries

A

arterioles; small diameter BV’s

53
Q

EDHF

A

Endothelium dependent hyperpolarisation factor

  • Hyperpolariszes vascular smooth muscle causing dilation
  • Produced from endothelium
  • Opens calcium dependant potassium channels
54
Q

Prostacyclin and Prostaglandins

A

Vasodilates coronaries

55
Q

aneurysm

A

Excessive localised swelling in the wall of an artery

56
Q

hypertension

A

Hypertension or elevated blood pressure is a sustained increase in the pressure exerted on vessel walls during the heart’s normal contraction and relaxation

57
Q

claudication

A

Pain in the body, most commonly the legs due to lack f blood supply, typically indicative of peripheral vascular disease.

58
Q

arteriosclerosis vs atherosclerosis

A

arteriosclerosis: Degenerative thickening of the arteries, making them less elastic
atherosclerosis: Deposition of material in the vessel wall leading to plaque formation

59
Q

atheroma

A

Accumulation of lipid in the intima of the blood vessel

- Leads to formation of plaque

60
Q

oxidative modification hypothesis

A

The current oxidative modification or stress hypothesis of atherosclerosis predicts that LDL oxidation is an early, essential event in atherosclerosis and that Ox-LDL does contribute to both initiation and progression of atherosclerosis.

61
Q

unstable angina

A

Chest pain due to poor blood flow and oxygen to the heart. Without treatment can lead to heart attack

62
Q

OSA

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnea:

  • occurs due to collapsed airway
  • causes loud snoring, breathing ceases periodically
  • linked to CVS disease
63
Q

Kupffer cells

A

Liver macrophages

64
Q

Humoral Immunity

A
  • occurs within body humor (fluid)
  • innate and adaptive
  • mediated by soluble (cell-free) proteins (antibodies) in plasma/ interstitial fluids and mucosal secretions
65
Q

cellular immune response

A
  • innate and adaptive
  • mediated by cells of immune system
  • particularly effective against intra-cellular pathogens
66
Q

MAC

A

Membrane attack complex

67
Q

Complement System

A
  • Proteins made in liver
  • Is antibody mediated
    1. Lyse bacteria by forming MAC.
    2. Tag pathogens - enhancing recognition and destruction by phagocytes (opsonization)
    3. Activate inflammatory response by triggering release of histamine from mast cells.
    4. Enhance clearance of antigen-antibody complexes.
68
Q

Naive mature B

A

Upon exposure to antigen, a niave mature B cell will differentiate into either a plasma B cell or a memory B cell

69
Q

plasma cell

A

Produce & secrete antibodies

70
Q

Which are the certain immunoglobins that require the help of T cells

A

IgG, IgA, IgE

71
Q

Which immunoglobin can be produced by B cells independent of T cell help?

A

IgM

72
Q

Long lived memory B cells produce which immunoglobins?

Do these require T cell help for manufacture?

A

IgG, IgA, IgE, these all require T cell help for manufacture

73
Q

Short lived memory B cells produce which immunoglobins?

Do these require T cell help for manufacture?

A

IgM, this does not require T cell help

74
Q

IgD

A

Primary B cell receptor

75
Q

IgM

A
  • Primary B cell receptor

- Agglutination

76
Q

IgG3

A

Broad complement cell activation

77
Q

IgG1

A

Broad complement cell activation

78
Q

IgA1

A

Mucosal antibodies

79
Q

IgG2

A

Opsonophagocytosis complex antigens

80
Q

IgE

A

Activation of mast cells and eosinophils

81
Q

chemotaxis

A

movement of an organism in response to a chemical stimulus

82
Q

phagocytic cells

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Dendritic cells (conventional, plasmacytoid)
  3. Macrophages
  4. Monocytes
83
Q

Lysosome vs Peroxisome

A
  • Peroxisome = used for breaking down hydrogen peroxide, large chain fatty acids, forming bile acids and controlling free radicals
  • Lysomes are simps
84
Q

Plasmacytoid dendritic cells (what they make?)

A

Production of type 1 interferons

85
Q

primary lymphoid tissue

A

bone marrow, thymus

86
Q

secondary lymphoid tissue

A

lymph nodes, spleen

87
Q

apoptosis

A

programmed cell death

88
Q

TH1 and TH2

A

TH1 - Type IV hypersensitivity. Macrophage activation, inflamation (mauro said Cytotoxic)

TH2- Type I, II, III Hypersensitivity (Allergic and helminth responses) (helps B-cells)

89
Q

Type I

A

Immediate hypersensitivity:

  • mediated IgE, mast cells involved
  • reaction occurs within 30 mins exposure
90
Q

Type II

A

Cytotoxic/ cytolytic hypersensitivity:

  1. mediated IgG or IgM binding to antigens on cell surface
  2. this activates complement cascade
  3. leads to cell destruction
91
Q

Type III

A

Lytic enzymes:
1. mediated IgG or IgM binding to antigens on cell surface (forming Ag-IgM or Ag-IgG complex)
2. complex activates complement cascade
3. granulocytes (ie. neutrophils) attracted to site of activation
4. damage caused by release of lytic enzymes
(reaction occurs within hours of challenge to antigen)

92
Q

Type IV

A

Delayed-type hypersensitivity:

  • no antibodies involved, instead cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) and Th1 cells (CD4+)
    1. mediated by Th1 cells, upon their activation they release cytokines
    2. causes accumulation and activation macrophages, plus activation cytotoxic T cells
    3. these macrophages and cytotoxic T cells cause local damage
93
Q

ILC 1 vs ILC 2

A

ILC 1 - Fights bacteria, tissue resident, non cytotoxic

ILC 2 - Non allergic asthma, secrete IL5 and IL13 (type 2 cytokines)

94
Q

Physiologically, what occurs when IgE and antigen bind?

A
  1. IgE-antigen complex (immune complex) forms
  2. this crosslinks FcεRI
  3. causes release chemical mediatiors from mast cell
  4. leads to allergic reaction
95
Q

Allergic reaction steps

A
  1. Sensitisation (Antigen on mucosal surface activates TH2 cells which release IL4 and 13 which act on B-cells differentiating them into plasma cells that will that will produce IgE)
  2. Activation (IgE goes to FcεRI receptor on Mast cell, crosslink occurs, activating mast cell)
  3. Effector (Mast cell produces 1. Preformed mediators - Histamine, and 2. Synthesised mediators - Prostaglandins, Leukotrines and PAF - Platelett activating factor)
96
Q

FcεRI

A

a high affinity IgE receptor

97
Q

which cells dominate in late phase allergic reaction?

A

eosinophils

98
Q

what factors recruit eosinophils, making them migrate to site of allergic reaction?

A

IL-4, chemokines

99
Q

state the main TH2 cytokines?

A

IL-4, IL-13

100
Q

difference between IgG and IgM?

A

IgG is more specific to antigen, prevalent in late phase, memory antibody

IgM has greater avidity (strength), prevalent in early phase

101
Q

Interleukin-3 (IL-3)

A

promotes growth and differentiation of eosinophils

102
Q

state the function of the following cytokine:

Chemokines

A

recruits eosinophils causing them to migrate

103
Q

multiple sclerosis - what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type IV, an autoimmune disease which is cell mediated

104
Q

is multiple sclerosis cell mediated or humoral? What substances or cells are involved?

A
  • cell mediated
  • T cells (T helper CD4, cytotoxic CD8)
  • APC’s
  • B cells
105
Q

Leukocyte recruitment stages

A
  1. Margination (selectins)
  2. Stable adhesions (Integrins)
  3. Transmigration (chemokines)
  4. Chemotaxis (WBC will travel within tissue to site of injury (Chemokines)
106
Q

State the main WBC in blood, and there % prevalence?

A

“Never let monkeys eat bananas”

Neutrophils - 60%
Lymphocytes - 30%
Monocytes - 6%
Eosinophils - 3%
Basophils - 1%
107
Q

granulocytes

A
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
  • neutrophils
108
Q

A macrophage in the bloodstream is known as?

A

a monocyte

109
Q

What is pus

A

a collection of neutrophils and necrotic cells

110
Q

myeloperoxidase

A

a enzyme involved in phagocytosis

111
Q

which cells produce growth factors for repair?

A

macrophages and platelets at site of injury

112
Q

chronic inflammation is characterized by?

A

activated macrophages and lymphocytes

Pathophys Words (1 decks)

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