Tech

Question 1

In cruise, lateral A/P orders are executed by:
A) Ailerons and spoilers
B) Ailerons and rudder
C) Rudder and spoilers
D) Ailerons, rudder, spoilers

Answer 1

D) Ailerons, rudder & spoilers

Question 2

During descent in OPEN DES mode, pilot selects an altitude higher than aircraft altitude:
A) Vertical mode switches to V/S (present V/S of aircraft)
B) Vertical mode switches to OP CLB
C) Vertical mode remains OPEN DES

Answer 2

A) Vertical mode switches to V/S (present V/S of aircraft)

Question 3

If the ENG MODE selector is moved to the CRANK position:
A) The engine will motor when the overhead ENG MAN START pb is selected ON
B) Fuel and ignition are inhibited
C) The engine will begin to motor immediately with fuel and ignition inhibited

Answer 3

A) The engine will motor when the overhead ENG MAN START pb is selected ON

Question 4

In case of TR1 and TR2 failure:
A) DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, DC BAT BUS, are lost
B) AC ESS BUS, AC ESS SHED BUS are lost
C) DC ESS BUS is lost

Answer 4

A) DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, DC BAT BUS, are lost

Question 5

If the engines and APU are running with the APU bleed valve open, the BMCs:
A) Close the engine bleed valves giving priority to APU bleed air
B) Close the APU bleed valve and opens the engine bleed valves giving priority to engine bleed air
C) Open the engine bleed valves and allow the engine and APU bleed air to pressurize the pneumatic system simultaneously

Answer 5

A) Close the engine bleed valves giving priority to APU bleed air

Question 6

To switch from speed to Mach on FCU, you need to:
A) Push the speed knob
B) Push the speed/Mach p/b
C) Push the HDG-V/S / TRK-FPA p/b

Answer 6

B) Push the speed/Mach p/b

Question 7

If the outer tank fuel transfer valves open in-flight, they are commanded closed:
A) By pushing the TRANSFER pb
B) Automatically during the refueling process
C) Automatically in-flight when all outer tank fuel has transferred

Answer 7

B) Automatically during the refueling process

Question 8

Prior to engine start, the EXT PWR pb indicates AVAIL and the APU START pb indicates AVAIL, what source is powering the aircraft?
A) The APU
B) EXT PWR
C) The aircraft electrical systems are not powered

Answer 8

A) The APU

Question 9

When the door arming lever is in the ARMED position, opening the door from the outside will:
A) The power assist will rapidly open the door
B) Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide
C) only arm the slide
D) disarm the door

Answer 9

D) disarm the door

Question 10

What does pushing the APPR pb do?
A) Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localiser and glide slope
B) Arms managed navigation
C) Allows the aircraft to slow to green dot speed
D) Arms managed vertical navigation

Answer 10

A) Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localiser and glide slope

Question 11

Which statement is true?
A) Black circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM
B) Green circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM
C) Red circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM

Answer 11

B) Green circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM

Question 12

On the ground with an engine shut down, can the pilot deploy that engine’s thrust reverser blocker doors and translating sleeve from the cockpit?
A) Yes, as long as the YELLOW hydraulic system is pressurized
B) Yes, as long as GREEN hydraulic system is pressurized
C) No, the blocker doors and translating sleeve cannot be deployed on an inoperative engine from the cockpit

Answer 12

C) No, the blocker doors and translating sleeve cannot be deployed on an inoperative engine from the cockpit

Question 13

All of the following are required to start the APU except:
A) BAT pbs selected to auto
B) APU MASTER and START switches to ON
C) EXT PWR pb selected to ON

Answer 13

C) EXT PWR pb selected to ON

Question 14

The APU may be started up to what altitude?
A) The APU can be started at any altitude provided aircraft electrical power is available
B) The APU can be started up to 35,000ft using only the aircraft batteries
C) The APU can be started up to 30,000ft using only the aircraft batteries
D) Both A and B are correct

Answer 14

A) The APU can be started at any altitude provided aircraft electrical power is available

Question 15

When does the alternate braking system become operational/active?
A) The failure of the alternate brake control unit (ABCU)
B) The failure of the autobrakes
C) The failure of the green hydraulic system

Answer 15

C) The failure of the green hydraulic system

Question 16

APU bleed air may be used for all of the following except:
A) Engine starting
B) Pack operation
C) Wing ant-ice

Answer 16

C) Wing ant-ice

Question 17

Which of the following is true?
A) Each engine shares oil with its respective IDG
B) Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by fuel
C) Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by ambient air

Answer 17

B) Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by fuel

Question 18

When is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized with the BLUE ELEC PUMP in AUTO?
A) After selecting the BLUE ELECP PUMP to ON after engine start
B) Automatically, after the first engine start
C) Automatically, after both engines are started

Answer 18

B) Automatically, after the first engine start

Question 19

In case of EMER ELEC config, why is the ECAM asking you to press the BUS TIE p/b to “Off”
A) To separate both sides of the electrical system
B) To connect both generators directly to the AC ESS BUS
C) To connect both sides of the electrical system
D) To switch both generators to the opposite side AC BUS

Answer 19

A) To separate both sides of the electrical system

Question 20

The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does this mean?
A) It is a reminder to show that a transfer valve is open
B) Fuel is transferring from the center tank to the inner tank
C) It is a reminder to open the outer tank transfer valve
D) Fuel is transferring from the inner tank to the outer tank

Answer 20

A) It is a reminder to show that a transfer valve is open

Question 21

The zone temperature selectors on the AIR COND panel perform what function?
A) Modulate the trim air valves
B) Signal temperature demands to the AC Controllers
C) Modulate the pack bypass valves

Answer 21

A) Modulate the trim air valves

Question 22

In flight, with FLAP 2 configuration, in order to select FLAPS 3:
A) You must decrease speed below “S” speed
B) You must decrease speed below “=” symbol
C) You must decrease speed below “F” speed

Answer 22

B) You must decrease speed below “=” symbol

Question 23

If performing a manual engine start (overhead ENG MAN START pb ON):
A) FADEC opens the start valve and provides ignition and fuel flow 30 seconds after the ENG MASTER Switch is selected ON
B) Ignition and fuel flow occur when the respective ENG MASTER is selected ON
C) FADEC only opens and closes the start valve

Answer 23

B) Ignition and fuel flow occur when the respective ENG MASTER is selected ON

Question 24

You are in manual flight. After descent, you LEVEL OFF, but leave the power in IDLWhat happens next?
A) The aircraft maintains altitude until reaching V PROT, then goes automatically into descent
B) The aircraft maintains altitude (and trims) until stalls
C) The aircraft maintains altitude (and trims) until the stick shaker activates

Answer 24

A) The aircraft maintains altitude until reaching V PROT, then goes automatically into descent

Question 25

If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information? A) By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel, the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM B) By rotating the ECAm/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower ECAM page will be transferred to either the Captains or FO's ND C) Both A and B are wrong D) Both A and B are correct

Answer 25

D) Both A and B are correct

Question 26

The APU fire protection system is different from the engine fire protection system in that: A) The APU uses a carbon dioxide fire bottle B) The APU is protected by only one fire bottle C) The APU fire can only be only manually discharged

Answer 26

B) The APU is protected by only one fire bottle

Question 27

In addition to inhibiting the PTU between engine starts; it is also inhibited during what? A) Engine failure B) Cargo door operation C) YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb selected to ON

Answer 27

B) Cargo door operation

Question 28

Which of the following best describes the YELLOW hydraulic system after pushing the ENG 2 FIRE pb? A) ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU transfers GREEN system fluid to operate the YELLOW system B) ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU operates the YELLOW system C) ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU does not operate the YELLOW system

Answer 28

B) ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU operates the YELLOW system

Question 29

Which of the following statements best describe the use of engine bleed air A) The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) open the HP valve when IP air is insufficient to meet system demand. HP air replaces IP air as the source of bleed air B) The BMCs use HP air to augment IP air when necessary. HP and IP bleed air are used simultaneously during high demand. C) The BMCs only open the HP valve during ground operations

Answer 29

A) The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) open the HP valve when IP air is insufficient to meet system demand. HP air replaces IP air as the source of bleed air

Question 30

How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished? A) From the APU fire panel B) Automatically C) From external power panel

Answer 30

B) Automatically

Question 31

What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure? A) It normally operates on HOT BAT bus B) It automatically locks C) It automatically unlocks D) None of the above

Answer 31

C) It automatically unlocks

Question 32

On ECAM PRESS page, the outflow valve indicator changes amber if: A) Fully closed B) Fully open in flight C) Fully open in ground

Answer 32

B) Fully open in flight

Question 33

A fast alignment occurs by selecting the rotary MODE selector from NAV to OFF and back to NAV within how many seconds? A) Ten B) Five C) Three

Answer 33

B) Five

Question 34

An emergency call from the cabin results in the flashing of what ACP legend? A) MECH B) ATT C) CALL

Answer 34

B) ATT

Question 35

When illuminated, the overhead emergency lights and EXIT signs are powered by either the DC ESS SHED bus or what other power source? A) AC BUS 1 B) Internal batteries C) BAT BUS

Answer 35

B) Internal batteries

Question 36

At the gate, if the ADIRUs are powered by the aircraft batteries, all of the following occur except? A) The ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminates B) ECAM ADIRS ON BAT fault message is generated C) The external horn is activated

Answer 36

B) ECAM ADIRS ON BAT fault message is generated

Question 37

During a manual start, how is the start valve opened? A) It is automatic once the ENG MASTER is placed to the ON position B) By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel C) By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE selector is out of the NORM position

Answer 37

C) By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE selector is out of the NORM position

Question 38

If RMP #2 is set to tune a navaid (i.e., the NAV pb is selected on and the green light is illuminated), which FMGC(s) lose auto tuning capability? A) FMCG #2 B) FMGC # 1 C) Both FMGCs

Answer 38

C) Both FMGCs

Question 39

When the A/P is engaged, the rudder is normally controlled by: A) The FMGC B) The FAC C) The ELAC D) The SEC

Answer 39

B) The FAC

Question 40

Which hydraulic system does the Landing Gear Control and Interface Unit (LGCIU) use to extend and retract the landing gear? A) GREEN B) YELLOW C) BLUE

Answer 40

A) GREEN

Question 41

Which hydraulic system(s) supply pressure to the landing gear system? A) Green B) Blue C) Yellow and Blue D) Green and Blue

Answer 41

A) Green

Question 42

Which of the following criteria is true for inhibiting the PTU between engine starts? A) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches and nosewheel steering disconnected B) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches, parking brake off and nosewheel steering connected C) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches, parking brake on or noewheel steering disconnected

Answer 42

C) On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches, parking brake on or noewheel steering disconnected

Question 43

You have forgotten to set the SPEED BRAKE lever to the armed position for landinThe Ground Spoilers deploy automatically after landing... A) ...when ground condition is sensed and all thrust levers are in idle. B)...only when at least one thrust lever is in reverse and the others are in idle. C) ...They do not deploy automatically.

Answer 43

B)...only when at least one thrust lever is in reverse and the others are in idle.

Question 44

You are in flight and move the Flaps lever from 0 to 1. Which Slats/Flaps configuration do you achieve? A) 1(slats) B) 1 + F C) 0.(slats)

Answer 44

A) 1(slats)

Question 45

Thrust levers are in climb detent, ATHR disengages: A) The engine thrust equals CLB thrust limit B) Is frozen at the current thrust C) Corresponds to the thrust lever position D) Progressively becomes equal to the thrust levers position

Answer 45

B) Is frozen at the current thrust

Question 46

The LOC p/b On the FCU is pressed to arm the LOC modThis mode is used for: A) Performing a published localizer approach B) Tracking a VOR beam during an approach C) X

Answer 46

A) Performing a published localizer approach

Question 47

In normal law, if one sidestick is rapidly pulled back, can the aircraft exceed the maximum "G Load"? A) No. The load factor limitation overrides sidestick commands to avoid excessive "G loads" B) No. The sidestick commands are deactivated for five seconds above 2.0Gs C) Yes. The pilot should avoid rapid sidestick commands

Answer 47

A) No. The load factor limitation overrides sidestick commands to avoid excessive "G loads"

Question 48

Which of the following is true? A) FADEC will only prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits on reverse thrust B) FADEC will always prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits and EGT limits C) FADEC will prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits in both forwards and reverse thrust

Answer 48

C) FADEC will prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits in both forwards and reverse thrust

Question 49

From lowest to highest, what is the priority order for normal electrical power? A) GEN(engine), APU GEN, EXT PWR B) EXT PWR, APU GEN, GEN(engine) C) GEN (engine), EXT PWR, APU GEN

Answer 49

C) GEN (engine), EXT PWR, APU GEN

Question 50

After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units? A) Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3 B) Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable C) It is done automatically D) None of the above

Answer 50

A) Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3

Question 51

ADIRU #2 normally supplies ADR and IR information for which displays? A) Captain's PFD and ND B) First Officer's PFD and ND C) Captain's PFD and first officer's ND

Answer 51

B) First Officer's PFD and ND

Question 52

During an automatic start in-flight, FADEC provides all the following except: A) Abnormal start indications B) Abort authority C) N1 and N2 limits proctection

Answer 52

B) Abort authority

Question 53

If a GREEN ENG 1 PUMP failure occurs: A) The PTU transfers YELLOW system fluid to operate the GREEN system B) The PTU automatically pressurizes the GREEN system without transferring any fluid C) The PTU transfers BLUE system fluid to operate the GREEN system

Answer 53

B) The PTU automatically pressurizes the GREEN system without transferring any fluid

Question 54

Can you transmit on VHF and PA at the same time? A) Never B) Yes by pressing the RAF toggle and PA key C) Yes by using stick PTT command and PA key

Answer 54

A) Never

Question 55

You are flying manually in level flight. You slowly reduce thrust. How does the aircraft react? A) The aircraft maintains altitude, pitch increases and the stabilizer trims automatically to compensate B) The aircraft pitches down, goes into descent and tries to maintain speed

Answer 55

A) The aircraft maintains altitude, pitch increases and the stabilizer trims automatically to compensate

Question 56

Which hydraulic system provides pressure for braking under normal conditions? A) YELLOW B) BLUE C) GREEN

Answer 56

C) GREEN

Question 57

Following a pressurization SYSTEM 1 fault: A) Master caution is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the crew B) System 2 must be selected by the crew C) Stem 2 takes over automatically without crew action

Answer 57

C) Stem 2 takes over automatically without crew action

Question 58

Each aircraft generator (engine and APU) can supply up to 90KVA while the emergency generator supplies how much power? A) 45 KVA B) 15 KVA C) 5 KVA

Answer 58

C) 5 KVA

Question 59

The crew performs a landing with autobrakes selected to MED. What triggers the application of the autobrakes? A) The application of the brake pedals by the pilot B) The signal to extend the spoilers C) Reverse thrust is selected

Answer 59

B) The signal to extend the spoilers

Question 60

In cold aircraft configuration (no AC and no DC supply), where can the batteries voltage can be checked? A) On the ECAM ELEC page B) On the ELEC overhead panel C) There is no indication

Answer 60

B) On the ELEC overhead panel

Question 61

The wings contain what type of bleed leak detection? A) Single loop B) Dual loop C) Triple lindy

Answer 61

B) Dual loop

Question 62

When pushing the APPR pb on FCU: A) LOC and GS are armed when performing ILS B) Approach phase is activated C) Speed automatically reduces to approach speed

Answer 62

A) LOC and GS are armed when performing ILS

Question 63

What does the " TOO STEEP PATH" Amber, message on MCDU mean? A) The A/C is approaching a descent segment between two constraints waypoints that are impossible to fly with the planned descent speed and half speed brake extended. B) The descent may become too steep and the speed May reach MMO or VMO. C) Moving the sidestick or extending the flaps D) Moving the thrust levers or using the speed brakes.

Answer 63

A) the a/c is approaching a descent segment between two constraints waypoints that are impossible to fly with the planned descent speed and half speed brake extended.

Question 64

In manual mode, who or what drives the outflow valve full open during landing? A) The Pilot uses the MAN V/S CTL switch B) The active Cabin pressure Controller C) The pilot using the DITCHING pb

Answer 64

A) The Pilot uses the MAN V/S CTL switch

Question 65

In the event of an engine fire, the respective ENG FIRE pb and ENG panel FIRE light illuminate red until: A) The respective ENG FIRE pushed and released B) The fire is out C) The respective ENG MASTER Switch is selected OFF

Answer 65

B) The fire is out

Question 66

In the event of an engine flame-out: A) Continuous ignition is only activated by selecting the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START B) FADEC automatically provides continuous ignition on both engines C) Continuous ignition is unavailable

Answer 66

B) FADEC automatically provides continuous ignition on both engines

Question 67

Which hydraulic system does the alternate braking system use A) GREEN B) YELLOW C) BLUE

Answer 67

B) Yellow

Question 68

During an automatic start of engine 1, the crew notices only igniter B is powered. Is this normal? A) No. Contact maintenance and advise that igniter A is inoperative B) Yes. FADEC alternates igniters for automatic engine starts C) Yes. FADEC uses only igniter B to start engine 1

Answer 68

B) Yes. FADEC alternates igniters for automatic engine starts

Question 69

If electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve fails, the engine anti-ice valve: A) Closes B) Opens C) Remains in its current position

Answer 69

B) Opens

Question 70

Performing a manual ILS approach (AP off, FDs and ATHR on), the thrust reduction for landing: A) Is manually performed B) Is always automatic C) Is automatic with A/THR on

Answer 70

A) Is manually performed

Question 71

If flaps FULL is selected with the speed brake extended: A) The flaps will not extend until the speed brakes are fully retracted B) The speed brakes will automatically retract C) The flaps will extend and the speed brakes remain extended. There will be an ECAM message

Answer 71

B) The speed brakes will automatically retract

Question 72

You perform an APU fire test with the APU running. How does the APU react? A) It just keeps on running B) It shuts down automatically C) The test is inhibited when the APU is running

Answer 72

A) It just keeps on running

Question 73

The cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy ("drop") when the cabin altitude exceeds: A) 10,000ft B) 12,500ft C) 14,000ft

Answer 73

C) 14,000ft

Question 74

When using APU bleed to supply the packs, with the pack flow selector at LOW, the pack air flow is: A) 80% of normal B) Normal C) 120% of normal

Answer 74

C) 120% of normal

Question 75

If cabin pressure controller 1 fails, what occurs automatically provided no other abnormals are present? A) The manual mode activates B) Cabin Pressure Controller 2 activates C) The outflow valve drives full open

Answer 75

B) Cabin Pressure Controller 2 activates

Question 76

During ground operation, the outflow valve is: A) Fully open B) Fully closed C) Positioned according to FMGS demands

Answer 76

A) Fully open

Question 77

The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND? A) All modes except Plan B) Rose VOR or Rose ILS C) Rose NAV or ARC D) Rose NAV or VOR

Answer 77

A) All modes except Plan

Question 78

Which of the following is true concerning FADEC? A) protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during automatic starts on the ground only B) protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic starts C) protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic and manual engine starts

Answer 78

A) protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during automatic starts on the ground only

Question 79

Which is NOT a basic mode of GPWS? A) Excessive rate of descent B) Excessive Terrain closure rate C) Altitude loss after takeoff, or go-around D) Deviation above the glide slope

Answer 79

D) Deviation above the glide slope

Question 80

If engine 1 bleed valve fails in the closed position, engine anti-ice is: A) Provided through electric heating B) Unavailable to that engine C) unaffected since engine anti-ice is provided by hot bleed Air supply that is independent of the pneumatic system

Answer 80

C) unaffected since engine anti-ice is provided by hot bleed Air supply that is independent of the pneumatic system

Question 81

During the exterior pre-flight, the pilot observes the illumination of the APU FIRE light on the external power panel (near the nose wheel) and hears the external warning horn followed by the APU emergency shutdown. Outside the cockpit, the pilot must do what to discharge the APU fire bottle? A) Push the FIRE light on the external power panel (near the nose wheel) B) Push the APU FIRE OFF pb on the external power panel (near the nosewheel) C) Nothing. On the ground only, the APU shuts down and automatically discharges the APU fire bottle

Answer 81

C) Nothing. On the ground only, the APU shuts down and automatically discharges the APU fire bottle

Question 82

On board the Wizz air A320 aircraft, there are ... identical ADIRUs and ... GPS receivers A) 2, 2 B) 3, 2 C) 3, 3 D) 3, 1

Answer 82

B) 3, 2

Question 83

Pushing the " RESET " p/b on the rudder trim control panel: A) Resets the rudder trim to zero degrees B) Resets the rudder trim to the value displayed on the position indicator. C) Resets the rudder trim to the last position prior to AP activation

Answer 83

A) Resets the rudder trim to zero degrees

Question 84

What happens in case of total loss of main generators? A) The RAT is automatically extended and Powers the yellow system which drives the EMER GEN B) The RAT is automatically extended and Powers the blue system which drives the EMER GEN C) The RAT has to be manually extended and mechanically connected to the EMER GEN

Answer 84

B) The RAT is automatically extended and Powers the blue system which drives the EMER GEN

Question 85

Which of the following statements is NOT true about rudder control? A) in normal law, the FACs provide turn coordination and yaw dampening without rudder pedal deflection B) mechanical control of the rudder does not require hydraulic power C) The FACs provide rudder limiting based on Airspeed

Answer 85

B) mechanical control of the rudder does not require hydraulic power

Question 86

Is probe/window heat available prior to engine start? A) No B) Yes. The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb on the ANTI ICE panel must be selected to AUTO C) Yes. The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb on the ANT ICE panel must be selected to ON

Answer 86

C) Yes. The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb on the ANT ICE panel must be selected to ON

Question 87

When do the fuel used (F USED) Indications on the FUEL page automatically reset to zero? A) After landing B) Engine shutdown C) Engine start

Answer 87

C) Engine start

Question 88

How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked? A) The red ring below the release button should not be in view. B) The locking pin was placed in the forward position when the window was closed. C) The red ring below the release button should be in view.

Answer 88

C) The red ring below the release button should be in view.

Question 89

The amber ON BAT light illuminates on the ADIRS panel: A) When the aircraft battery supplies at least one IRS B) Fast alignment in progress C) Both other answers are correct

Answer 89

A) When the aircraft battery supplies at least one IRS

Question 90

Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit? A) HORN SHUT OFF. B) COMMAND witchs. C) Only able to deactivate from cabin. D) OFF switch

Answer 90

B) COMMAND witchs.

Question 91

Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen? A) 15 minutes. B) 30 minutes. C) 20 minutes. D) 25 minutes.

Answer 91

A) 15 minutes.

Question 92

In alternate law: A) Pitch trim is automatic B) Turn coordination is automatic C) Roll is the same as normal law (roll rate)

Answer 92

A) Pitch trim is automatic

Question 93

If the BLUE electric pump malfunctions and the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is selected OFF: A) The PTU pressurizes the BLUE system B) The RAT deploys automatically and powers the BLUE system C) The BLUE system shuts down (unpressurized)

Answer 93

C) The BLUE system shuts down (unpressurized)

Question 94

The Flight Guidance part of the FMGS controls: A) Flight director, autopilot, autothrust. B) Only the FD and cross track information. C) The flight envelope computation and flight path.

Answer 94

A) Flight director, autopilot, autothrust.

Question 95

From which tanks will fuel gravity feed? A) outer cell of wing tanks, inner cell of wing tanks, and/or centre tank. B) inner Cell of wing tanks, and centre tank. C) Outer cell of wing tanks, and inner cell of wing tanks. D) The centre tank only.

Answer 95

C) Outer cell of wing tanks, and inner cell of wing tanks.

Question 96

During refuelling, the AUTO FEED FAULT message is displayed on the E/WD because a significant amount of fuel is in the centre tank and the wing tanks are not full. What action is required by the crew? A) No maintenance action is required since refuelling is in progress B) Cool maintenance to fix or defer the malfunction C) Reset the system with the MODE SEL pb On the overhead FUEL Panel

Answer 96

A) No maintenance action is required since refuelling is in progress

Question 97

Which of the following emergency lights are controlled by the EMER LT Switch on the overhead SIGNS Panel? A) escape slide lights B) Photo-luminescent floor path markings C) Cabin emergency lights

Answer 97

C) Cabin emergency lights

Question 98

In the AUTO position, the XBLEED (crossbreed) valve will: A) Open when the APU bleed valve opens B) Normally be open C) Open if a leak is detected

Answer 98

A) Open when the APU bleed valve opens

Question 99

What does illumination of the white SLIDE ARMED Light represent on the main cabin door? A) this indicates that the slide has properly inflated and is safe for use. B) this indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft. C) this indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed. D) this indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed, but the slide is properly armed.

Answer 99

B) this indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft.