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CSFD Tac Ops > Tac Ops 100 > Flashcards

Tac Ops 100 Flashcards

1
Q

Who shares responsibility for assigning C Zone talk groups?

A

CSPD and EPSO

100.01

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2
Q

Staged resources shall contact Command and re-advise of their status if not assigned after _______ minutes on scene.

A

5

100.04

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3
Q

Level I Staging: Level I Staging is automatically in effect for all incidents involving ____ or _____ companies.

A

3 or more

100.04

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4
Q

Level II Staging will be implemented for the following:

A

Major fire incidents (i.e., those exceeding a 1st alarm response).

Most major incidents exceeding three companies.

When directed by Command.
100.04

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5
Q

The phrase “___ ___ ___ ____” shall be used when immediate radio priority is required.

A

Break for Emergency Traffic

100.01

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6
Q

This Code is used for situations involving grave danger to CSFD personnel

A

Code One

100.01

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7
Q

When not involved in the Code One, what talkgroup should the officer use?

A

Fire 2

100.01

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8
Q

When the Code One is no longer needed, who released the Code One?

A

The person who initiated it

100.01

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9
Q

What radio channel does your radio go to when the BOB has been pushed?

A

Fire 2

100.01

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10
Q

What talkgroup doesn’t the BOB work on?

A

Simplex Channels

100.01

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11
Q

When there is a system failure, the radios will display”___ ____” and beep every ____ seconds?

A

SITE TRUNKING, 10

100.01

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12
Q

How long should you wait if Dispatch has not acknowledged your status head change?

A

5-10 seconds

100.02

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13
Q

When should the RESP button be pressed?

A

When all crewmembers are seatbelted and the bumper breaks the imaginary plane of the open door
100.02

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14
Q

All responsed to medical incidents shall be Code 3 with the exception of calls identified by Dispatch as ___ or ___ levels

A

Alpha, Omega

100.03

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15
Q

On Multi-Company Automatic Alarms who is the only company to respond Code 3?

A

First Due Company

100.03

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16
Q

Move ups are based on the following

A

Size of uncovered district
Distance from other available companies
Time of day
Length of time a district will go uncovered
Current and expected alarm activity level
For major incidents
100.05

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17
Q

Who does move ups?

A

The unaffected BC or their designee

100.05

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18
Q

T/F All personnel are responsible for their own safety at all times?

A

True

100.06

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19
Q

T/F Company officers are responsible for the safety of their crewmembers?

A

True

100.06

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20
Q

T/F Command is responsible for the safety of all personnel operating at emergency incidents and training exercises?

A

True

100.06

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21
Q

Which Zone is the IDLH in?

A

Hot

100.06

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22
Q

Which Zone would the IRIC/RIC, pump operators be in?

A

Warm

100.06

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23
Q

Which Zone would Command be located in?

A

Cold

100.06

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24
Q

When operating in the Hot Zone, what’s the SOP for personnel?

A

Teams of no less that 2

100.06

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25
Q

For “working fires” who is the interim ISO?

A

The RIC Truck Officer

100.06

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26
Q

Who relieves the Interim ISO?

A

Haz Mat Officer

100.06

27
Q

What are the 2 modes an ISO can provide intervention directly related to an unsafe act or conditions?

A

Soft or Firm Intervention

100.06

28
Q

When shall SCBA’s be checked?

A

At the beginning of the shift
After each use
Anytime necessary to render the equipment in a ready state. 100.08

29
Q

SCBA bottles below ____ psi shall be refilled?

A

5000

100.08

30
Q

SCBA air levels shall be checked at the following times?

A 
5 minute intervals
20 minute intervals
Completion of an assignment and prior to accepting another assignment
Change of work area
100.08
31
Q

Personnel will maintain a “_______” rule of air consumption?

A

2/3 - 1/3 rule

100.08

32
Q

2/3 rule for air consumption accounts for ____ psi

A

3600 psi

100.08

33
Q

1/3 rule for air consumptions accounts for ___ psi

A

1800 psi

100.08

34
Q

1/3 rule for air consumption is used for what?

A

Emergency Air

100.08

35
Q

SCBA Low air alert occurs when air pressure reaches what psi?

A

1800 psi

100.08

36
Q

The use of ____ _____ is mandatory for the safety and effectiveness of all personnel using SCBA’s?

A

Voice Amplifiers

100.08

37
Q

At what SCBA pressure should personnel advise their officer?

A

2750 psi, when the Heads Up Display turns Amber

100.08

38
Q

3 ways personnel maintain communication/contact in a IDLH?

A

Visual
Audible (not via radio)
Physical

100.09

39
Q

A minimum of ___ personnel are required for an IDLH entry?

A

Four

100.09

40
Q

IRIC must account for personnel in the IDLH via?

A

Direct Voice
Visual
Signal Line or
Radio if above is not practical

100.09

41
Q

What is the only exception to the 2 In/2 Out requirement?

A

For immediate entry to prevent loss of life or serious injury

100.09

42
Q

IRIC shall monitor what 2 radio channels?

A

Command Talkgroup and Fire 2

100.09

43
Q

RIC exists exclusively for the purpose of immediately responding to?

A

Lost, Trapped or Distressed firefighter

100.10

44
Q

Once the need for RIC no longer exist, Command can for what with RIC?

A

Assign RIC as needed

100.10

45
Q

AWARE acronym?

A

Air
Water
A Radio
Encumbrances

46
Q

Who is assigned the Rapid Intervention Group supervisor?

A

Battalion Chief

100.11

47
Q

“May-Day” is reserved exclusively to report?

A

A lost, trapped or distressed firefighter

100.11

48
Q

How many times should you verbalize a “May-Day”?

A

Three times

100.11

49
Q

LUNAR acronym?

A 
Last location
Unit
Name
Assignment
Resources needed
100.11
50
Q

T/F Crews that are lost should never split up?

A

True

100.11

51
Q

ESCAPE acronym?

A 
Emergency Reverse
Secondary Egress
Contact Command
Activate PASS device
Perform Breach
Easy Breathing
52
Q

Which CSFD unit responds to help Dispatch during a RIC event?

A

The nearest CSFD Unit

100.11

53
Q

Signal to stop all operations and evacuate a structure or area is?

A

3 Long, 5 second blasts from a FD apparatus

100.12

54
Q

What does Command have Dispatch do after a Emergency Evacuation?

A

Sound the Emergency Tone

100.12

55
Q

What is the signal to resume fire ground operations?

A

1 long 5 second and 1 short 2 second blast

100.12

56
Q

Who is the only one that can resume operations after a Emergency Evacuation?

A

Command

100.12

57
Q

3 Response modes by Flight for Life Helicopters?

A

Standby
Airborne Standby
Immediate Go

100.13

58
Q

Communications to Flight for Life should be on what channel?

A

Talk group STAC-D (D-9)

100.13

59
Q

What is the size for the Landing Zone for Flight for Life?

A

100 x 100 Feet

100.13

60
Q

3 Types of Rehab?

A

Company-Type V incidents
Squad-Type IV incidents
Group/Unit-Type III incidents

100.16

61
Q

Any firefighter requiring additional treatment shall have what done?

A
  • Medical Report completed
  • Notify Command, 73 and Supervisor

100.16

62
Q

Criteria for implementing Modified Dispatch?

A
  • 2 or more working structure fires
  • Significant weather event
  • 15 or more companies assigned to incidents
  • Anytime a BC deems appropriate
63
Q

A High Rise Target Hazard is classified as?

A

75 Feet or taller, or are 4 or more stories in height

100.19

64
Q

At a structure fire, which crew secures the gas meter?

A

“Irons” per Policy 100.20

CSFD Tac Ops (3 decks)

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