Supporting Women Exam prep Flashcards

1
Q

List the 4 key components of care recommended by WHO (2007) that should be included in each Antenatal Visit

A

∗ information-sharing
∗ assessment and screening
∗ active decision-making
∗ health promotion and education

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2
Q

Name two evidence based guidelines that midwives use to inform the Antenatal care provided

A

Australian Health Ministers Advisory Council AHMAC (2012) Clinical Practice Guidelines : Antenatal Care - Module One

National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) 2008 Antenatal care: routine care for the healthy pregnant woman.

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3
Q

What are the two National statistical measures that are collected annually that can be used as an indicator of the effectiveness of Antenatal Care?

A

Perinatal Mortality and Morbidity rate

Maternal Mortality and Morbidity rate

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4
Q

Name the key Government health initiative implemented in each state to reduce the gap in inequalities that exist between Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander and non-Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Australians

A

Closing the Gap in Queensland
Key Action is on improving Maternal and child health

Queensland Closing the Gap report (2009)
http://www.health.qld.gov.au/atsihealth/close_gap.asp

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5
Q

Why is the initial contact with the pregnant woman and her family so important?

A

∗ Important as sets the scene for the woman & the midwife.
∗ Vital woman feels comfortable enough with you to disclose the information required to assess her health.
∗ Very important to begin to gather & share appropriate information so that the woman can start to make decisions about her care.
∗ This is the time when you work with the woman to establish the length of gestation & assess what extra care or referrals may be required.
∗ Early pregnancy advice re folic acid, diet, drugs, smoking
∗ Options available to consider prior to booking

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6
Q

Presumptive signs of pregnancy

A

∗ Amenorrhoea / Tingling and sensitive breasts
∗ Nausea and vomiting/changes in taste
∗ Frequency of micturition 1st and 3rd trimesters
∗ Bleeding gums / Fatigue/Tiredness
∗ Increased appetite and thirst/ craving

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7
Q

Probable signs of pregnancy

A

∗ Softening of the cervix and vagina (Hegars sign)
∗ Increased blood flow to vagina and cervix causing bluish discolouration (Jacquemiers sign)
∗ Enlarged abdomen
∗ HcG in urine
∗ Tingling & sensitive breasts
∗ Increased appetite & tiredness

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8
Q

Positive signs of pregnancy

A

∗ Fetal heart heard
∗ Fetal parts felt
∗ Confirmed ultrasound scan

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9
Q

Why is dating of the pregnancy so important to the woman and her carers? Social & Cultural significance?

A
Having a "due date" allows the woman to:
∗	plan place of birth,
∗	arrange ongoing support,
∗	organise maternity leave,
∗	apply for maternity benefit 
∗	prove paternity for issues of legitimacy and inheritance.
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10
Q

Why is dating of the pregnancy so important to the woman and her carers? Obstetric reasons?

A

∗ allows monitoring of the health of the baby,
∗ allows planning for induction of labour,
∗ provides markers for tests and interventions such as elective cesarean section or even termination of pregnancy.
∗ supports record keeping for example rates of premature labour and birth.

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11
Q

What information should you obtain from the woman to enable you to date the pregnancy and estimate date of birth?

A

∗ Identify & record first day of LMP if known as early as possible LMP sure/unsure
∗ ask if it was a normal period in timing, length and volume
∗ ask about the normal mesntrual cycle—length and regularity
∗ ask about contraceptive use prior to conception
∗ check woman’s own self-awareness of body
∗ when was pregnancy test positive, when did the woman start showing other signs ie breast tenderness, when could uterus be palpated or FHH / FMF ?
∗ Careful use of language to reinforce view of ‘incorrect’ dates or ‘overdue’
∗ Careful documentation make note of how sure woman is re LNMP, conception
∗ Discuss estimate, variability & expectations regarding the actual timing of the birth
∗ Review pregnancy signs, symptoms & experiences compare with expected dating
∗ Palpate the woman’s abdomen to compare uterine size with dates
∗ Use Modified Naegele’s rule to estimate EDB (consider using LMP
plus 283 days for a 28-day cycle)
∗ consider the option of a scan, if the woman has no idea of LMP or timing of
conception, and date-specific screening is to be undertaken; or if her uterine size is
significantly mismatched with EDB on palpation.

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12
Q

Identify 4 different methods of dating the pregnancy

A

A. Conception / Ovulation date – add 266 -268 days
B.LNMP – add 283 days
C. Signs of Pregnancy – HcG urine, frequency micturition, breast changes, fetal movements,
D. Physical exam – Hegars sign 10wks, fetal parts, fetal heart, abdo palpation
E. Scan –heart visible at 5-6 weeks, early scan more accurate between 8 – 13wks 6 days.

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13
Q

Describe 5 methods used to calculate a woman’s estimated date of birth (EDB)

A
  1. MATERNAL HISTORY - LNMP . Ovulation, Conception
  2. NAGELES RULE - Add 9 mths & 7 days to the first day LMP
  3. Modified NAGELES RULE – add 9mths & 7days +/- ovulation phase
  4. WOODS METHOD
    – Primips add 1yr & subtract 2mths + 14days
    – Multips Add 1yr & subtract 2mths + 18days
  5. U/S SCAN -unsure of their conception date an ultrasound scan between 8 weeks 0 days and 13 weeks 6 days to determine gestational age
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14
Q

Explain Nagele’s rule and how the modified version is different

A

Nageles rule - All women ovulate at the same time day 14 within a 28 day cycle and taking same length of time 266days to gestate ie add 280days.
NB recent studies ie Olesen (2006) suggest LNMP +283 days
∗ Modified Nageles rule - Takes into account variations in length of time between menstruation and ovulation
Example
∗ Annie has a regular 34 day cycle her last period started 10th Aug
Add 9 months + 7 days + 6 days (34 - 28= 6) EDB: 23 May
∗ Emily has a regular 23 day cycle 1st day of her LNMP 10th August.
Add 9 months + 7 days – 5 days (28 - 23=5) EDB: 12 May

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15
Q

What is the current evidence based recommendations regarding the use of ultrasound scans for the purpose of dating pregnancy and estimating date of birth?

A

Provide information and offer pregnant women who are unsure of their conception date an ultrasound scan between 8 weeks 0 days and 13 weeks 6 days to determine gestational age, detect multiple pregnancies and accurately time fetal anomaly screening. (NICE 2007)

Olesen & Thomsen (2006) found a median gestational age at birth estimated by LMP to be 283 days, but that the 18–22 week scan was ‘the most valid method of predicting the date of birth’

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16
Q

What are the aims of Antenatal history taking?

A

∗ Review the past – reproductive, medical & social history
∗ Assess woman’s current health status – physical, emotional, social and spiritual
∗ Information sharing – basis for ongoing relationship
∗ Identify and discuss Alerting factors or risk markers
∗ Opportunity to discuss woman’s needs and wishes, culture
∗ Establish - EDB, Model of care, Place of birth, relationship, partnership

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17
Q

Identify the key categories of information required as part of the Antenatal history

A
DEMOGRAPHICS
PREVIOUS PREGNANCY & REPRODUCTIVE HISTORY
OBSTETRIC HISTORY
PRESENT PREGNANCY 
FAMILY HISTORY 
MEDICAL HISTORY
PHYSICAL HEALTH ASSESSMENT
RISK MARKERS 
SCREENING & ASSESSMENT 
HEALTH PROMOTION 
SOCIAL & MENTAL WELL BEING
PLANS FOR CARE
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18
Q

What is included within the initial physical assessment of the woman?

A

∗ Blood pressure - provide base line measurement
∗ Urinalysis & mid stream urine underlying infection/ASB
∗ Weight & Height - calculate BMI
∗ Respiratory - listen to lungs sounds
∗ Heart - checking for anomalies such as heart murmur
∗ Skeletal - checking for signs of back injury, pelvis or spine injury
∗ Teeth - gums can swell & become infected during pregnancy
∗ Breasts – check lumps, breast pigmentation
∗ Abdominal palpation - palpate the uterus
∗ Lifestyle – diet, smoking, alcohol

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19
Q

What antenatal screening is routinely offered to woman during the Antenatal history taking?

A
∗	blood group and rhesus factor
∗	rhesus and ABO antibodies
∗	full blood count
∗	syphilis
∗	hepatitis B
∗	rubella antibodies
∗	human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
∗	gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)
∗	asymptomatic bacteriuria early in pregnancy MSU 
∗	Downs syndrome and other conditions (first-trimester maternal serum screening in combination with nuchal translucency scan, or second-trimester maternal serum screening).
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20
Q

Identify the four key aspects of care provided at each Antenatal visit

A

∗ 1. information-sharing
∗ 2. assessment and screening
∗ 3. active decision-making
∗ 4. health promotion and education

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21
Q

What lifestyle advice do you provide as a midwife to women in early pregnancy regarding drugs?

A

∗ Advise women who are pregnant or planning a pregnancy that not drinking alcohol is the safest especially in first 3 months if possible.
∗ If women choose to drink alcohol advice drink no more than 1 to 2 units 1 or 2 times pw (1 small glass wine = 1.5)
∗ Emphasise benefits of quitting smoking as early as possible in pregnancy
∗ Assess woman’s smoking status & exposure to passive smoking
∗ Offer woman & her partner information about the risks to the unborn baby associated with maternal and passive smoking
∗ Offer women who smoke referral for smoking cessation interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy
Each AN visit offer women personalised advice on how to stop smoking & provide information about available services to support quitting, including details on when, where and how to access them

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22
Q

What supplements are recommended to women during early pregnancy & why?

A

∗ Folic acid 400mcg supplements recommended from 12 weeks before conception until end of 1st trimester
∗ Evidence supports reduced risk of neural tube defects
∗ Advise women not to take iron routinely and not before end of 1st trimester
∗ Advise women importance vitamin D intake during pregnancy & breastfeeding. Women at risk of deficiency Vid D 10 mcg per day
∗ No evidence benefit Vitamin A, C & E supplements, advise Vitamin A not to exceed 700mcg daily also liver products
∗ Iodine supplements 150mcg in certain areas
∗ Emphasise importance of well balanced diet

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23
Q

What information can you provide to women during pregnancy regarding the importance of diet to reduce the risk of developing anaemia?

A

∗ Best sources of iron are meat, fish & chicken 2 serves per day
∗ Sources of iron in foods derived from plants: legumes ie dried beans, lentil, baked beans, nuts, sunflower, sesame seeds, wholegrain breads, green leafy vegetables, dried fruit iron enriched breakfast cereals (check label), Milo & Ovaltine
∗ To increase iron absorption eat Vit C rich foods at same time ie oranges, berries, kiwifruit, broccoli, tomato, cauli, cabbage
∗ Limit Liver to 50g per day (high levels vit A harmful to fetus)
∗ Iron & calcium compete for absorption in the body
∗ Tea & Coffee affect absorption iron
∗ Cooking in iron post increases amount of iron available in food

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24
Q

Identify two types of psychosocial assessment and why these are undertaken.

A

∗ Safe Start and EPDS Assessment

∗ Complete Safe Start and Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Score (EPDS)

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25
Q

What are the aims of Antenatal screening during pregnancy?

A

∗ Enable pregnant women to make informed decisions re:care
∗ Inform, support & educate pregnant women to make healthy living choices for own wellbeing & that of their unborn baby
∗ Confirm & monitor maternal & fetal wellbeing throughout pregnancy & the postpartum period
∗ Identify risk markers for possible complications ie pre-eclampsia, GDM & intrauterine fetal growth restriction
∗ Referral for appropriate specialist consultation where necessary

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26
Q

Identify the main difference between routine and risk based antenatal screening?

A

A. Universal / Population based screening organised and evaluated on a national or state basis to meet specific criteria and is supported by government funding ie Rubella screening
B. Risk Based / Opportunistic screening arise from consultation between a health practitioner and client. The health practitioner determines that the individual may benefit from the screening activity and offers it on the basis of that assessment ie Chlamydia

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27
Q

What are the current recommendations regarding assessment of fetal growth and well being undertaken at each antenatal examination?

A

∗ Symphysis–fundal height should be measured and recorded at each antenatal appointment from 24 weeks.
∗ Ultrasound estimation of fetal size for suspected LGA unborn babies should not be undertaken in a low risk population.
∗ Routine Doppler ultrasound should not be used in low risk pregnancies
∗ Fetal presentation should be assessed by abdominal palpation at 36 weeks or later, when presentation is likely to influence the plans for the birth.
∗ Routine assessment of presentation by abdominal palpation should not be offered before 36 weeks because it is not always accurate & may be uncomfortable.
∗ Evidence does not support the routine use of antenatal electronic fetal heart rate monitoring (cardiotocography) for fetal assessment in women with an uncomplicated pregnancy and should not be offered.
∗ The evidence does not support the routine use of ultrasound scanning after 24 weeks of gestation and therefore it should not be offered

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28
Q

Describe the information provided to a woman during pregnancy regarding:
A. Fetal movements and how these change during pregnancy

A

∗ Fetal movements are usually absent during fetal “sleep” cycles. These quiet cycles occur regularly throughout the day and night and usually last 20 – 40 minutes.
∗ They rarely exceed 90 minutes in the normal, healthy fetus.
∗ Fetal movements change during pregnancy and especially in last month – important to remain aware and notice patterns
∗ As a rule when the baby is awake if there are less than 10 movements felt in 2 hours woman contact health care provider.
∗ Maternal concern of DFM overrides any definition of DFM based on numbers of fetal movements.

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29
Q

Describe the information provided to a woman during pregnancy regarding:
B. Concerns about reduced fetal movements.

A

∗ When a woman presents with DFM, assessment of the woman and her fetus should be undertaken within 2 hours if fetal movements are absent and within 12 hours if reported as reduced
∗ Clinical assessment should include review of fetal growth as noted by symphysis-fundal height measurements in AN record.
∗ A CTG should be performed to exclude fetal compromise & further evaluation is recommended for women with any abnormal CTG pattern.
∗ In the presence of DFM an ultrasound scan should be performed within 24 hours.
∗ The use of kick-charts can currently not be recommended as part of routine antenatal care.
∗ If woman remains concerned about DFM in the presence of a normal clinical assessment (including a CTG and ultrasound) further management should be individualised.

30
Q

What is the current evidence regarding antenatal screening for:
a. Asymptomatic Bacteruria (ASB)

A

∗ Women should be offered routine screening for asymptomatic bacteriuria by midstream urine culture early in pregnancy.
∗ Evidence shows that identification and treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria reduces the risk of pyelonephritis (NICE Guidelines 2010 recommendation)

31
Q

What is the current evidence regarding antenatal screening for:
b. Group B Streptococcus (GBS)

A

∗ Best time for screening 35-37 weeks (but due to transient nature of organisim accuracy is questionable)
∗ Pregnant women should not be offered routine antenatal screening for group B streptococcus because evidence of its clinical and cost-effectiveness remains uncertain.
∗ Queensland Maternity and Neonatal Clinical Guidelines
∗ Routine screening for AN GBS carriage is not recommended
∗ Antenatal treatment of GBS carriage is not recommended
∗ Intrapartum antibiotics should be recommended to women with risk factors
∗ Discuss and provide information to women about GBS prevention strategies as a part of routine antenatal care

32
Q

If using an individualised approach what are the main risk factors for GDM and what is the current recommendation for ante-natal screening in Australia?

A

∗ GDM using risk factors in a healthy population at the booking:
∗ body mass index above 30 kg/m2
∗ previous macrosomic baby 4.5 kg or above (lack of evidence)
∗ previous GDM
∗ family history of diabetes (first-degree relative with diabetes)
∗ family origin with high prevalence of diabetes evidence ++ :
∗ Australasia Aboriginal Torres Strait Islander & Pacific Islander peoples
∗ South Asian (specifically country of origin India, Pakistan or Bangladesh)
∗ black Caribbean
∗ Middle Eastern (specifically women whose country of family origin is Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Iraq, Jordan, Syria, Oman, Qatar, Kuwait, Lebanon or Egypt).

33
Q

What are the four components of antenatal care recommended by WHO (2007) that should be included in every antenatal assessment?

A

information-sharing
assessment and screening
active decision-making
health promotion and education

34
Q

Define the term: Lie

A

Lie – Relationship of the long axis of fetus and the long axis of the uterus either longitudinal, oblique or transverse

35
Q

Define the term: Presentation

A

Presentation - Part of the fetus lies at the pelvic brim or lower pole of uterus. Usually cephalic includes breech, face, brow

36
Q

Define the term: Attitude

A

Attitude - relationship of fetal head & limbs to the body either fully flexed, deflexed or partially /completely extended

37
Q

Define the term: Denominator

A

Denominator - Identifies the name of the part of the presentation used when referring to fetal position in relation to the pelvis in cephalic this is the occiput

38
Q

Define the term: Position

A

Position - The relationship of the denominator to six points on the maternal pelvic brim :

Right and left anterior
- right and left lateral
- right and left posterior
NB the fetus can be direct anterior and posterior

39
Q

Define the term: Engagement of fetal head

A

Engagement of fetal head - This occurs when the widest presenting transverse diameter has passed through the brim of the pelvis bi-parietal diameter of 9.5cm in flexed cephalic presentation

40
Q

What information is provided to a woman regarding the signs and symptoms of pre-eclampsia?

A

All pregnant women should be made aware of the need to seek immediate advice from a healthcare professional if they experience symptoms of preeclampsia. Symptoms include:
∗ severe headache
∗ problems with vision, such as blurring or flashing before the eyes
∗ severe pain just below the ribs
∗ vomiting
∗ sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet. (NICE 2010)

41
Q

What are the key principles of midwifery documentation?

A
∗	F>A>C>T>U>A>L
∗	Focused on the client 
∗	Accurate
∗	Complete
∗	Timely 
∗	Understandable
∗	Always objective 
∗	Legible
42
Q

SIX CARE PRACTICE SUPPORT NORMAL LABOUR & BIRTH

A

∗ Care Practice #1: Labor Begins on Its Own
∗ Care Practice #2: Freedom of Movement Throughout Labour
∗ Care Practice #3: Continuous Labor Support
∗ Care Practice #4: No Routine Interventions
∗ Care Practice #5: Spontaneous Pushing in Upright or Gravity-Neutral Positions
∗ Care Practice #6: No Separation of Mother & Baby with unlimited Opportunities for Breastfeeding
Lamaze (2007) Journal of Perinatal Education, (16)3 p11-15.

43
Q

The seven (eight) cardinal movements of the mechanism of labour that occur in a vertex presentation are:

A
  1. Descent & Engagement
  2. Flexion
  3. Internal Rotation
  4. Crowning and Extension
  5. Restitution
  6. Internal Rotation of the shoulders & External Rotation of head
  7. Expulsion – birth by lateral flexion
    NB Relate to 2nd stage of labour
44
Q

Describe the cardinal movements that occur during 2nd stage of labour

A

Crowning and Extension
Restitution
Internal Rotation of the shoulders & External Rotation of head
Expulsion – birth by lateral flexion

45
Q

Define the 3rd stage of labour including the phases

A

Birth of the baby until complete expulsion of the placenta & membranes, including control of bleeding from the placental site.
Includes the examination of the genital tract & perineal repair

Latent Phase - Contraction & retraction of the myometrium
Phase 2 – CONTRACTION & DETACHMENT
PHASE 3 – EXPULSION

46
Q

List the signs of placental separation that the midwife observes for during physiological 3rd stage of labour

A

Physiological 3rd stage of labour.
∗ Possible not definitive;
∗ 30 – 60ml trickle of fresh blood from vagina
∗ Noted lengthening of the cord
∗ Uterus becomes globular, hard, high, mobile & ballotable
∗ NB: Uterine palpation should be assessed with caution as it may stimulate irregular contractions and cause partial separation of the placenta resulting in potential haemorrhage

47
Q

Describe the process of expectant management of 3rd stage of labour

A

Physiological
∗ excludes prophylactic oxytocic drug use
∗ Excludes clamping of the cord unless stopped pulsating
∗ Maternal effort only
∗ upright position may facilitate expulsion
∗ suckling releases oxytocin
∗ frequency of haemorrhage increases with time elapse
∗ Keep mother warm & skin to skin with her baby reduces the release of adrenaline reducing the risk of haemorrhage
∗ Time frames not useful
∗ Should only be considered if had physiological 1st and 2nd stage

48
Q

Describe active management of the 3rd stage including early clamping of the cord

A

Oxytocic administered routinely at the birthing of the anterior shoulder includes immediate cord clamping & delivery of the placenta by controlled cord traction
syntocinon 10u/s or
syntometrine (5u/s syntocinon 0.5mg ergometrine NB B/P)
Syntometrine causes a tonic contraction of the uterus, spasm of the cervix and entrapment of the placenta increasing after 10minutes from administration
One hour given for completion of 3rd stage before manual removal
Controlled cord traction
uterus well contracted
counter-traction applied to lower segment “guarding the uterus”
signs of placental separation - small fresh blood loss, cord lengthens fundus rounder, smaller, more mobile
Cord clamped and cut within 3 minutes

49
Q

Define the puerperium & four phases of the postnatal period

A

Defined as the time immediately after the end of labour until the reproductive organs have returned as near as possible to their pre pregnancy state - around 6-8 weeks.

Phase 1- first few hours
phase 2 – early days
phase 3- early weeks
phase 4 – completing transition to parenthood

50
Q

Outline the main focus of care provided to the woman and her baby during each of the four phases of the post-natal period?

A

Phase 1 – first few hours after birth facilitating bonding, feeding, rest, physical recovery mother & baby

Phase 2 – physical recovery - infant feeding, caring for baby, , supported physical comfort, psychological support, confidence, relief of physical discomfort as high levels can cause emotional distress,

Phase 3 – increased maternal confidence in caring for baby / physical recovery – emphasis on emotional well being & psychological / social adjustment, debrief re changes to life, birth, adjustment to mother hood , cultural and social support, each interaction with midwife is a potential for informing , supporting, promoting health

Phase 4 – completion of transition to parenthood – physical and psychological / social adjustment is complete , woman and family independent of midwife

51
Q

What are considered normal reactions to mother hood & when would you become concerned about her psychological well-being?

A

Normal – Ask at each PN visit re: emotional well being, family & social support,
Observe Emotional mood swings elation – tired, tears,
3rd - 5th day, ‘baby blues’
Time limited, reassure woman and family re signs and emphasis need to rest, support, physical comfort (NICE 2006)
Concerned – all midwives must be aware of signs & symptoms of maternal mental health problems that may occur in the weeks and month after birth – covered in 2nd year. Become concerned if symptoms of baby blues not resolved within 10-14days (ie tearfulness, feelings of anxiety, low mood

52
Q

Define the term: Collaboration

A

Collaboration - All members of the health care team working in partnership with consumers and each other to provide the highest standard of, and access to, health care.

53
Q

Define the term: Consultation

A

Consultation - the seeking of professional advice from a qualified, competent source and making decisions about shared responsibilities for care provision

54
Q

Define the term: Referral

A

Referral - the transfer of primary health care responsibility to another qualified health service provider/health professional. However, the midwife referring the consumer for care by another professional or service may need to continue to provide their professional services collaboratively in this period

55
Q

Define the term: Primary maternity care

A

Primary maternity care - where the responsibility for maternity care rests with the primary level maternity care provider (in this case, the midwife). The safety and effectiveness of primary maternity care is underpinned by a collaborative services framework for care providers that ensures appropriate assessment, timely referral and access to secondary and/or tertiary services.

56
Q

Define the term: Secondary maternity care

A

Secondary maternity care - where the responsibility for maternity care rests with the medical practitioner (such as a general practitioner with an obstetric qualification, specialist obstetrician, or the medical staff on duty in the referral hospital) working in collaboration with a midwife or midwives who continue to provide midwifery care.

57
Q

Define the term: Tertiary maternity care

A

Tertiary maternity care - when responsibility for maternity care rests with a healthcare provider in a specialised maternity hospital. This provider usually works with a team which may include an obstetrician, neonatologist, midwife or other specialised services.

58
Q

Mandatory Notification

A

A registered health practitioner has behaved in a way that constitutes notifiable conduct

59
Q

Voluntary Notification

A

Any organisation or person that believes grounds exist may make a voluntary notification to a registered health practitioner or a student may notify the AHPRA

∗ Grounds:
Practitioner’s professional conduct standard less than that reasonably expected of the midwife by the public or peers
∗ The knowledge, skill or judgment possessed, or care provided by the practitioner is below standard reasonably expected
∗ Practitioner is not a suitable ‘fit & proper’ person
∗ Practitioner has or may have an impairment;
∗ Practitioner has or may have contravened this Law

60
Q

Why is informed consent considered a key principle that underpins all care provided to a woman?

A
  • Obtaining informed consent for interventions is central to good practice.
  • Competent adults have the right to accept or refuse medical treatment and performing an operation without consent constitutes assault.
  • Failure to obtain a woman’s consent to healthcare could lead to a criminal charge of assault or civil action for battery
  • Failure to disclose material risks (obtain informed consent) may give rise to civil action for negligence disciplinary action may result
61
Q

Name the three types of informed consent

A

a. Implied – use with caution for basic procedures
b. Verbal – explanation of what is involved and client gives consent
c. Written – documentary evidence consent obtained but without information provided first may not be informed consent

62
Q

What must be included to constitute a valid consent?

A

Consent is the giving of permission and informed consent is about the adequacy of information provided in getting that permission. Therefore for consent to be ethically and legally valid this must include:

A. The capacity to make treatment decisions
B. The consent is to be free and voluntary including the person must not be under any undue influence or coercion, must be no misrepresentation (whether deliberate or mistaken) as to the nature or necessity of a procedure
C. The consent covers the act to be performed.

63
Q

What can the midwife do when the woman exercises a choice contrary to professional advice?

A

When a woman exercises a choice that is contrary to professional advice or the Guidelines, the midwife should carefully document the woman’s concerns and decision and the advice and information that the midwife provided. Refer to Appendices A and B and the ACM position statement about caring for women who make choices outside professional advice (ACM 2013).

64
Q

Which Act established the current statutory framework for midwives in 2010?

A

Health Practitioner Regulation National Law Act (2009) implemented 2010 established NMBA

65
Q

Name the three documents that provide a professional framework for midwifery practice in Australia

A

 ANMC (2006) Code of Ethics for Midwives (2006)
 ANMC (2008) Code of Professional Conduct for Midwives
 ANMC (2008) Competencies for Entry to the Register of Midwives

66
Q

What are the woman’s rights in respect of privacy of her information?

A

Woman’s rights in respect of privacy of information?
∗ Maintaining confidentiality of health records at all times
∗ Use of information
∗ Access to information
∗ Disclosure
∗ Legislation requires specific information to be recorded and maintained :
- (1988 )Privacy Act
- Information Privacy Act Queensland (2009)
(2010) Australian Charter of Health Care Rights

67
Q

Are there any occasions when the woman’s information may be shared?

A

Disclosure of information only permitted when:
∗ agreement of person to whom information relates
∗ disclosure in form that does not identify the person
∗ disclosure to protect public safety ie midwife poses a risk to public health
∗ disclosure to protect public safety ie child protection
Authorised by Ministerial Council

Disclosure may be permitted through legislation and/or in the public interest ie in cases of child abuse and controlled notifiable diseases. There is no privilege in the communication between a health professional and a patient in Queensland in relation to disclosure in legal proceedings. That is, the health professional is a compellable witness.

68
Q

Define the term ‘contemporaneous ‘ in relation to midwifery documentation

A

∗ Information recorded about the client should be written at the time of the event or as soon afterwards that is possible to provide a chronological and accurate record of events.
∗ Notes that are written at a time considerably after an event are more likely to have their accuracy questioned.
∗ The existence of notes that are not made contemporaneously may give rise to an inference that there has been a lack of attention to detail in the woman’s care
∗ If notes cannot be made contemporaneously, staff should not attempt to back-date the health record
∗ Notes should indicate the day and time that they were written.
∗ Sign and date all entries signature and name legible
∗ Include designation

69
Q

What are the key principles / STANDARDS of midwifery documentation?

A
F>A>C>T>U>A>L
∗	Focused on the client 
∗	Accurate
∗	Complete
∗	Timely 
∗	Understandable
∗	Always objective 
∗	Legible 

Accurate – if errors need to be corrected they should be crossed out with the original text remaining legible, dated and signed with an explanation of the error
∗ Contemporaneous - written at the time of the event). You should put the date and time of the record (do not back date)
∗ Objective – record facts, don’t write derogatory statements about patient
∗ Detailed
∗ Legible

70
Q

List the legal rights (expectations) that all women have in relation to maternity care.

A

Access: services to address my healthcare needs
Safety : Receive safe & high quality health services, provided with
professional care, skill & competence.
Respect: Care provided shows respect to me, my culture,
beliefs, values & personal characteristics (regardless of age, gender, sexual preference, religion & culture
Communication; Receive open, timely & appropriate communication about my health care in a way I can understand
Communication; I receive open, timely & appropriate communication about my health care in a way I can understand.
Participation; I may join in making decisions and choices about my care and about health service planning.
Privacy- My personal privacy is maintained and proper handling
of my personal health and other information is assured.
Comment - I can comment on or complain about my care and have my concerns dealt with properly and promptly
Australian Commission on Quality and Safety in Health Care
Australian Charter of Health Care Rights 2010