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Chapter 1-11 > study guide > Flashcards

study guide Flashcards

0
Q

What type of output does S/PDIF port provide

A

digital audio

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1
Q

Which is faster, Highspeed USB port or super speed USB port

A

Super speed

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2
Q

List 5 types of video ports

A

VGA, S-Video, DVI, HDMI, Display port

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3
Q

what is the purpose of an expansion slot on a motherboard?

A

to provide more ports than what is provided on the motherboard

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4
Q

What should be the setting for dual voltage selector switch on a power supply when using a computer in the U.S.?

A

115V

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5
Q

What unit of measure used to describe the amount of work a surge suppressor can do before it stops protecting the circuit from an electrical surge

A

Joule

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6
Q

Hot wires in home wiring are _____ and ground wires in computers are normally colored _____

A

Black, Black

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7
Q

What is the difference between a transformer and a rectifier? Which are found in a PC power supply?

A

Transformer- changes the ratio of current to voltage
Rectifier - converts AC volts to DC volts
both are found in a power supply

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8
Q

What device can you use to make sure a computer is protected against power surges?

A

A surge suppressor

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9
Q

A power supply receives 120 volts of ____ from a wall outlet and converts it to 3.3, 5, and 12 volts of ___ power.

A

AC, DC

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10
Q

Why is the power supply dangerous even after the power is disconnected?

A

The capacitors inside the power supply still hold an electrical charge even after being disconnected

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11
Q

Which two tools can a PC support technician use when taking apart a computer to best protect computer components against ESD?

A

A ground bracelet and a grounding mat or anti-static gloves

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12
Q

What is the purpose of a POST diagnostic card?

A

It tests if the BIOS can communicate properly with essential components

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13
Q

What three purposes are accomplished by the motherboard BIOS?

A

System BIOS- manages devices such as mouse and keyboard
Start up BIOS- used to start the computer
CMOS - used to change the settings or configuration of the motherboard

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14
Q

What is the best way to determine if a cable inside a computer is a data and instruction cable or a power cable?

A

Trace it back to its source

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15
Q

What technology standard provides up to four drives installed in a system?

A

PATA (IDE)

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16
Q

How many pins does the P1 connector have that uses the ATX Version 2.2 standard?

A

24 pin or 20 + 4 pin connector

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the 4-pin auxiliary connector on a motherboard?

A

It provides an extra 12 volts of power

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the 4-pin Molex connector

A

Used to power IDE drives

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19
Q

You purchase a new computer system that doesnt have wireless capability. you decide to use a wireless connection to the internet. what are the least expensive ways to upgrade your system?

A

purchase a wireless expansion card and install it into your system

purchase a USB wireless adapter and connect it to your PC by way of a USB port

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20
Q

How much power is consumed by a load drawing 5 A with 120 V across it?

A

600 watts, (5*120) (amps * volts)

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21
Q

when working on a computer, which of the following best protects against ESD? why?

A

Grounding bracelet clipped to the side of the case, it eliminates ESD between you and the case

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22
Q

You suspect the network port on a computer is not functioning, what tool do you use?

A

Loopback plug

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23
Q

The system fails at the beginning of the boot and nothing appears on the screen, what tool do you use?

A

A Post Diagnostic card

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24
Q

A Hard drive is not working and you suspect the Molex power connector from the power supply might be the source of the problem, what tool do you use?

A

a power supply tester or a multimeter

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25
Q

When taking a computer apart, why is it important to not stack the boards on top of each other?

A

a chip could be dislodged

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26
Q

why is it important to remove loose jewelry before working inside a computer case?

A

it could get caught on the components that you are working on

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27
Q

When assembling a system, which do you install first, the motherboard or the drives?

A

the drives

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28
Q

What is the purpose of raised screw holes or standoffs installed between the motherboard and case?

A

to prevent the motherboard from shorting out on the case

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29
Q

When installing the front panel wires to the motherboard front pane header, how do you know which pins to use for each wire if the pins on the header are not labeled?

A

look at the motherboard user guide

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30
Q

What are two major components of a processor cooler assembly?

A

Heatsink and fan

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31
Q

How many pins does the CPU fan header on a current motherboard have?

A

4 pins

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32
Q

if the power connector from the CPU fan has only three pins, it can still connect to the 4 pin header, but what functionality is lost?

A

Pulse width modulation (PMW)

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33
Q

How do you determine the wattage capacity needed by a power supply?

A

Add up the watts used by each component and add an additional 30% to the total

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34
Q

Which one component in a high-end gaming computer is likely to draw the most power?

A

the video card

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35
Q

You disassemble and reassemble a computer. when you first turn it on, you see no lights and hear no sounds. Nothing appears on the monitor screen. What is most likely the cause of the problem?

A

Power cords to the motherboard are not connected

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36
Q

How much power is consumed by a load drawing 5 A with 120 V across it?

A

600 watts

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37
Q

what is a reasonable wattage capacity for a power supply that contains a DVD drive, three hard drives, and a high-end video card?

A

700 watts

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38
Q

When overclocking a system, what two problems are most likely to occur?

A

An unstable system that causes intermittent errors and overheating

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39
Q

List four major functions of an OS

A

Provide user interface, manage files, manage hardware, manage applications

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40
Q

Using Aero Snap, what happens when you drag a window to the top of the Windows 7 desktop?

A

It maximizes the window

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41
Q

How can you add a program icon to the Windows 7 taskbar so the program can be launched at anytime?

A

Locate the program, right click, then click pin to taskbar

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42
Q

What might happen to the windows system if too many services are running, as indicated by multiple icons in the notification of the task bar?

A

Windows my become sluggish

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43
Q

What is the keyboard shortcut to flip to a 3D view?

A

Windows key + Tab Key

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44
Q

What are the 4 libraries created by default?

A

Music, Video, Documents, Pictures

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45
Q

What part of the filename dose Windows use to know whch application to pen to manage the file?

A

the files extension

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46
Q

What file extension is used to name a compressed folder?

A

.zip

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47
Q

which folder does windows use to store files a user puts in the Documents library?

A

My Documents folder

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48
Q

Which Windows 7 edition(s) came only in 32-bit version?

A

Windows 7 Starter

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49
Q

What is the memory limitations for a 32-bit operating system?

A

4 GB

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50
Q

How do you access the property box for a file to change a file attribute?

A

From computers icon, right click the file or folder and select properties

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51
Q

What is the program name for the System Information utility?

A

msinfo32.exe

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52
Q

When does a user need to enter a password into the UAC in order to continue?

A

when performing administrator tasks

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53
Q

What tool can yyou use to know how much RAM is installed on your system?

A

msinfo32.exe

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54
Q

Mary wants her 32-bit installation of Windows 7 Professional to run faster. She has 4 GB of memory installed on the motherboard. She decides more memory will help. She installs an additional 2 GB of memory for a total of 6 GB, but does not see any performance improvement. What is the problem and what should you tell Mary?

A

A 32-bit OS cannot use more than 4 Gb of memory. Explain to Mary the problem and discuss with her the possible solutions

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55
Q

Jack needs to email two documents to a friend but the files are so large his email server bounced them back as undeliverable. What is your advice?

A

Tell Jack to put the two documents in a compressed folder and email that folder

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56
Q

For each of the following programs, identify if the program is an operating system, application, device driver, or utility program: Internet Explorer, Norton Antivirus, Windows 98, Adobe Photoshop

A

Internet Explorer - application
Norton Antivirus - utility program
Windows 98 - operating system
Adobe Photoshop - application

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57
Q

What are the three most popular form factors used for motherboards?

A

ATX, micro ATX, Mini-ITX

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58
Q

Which type of Intel chipset was the first to support the graphics controller to be part of the processor?

A

Sandy Bridge

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59
Q

How many pins does the Intel Socket B have? What is another name for this socket?

A

1366 pins, LGA1366

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60
Q

What type of memory does the LGA1155 socket work with? which socket was it designed to replace?

A

DDR3 memory and it was designed to replace the LGA1156

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61
Q

Does the Sandy Bridge chipset family use two chipset housings on th motherboard or a single chipset housing? The Nehalem chipset?

A

Sandy Bridge uses only one chipset

Nehalem chipset uses more than one

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62
Q

How many pins does the AMD socket AM2 have?

A

940 pins

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63
Q

Which socket by AMD uses a land grid array rather than a pin grid array?

A

Socket F

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64
Q

Which is better performing Intel chipset, the X58 or the H67

A

H67

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65
Q

What are the names of the two technologies used to install multiple video cards in the same system

A

SLI and Crossfire

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66
Q

What are the two different voltages that a PCI slot can provide?

A

3.3 or 5 volts

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67
Q

How does the throughput of PCI express version 1.1 compare to PCIe version 1? How does the PCIe version 2 compare to Version 1?

A

Throughput of PCI Express Version 1.1 is the same as Version 1, which is 250 MB/sec per lane in each direction. Version 2 is doubled, which allows up to 500 MB/sec per lane in each direction

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68
Q

What is the maximum wattage that a PCIe Version 2.0 expansion card can draw?

A

300 watts

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69
Q

What new type of power connector on the motherboard was introduced with PCIe Version 1.0? How much power does this connector provide?

A

6 pin PCIe power connector. 75 Watts

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70
Q

What new type of power connector was introduced with PCIe Version 2.0? How much power does this connector provide?

A

Its a new 8-pin PCIe connector that provides 150 watts

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71
Q

If you are installing an expansion card into a case that does not have enough clearance about the motherboard for the card, what device can you use to solve the problem?

A

a PCI riser card

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72
Q

What is the purpose of an AGP slot?

A

for video cards

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73
Q

Which is faster, PCI express x16 or the latest AGP bus

A

PCI express x16

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74
Q

Which chip on the motherboard does Windows Bitlocker Encryption use to secure the hard drive?

A

The TPM chip

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75
Q

What are two reasons you might decide to flash BIOS?

A

The system can hang at odd times or during the boot.

You want to incorporate some features or components on the board

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76
Q

How can you find out how many memory slots are populated on a motherboard without opening the computer case?

A

BIOS Setup

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77
Q

What is the easiest way to obtain the latest software to upgrade BIOS?

A

Express BIOS update

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78
Q

What can you do if the power-on password and the supervisor password have been forgotten?

A

Jumpers can be set to clear both passwords

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79
Q

Where is the boot priority order for devices kept?

A

BIOS Setup

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80
Q

How is CMOS RAM powered when the system is unplugged?

A

A lithium coin-cell battery allows the CMOS RAM to hold data

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81
Q

Describe how you can access the BIOS setup program

A

During the boot process you either press a key or a combination of keys to enter the BIOS setup program

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82
Q

If a USB port on the motherboard is failing what is one task you can do that might fix the problem?

A

Use the BIOS to disable the port and use an expansion card for the port

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83
Q

What might the purpose be for a SATA-style power connector on a motherboard?

A

It supplies additional power for PCIe video cards

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84
Q

What is the purpose of installing standoffs or spacers between the motherboard and the case?

A

to prevent the motherboard from shorting out on the case

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85
Q

When installing a motherboard, suppose you forgot to connect the wires from the case to the front panel header. Will you be able to power up the system? Why or why not?

A

No, the power button wont work until the power wire is connected to the motherboards

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86
Q

Why does a motherboard sometimes support more than one Front Side Bus speed?

A

To support the number of processors and memory that differ in speed

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87
Q

Why don’t all buses on a motherboard operate at the same speed?

A

different processors and chipsets operate at diferent speeds

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88
Q

When you turn off the power to a computer at night, it loses the date, and you must reenter it each morning. What is the problem and how do you solve it?

A

The CMOS battery has ran out of power. To fix it test and replace the battery

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89
Q

Why do you think the trend is to store more configuration information on a motherboard in CMOS RAM rather by using jumpers or switches?

A

It accesses the configuration information faster

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90
Q

Why do you think the trend is to put more control such as graphic controller and the memory controller in the processor rather than in the chipset?

A

It allows more speed on the processor

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91
Q

When troubleshooting a motherboard, you discover the network port no longer works. What is the best and least expensive solution to this problem?

A

First try updating the motherboard drivers first. If that doesn’t work, disable the network port and install a network card in an expansion slot

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92
Q

A computer freezes at odd times. At first, you suspect the power supply or overheating, but you have eliminated overheating and replaced the power supply without solving the problem. What do you do next?

A

Test and if needed replace the processor

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93
Q

Who are the two major manufacturers of processors?

A

Intel and AMD

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94
Q

What is the name of the memory cache that is on the same die as the processor?

A

L1 Cache

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95
Q

What is the name of the memory cache that is closest to the processor die bus on housed on the die?

A

L2 Cache

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96
Q

What is the name of the Intel technology that allows a processor to handle two threads at the same time?

A

Hyperthreading

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97
Q

How many threads can a quad-core processor handle at once?

A

8 threads

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98
Q

Which Intel processor socket uses a screw head to hold down the socket load plate?

A

LGA1155

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99
Q

Which is faster, SRAM or DRAM? Why?

A

SRAM, DRAM needs a refresher which takes longer

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100
Q

How many pins are on the DDR3 DIMM? DDR2 DIMM?

A

Both have 240 pins

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101
Q

How many pins are on the DDR DIMM? SDRAM DIMM?

A

DDR DIMM has 184 pins.

SDRAM DIMM has 168 pins

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102
Q

How many notches does a DDR3 DIMM have?

A

One notch

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103
Q

What was the first type of DIMM that ran synchronized with the system clock?

A

SDRAM

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104
Q

What major improvements did DDR make over regular SDRAM?

A

It doubles the data rate of memory and runs twice as fast

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105
Q

Which DIMM performs better, a double-sided dual-ranked DIMM or a double-sided single-ranked DIMM?

A

Single-ranked DIMM

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106
Q

What prevents a DDR DIMM from being installed in a DDR2 DIMM slot on a motherboard?

A

Notch placement and number of pins

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107
Q

Which module, a DDR3 or DDR2 DIMM, uses lower voltage?

A

DDR3

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108
Q

In a memory ad for DIMMs, you notice 64Meg x72 for one DIMM and 64Meg x64 for another DIMM. What does the 72 tell you about the first DIMM?

A

It has ECC

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109
Q

A DIMM that contains memory chips in two memory banks on the module is said to be _____________.

A

Dual ranked

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110
Q

What type of DIMM supports triple channeling?

A

DDR3

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111
Q

If two bits on a byte are in error when the byte is read from ECC memory, can ECC detect the error? Can it fix the error?

A

ECC can detect the error but not fix it

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112
Q

How many notches are on SDRAM DIMM?

A

Two

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113
Q

Looking at an SDRAM DIMM, how can you know for certain the voltage needed by the module?

A

By the location of the notches

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114
Q

A DIMM memory ad displays 5-5-5-25. What is the CAS Latency value of this DIMM?

A

CL5

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115
Q

What is the most amount of RAM that can be used by a 32-bit installation of Windows 7 Professional?

A

4 GB

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116
Q

A motherboard uses dual channeling, but you have four DIMMs available that differ in size. The motherboard supports all four sizes. Can you install these DIMMs on the board? Will dual channeling be enabled?

A

You can install all four but dual channeling wont be enabled

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117
Q

You need to upgrade memory on a motherboard that uses RIMMs. You notice one RIMM and one C-RIMM module are already installed on the board Which module should you replace?

A

C-RIMM

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118
Q

What two types of memory can be used on a 100-MHz motherboard?

A

SDRAM and DDR

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119
Q

Which is faster, CL3 or CL5 memory?

A

CL3

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120
Q

You are looking to purchase two DIMMs running at 400 MHz. You find DIMMs advertised at PC4000 and PC3200. Which do you purchase?

A

PC3200

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121
Q

You need to find out how much RAM is installed in a system. What command do you enter in the Search box to launch the System Information utility?

A

msinfo32.exe

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122
Q

Although ECC memory costs more than non-ECC memory, which would you choose to use it? Which type of computer typically requires ECC memroy?

A

Its more reliable than non-ECC memory. It used in computer that cannot tolerate data corruption.

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123
Q

You need to upgrade memory in a system but you don’t have the motherboard documentation available. You open the case and notice that the board has four DIMM slots; three slots are colored yellow and one slot is black. What type of DIMM does the board likely use? how can you be sure?

A

DDR3. Remove the module and look at the notch position

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124
Q

If your motherboard supports DIMM memory, will RIMM memory still work on the board?

A

No

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125
Q

If your motherboard supports ECC SDRAM memory, can you substitute non-ECC SDRAM memory? If your motherboard supports buffered SDRAM memory, can you substitute unbuffered SDRAM modules?

A

Yes, but ECC will be disabled

You cant substitute unbuffered SDRAM for buffered SDRAM

126
Q

You have just upgraded memory on a computer from 256 MB to 512 MB by adding one DIMM. When you first turn on the PC, the memory count shows only 256 MB. Which of the following is most likely the source of the problem? What can you do to fix it?

A

The new DIMM is not properly seated. Turn off the PC, disconnect the power and press the power button again to discharge the capacitors. Reseat the DIMM and reset your PC.

127
Q

Your motherboard supports dual channeling and you currently have two slots used in Channel A on the board; each module holds 1 GB. You want to install an additional 1 GB of RAM Will your system run faster if you install two 512 MB DIMMs or 1 GB DIMM?

A

Two 512 MB DIMMs will be faster.

128
Q

What two types of technologies are used inside hard drives?

A

Solid State drive and Magnetic hard drive

129
Q

What four speeds in revolution per minute might be the spindle inside a hard drive rotate?

A

5400, 7200, 10,000, 15,000 RPM

130
Q

What is the name of the Windows technology that supports a memory buffer in a hybrid drive?

A

ReadyDrive

131
Q

When the OS addresses the sector on a hard drive as one long list of sequential sectors, what is the technology called?

A

Logical Block Addressing

132
Q

A CD drive that uses a PATA connection must follow what standard?

A

Advance technology Attachment Packet Interface

133
Q

How many pins does an 80-pin conductor IDE cable have? What is the maximum recommended length of an IDE cable?

A

40 pins, 18 inches

134
Q

What is the transfer speed of an IDE interface using the ATA-7 standard?

A

133 MB/s

135
Q

What is the transfer speed for SATA I? SATA II? SATA III?

A

1.5 GB/sec
3 GB/sec
6 GB/sec

136
Q

How many pins does a SATA data cable have? How many pins does a SATA power cable have?

A

7 pins for data, 15 pins for power

137
Q

What term describes the technology that allows you to exchange a hard drive without powering down the system?

A

Hot-Swapping

138
Q

What are the four possible configurations for a PATA drive installed in a system?

A

Primary Master, Primary Slave, Secondary Master, Secondary Slave

139
Q

Which SCSI ID is assigned to the SCSI host adapter?

A

SCSI ID 7

140
Q

Which two SCSI connectors might be used with narrow SCSI?

A

DB23 SCSI connector and 50 pin SCSI connector

141
Q

Which version of SCSI is known for Fast SCSI? Which version is know as Ultra SCSI?

A

SCSI 2, SCSI 3

142
Q

Which RAID level mirrors one hard drive with a second drive so that the same data is written to both drives?

A

RAID 1

143
Q

Which RAID level stripes data across multiple drives to improve performance and also provides fault tolerance?

A

RAID 5

144
Q

How many hard drives does it take to implement RAID 10?

A

4 drives

145
Q

How many pins does a floppy drive connector have? what is the storage capacity of a 3 1/2” high-density floppy disk?

A

34 pins, 1.44 MB

146
Q

If a motherboard has one blue IDE connector and one black IDE connector, which do you use to install a single drive?

A

Blue

147
Q

When implementing RAID on a motherboard, where do you enable the feature?

A

BIOS

148
Q

You install an IDE hard drive and then turn on the PC for the first time. You access BIOS setup and see that the drive is not recognized. Which of the following do you do next?

A

Verify that BIOS autodetection is enabled

149
Q

You want to install a SSD drive in your desktop computer, but the drive is far too narrow to fit snugly into the bays of your computer case. What do you do?

A

Buy a bay adapter that will allow you to install the narrow drve in a desktop case bay

150
Q

Mark each statement as true or false
SATA 1 is about 10 times faster than IDE ATA/133
SATA 1 is about 100 times faster than IDE ATA/133
RAID 0 can be implemented using only a single hard drive
RAID 5 requires five hard drives working together at the same speed and capacity
You can install an internal SATA data cable with an eSAYA port
A SATA data cable has 7 pins

A 
True
False
False
False
False
True
151
Q

Which edition of Windows 7 comes only in a 32-bit version?

A

Windows 7 Starter

152
Q

What is the maximum amount of memory a 64-bit version of Windows 7 Home Premium can support?

A

16 GB

153
Q

How much free space on the hard drive is required to install a 64-bit version of Windows 7?

A

20 GB

154
Q

How do you start the process to reinstall an OS on a laptop computer using the back up files stored on a recovery partition?

A

Follow the recovery procedures given by the computer manufacturer

155
Q

What are the three free applications mentioned in the chapter that can be used to create virtual machines?

A

Virtual PC, VirtualBox, VMware

156
Q

When upgrading from Windows XP to Windows 7, can you perform an in-place upgrade of Windows 7?

A

No

157
Q

What must be installed in Windows Vista before you can perform an in-place upgrade from Vista to Windows 7?

A

Vista Service Pack 1 or later

158
Q

Which file system is used on the volume where Windows is installed?

A

NTFS

159
Q

What is the minimum number of partitions required on a hard drive that is to be set up as dual boot with Windows 7 and Windows XP

A

Two

160
Q

Is the built-in administrator account in Windows 7 enabled or disabled by default? In Windows XP?

A

Windows 7 is enabled by default

Windows XP is disabled by default

161
Q

Which gives better security, workgroup sharing or homegroup sharing? Why?

A

Workgroup. It allows a person to access local resources based on rights he or she has been given

162
Q

Why will homegroup sharing not work on a network that has a mix of Windows XP, Vista, and 7 computers?

A

Homegroup sharing is new in Windows 7 and cant be used in earlier versions

163
Q

During a Windows 7 Installation, what network location should you choose when you intend to join the computer to a domain? When you intend to join a homegroup?

A

Client/server network

Home network

164
Q

What is the name of the domain controller database used by Windows server 2011?

A

Active Directory

165
Q

If you suspect a PC is infected with a virus, why is it not a good idea to perform an upgrade installation of Windows rather than a clean install?

A

It can carry over the virus

166
Q

After setting up a dual boot installation with Windows 7 and Vista, how do you boot the system into Vista

A

The boot loader menu

167
Q

What dialog box can you use to change the computer name after Windows 7 is installed?

A

The system properties dialog box

168
Q

Is the Windows 7 setup disc a CD or DVD? Vista setup disc? XP setup Disc?

A

Windows 7: DVD
Windows Vista: CD/DVD
Windows XP: CD

169
Q

After a windows installation, what is the easiest way to determine that you have Internet access?

A

Open Internet Explorer

170
Q

How many days do you normally have after a Windows installation to activate the OS?

A

30 days

171
Q

What window in Windows 7 is used to solve connectivity problems in the network?

A

Network and Sharing

172
Q

What Windows 7 tool can you use to migrate user data and settings from a Windows Vista installation on one computer to the new Windows 7 installation on a different computer?

A

Windows Easy Transfer

173
Q

What is your primary Windows tool for managing hardware devices? What window is used to uninstall applications in Windows 7?

A

Device Manager

Programs and Features

174
Q

Are you required to enter the product key during the Windows 7 installation? During XP installation?

A

no, Xp is required to have the product key with retail discs but not the disc sent with the computer

175
Q

Using an unattended installation of Windows, what is the name of the file that holds the response a technician would normally give during the installation?

A

Answer file

176
Q

What are the two commands used by the User state Migration Tool?

A

Scanstate and Loadstate

177
Q

To use the User State Migration tool, how must a computer join the network?

A

The User State Migration tool requires a client computer that is connected to a Microsoft Windows server-based domain controller

178
Q

Where is the PXE programming code stored that is used to boot a computer when it is searching for an OS on the network?

A

BIOS code on the motherboard

179
Q

Which boot device should be set as the first boot device in BIOS setup when a technician is configuring a computer to launch Windows PE on the deployment server?

A

Ethernet

180
Q

You are planning an upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7. Your system uses a network card that you don’t find listed on the Microsoft Windows 7 list of compatible devices. What do you do next?

A

Check the website of the network card manufacturer for a Windows 7 driver. Buy a new network card

181
Q

You have just installed Windows 7 and now attempt to install your favorite game that worked fine under Windows XP. When you attempt the installation, you get an error. What is your next best step

A

Download any service packs or patches to Windows 7

182
Q

If you find out that Windows 7 does not support one of your applications and you still want to use Windows 7, what can you do to solve this incompatibility problem?

A

Download the drivers or find a similar application

183
Q

Is it possible to install Windows 7 on a system that does not have a DVD drive? Explain your answer.

A

Yes, it can be booted from a flash drive

184
Q

What command can you enter in the Search box to launch Device Manager?

A

devmgmt.msc

185
Q

Which is faster, an eSATA-600 port or a FireWire 800 port?

A

eSATA 600

186
Q

What is the speed for Hi-Speed USB?

A

480 MB per second

187
Q

How many times faster is a Hi-Speed USB port than an Original USB port running at 12 MBPS?

A

40 times faster

188
Q

Which is faster, USB 3.0 or eSATA 600?

A

eSATA 600

189
Q

Which is faster, Wi-Fi 802.11 or Bluetooth?

A

Wi-Fi 802.11

190
Q

How many pins does a FireWire 800 port have?

A

9 pins

191
Q

What type of wireless transmission requires a line-of-site clearance?

A

Infrared IR

192
Q

Will a printer rated to USB 3.0 work when you connect the printer’s USB cable into a USB 2.0 port on your computer?

A

Yes

193
Q

What is the easiest way to tell if a USB port on a notebook is using the USB 3.0 standard?

A

The port is usually blue

194
Q

For an LCD monitor, what is the best resolution to use?

A

Native Resolution

195
Q

Which gives a better measurement for the quality of an LCD monitor, the contrast ratio or the dynamic contrast ratio?

A

Contrast ratio

196
Q

What type of port gives the best output, a composite out port or an S-Video port?

A

S-Video

197
Q

What command do you use to find out what version of DirectX your video card is using?

A

dxdiag.exe

198
Q

Name two types of ports a keyboard might use.

A

USB and PS/2

199
Q

Which Windows utility is most likely the one to use when uninstalling an expansion card?

A

Device Manager

200
Q

Would you expect all the devices listed in BIOS setup to also be listed in Device Manager? Would you expect all devices listed in Device Manager to also be listed in BIOS setup?

A

No, No

201
Q

Why is it best to leave a slot empty between two expansion cards?

A

to help with airflow

202
Q

Which speaker port should you use when connecting a single speaker to a PC?

A

the lime green port on the motherboard

203
Q

What type of adapter card allows you to watch TV using your computer?

A

TV tuner card

204
Q

What type of file system is used by Blu-ray Discs?

A

UDF

205
Q

What type of file system is used by SDXC memory cards?

A

FAT file system

206
Q

What two types of interfaces might be used by an internal DVD drive?

A

IDE or SATA

207
Q

How much data can a CD hold?

A

700 MB

208
Q

How much Data can a double-sided, dual-layer DVD hold?

A

15.9 GB

209
Q

How much data can a double-sided, single-layer BD hold?

A

25 GB

210
Q

Which costs more, a CD-R or a CD-RW disc?

A

CD-R

211
Q

Which type of flash memory card is currently the smallest type of card?

A

MicroSDHC

212
Q

What is the group of standards that are used to represent musical in digital form?

A

MIDI (musical instrument digital interface)

213
Q

Why might a musical keyboard have two MIDI ports?

A

Input and Output

214
Q

If a PS/2 keyboard does not work on your system and yet you know the keyboard is good. What is the best solution?

A

Disable the PS/2 port in BIOS setup and use a PS/2 splitter to install a keyboard and mouse using a PS/2 mouse port

215
Q

You plug a new scanner into a USB port on your Windows 7 system. When you first turn on the scanner, what should you expect to see?

A

You see the Found New Hardware Wizard launch

216
Q

You turn on your Windows 7 computer and see the system display POST messages. Then the screen turns blue with no text. Which of the following items could be the source of the problem?

A

The Video card

217
Q

You have just installed a new sound card in your system, and Windows says the card installed with no errors. When you plug up the speakers and try to play music CD, you hear no sound. What is the first thing you should do? The Second thing?

A

Verify the volume is turned up in the Windows and on the speakers
Use Device Manager to update the sound card drivers

218
Q

You have just installed a new DVD drive and its drivers under Windows 7. The drive will read a CD but not a DVD. You decide to reinstall the device drivers. What is the first thing you do?

A

Open Device manager and uninstall the drive

219
Q

Name five job roles that can all be categorized as a PC technician.

A

PC support technician, PC service technician, Technical retail associate, Bench technician, Help-desk technician

220
Q

Of the five jobs, which one job might never include interacting with the PC’s primary user?

A

Bench technician

221
Q

Assume that you are a customer who wants to have a PC repaired. List five main characteristics that you would want to see in your PC repair person.

A

Patient, positive/helpful attitude, good listener, professional, dependable

222
Q

What is one thing you should do when you recieve a phone call requesting on-site support, before you make an appointment?

A

Try to resolve it over the phone

223
Q

You make an appointment to do an on-site repair, but you are detained and find out that you will be late What is the best thing to do?

A

Let them know and arrange for a new time and date

224
Q

When you make an on-site call, what should you do before making any changes to software or before taking the case cover off a computer?

A

Ask for permission first

225
Q

What should you do after finishing your PC repair?

A

Put everything the way it was and clean up any mess. Explain what you did and what was wrong

226
Q

What is a good strategy to follow if a conflict arises between you and your customer?

A

Treat others as you, yourself would want to be treated

227
Q

If you are about to make an on-site service call to a large financial organization, is it appropriate to show u in shorts and T-shirt? Why or Why not?

A

No, Its unprofessional

228
Q

You have exhausted your knowledge of a problem and its still not solved. Before you escalate it, what else can you do?

A

Go back over the question and re-ask the customer

229
Q

If you need to make a phone call while on a customer’s site and your cellphone is not working, what do you do?

A

Politely ask to use their phone to aid you in getting the repair done

230
Q

When someone calls your help desk, what is the first thing you should do?

A

Tell them who you are and who you work for

231
Q

What is one thing you can do to help a caller who needs phone support and is not a competent computer user?

A

Be specific with your information

232
Q

Describe what you should do when a customer complains to you about a product or service that your company provides.

A

Try to comfort the customer by finding something you both can agree on

233
Q

What are some things you can do to make your work at a help desk easier?

A

Be more organized

234
Q

When applying for a position as a help desk technician, you discover the job interview will happen by telephone. Why do you think the employer has chosen this method for the interview?

A

To see if you are able to talk over the phone and have the right personality traits

235
Q

What is the primary importance of a chain-of-custody document?

A

It tracks exactly what, when, and from whom evidence was collected

236
Q

In a home Theater PC, what is the purpose of an HDMI output port?

A

Connect video output to the television.

237
Q

In a Home Theater PC, Why might you need an HDMI input port? Which types of adapter card might provide this port?

A

To provide a way to make a connection between the TV and the HTPC. You can use a video capture card that has an HDMI input port

238
Q

Which system requires the best graphics card, a CAD workstation or a virtualization workstation?

A

CAD workstation

239
Q

Which is generally a better GPU, one in the NVIDIA Quadro family or one in the NVIDIA GeForce family

A

NVIDIA Quadro family

240
Q

Which socekt does Intel recommend you use with liquid cooling?

A

LGA2011

241
Q

How many speakers or sound channels does a surround sound version 5.1 use/

A

6

242
Q

Why is it important that a virtualization workstation have a lot of RAM?

A

It ties up all the RAM assigned to each virtualization

243
Q

You own a small PC repair company and a customer comes to you with a PC that will not boot. After investigating, you discover the hard drive has crashed. What should you do first?

A

Ask the customer’s advice and speed of the new drive to install

244
Q

You have repaired a broken LCD panel in a notebook computer. However, when you disassembled the notebook, you bent the hinge on the notebook lid so that it now does not latch solidly. When the customer receives the notebook, he notices the bent hinge and begins shouting at you. What do you do first? Second?

A

Listen carefully to the customer and don’t get defensive. Apologize and offer to replace the bent hinge.

245
Q

What are the three Windows settings critical to securing a computer that needs to be verified as part of regular maintenance?

A

Windows update, Anti-virus software, Network location Setting

246
Q

What folder holds the Windows registry? What folder holds a backup of the registry?

A

C:\Windows\system32\config folder
C:\Windows\system32\config\RegBack

247
Q

What folder holds 32-bit programs installed in a 64-bit installation of Windows?

A

C:\Program Files (x86) folder

248
Q

What file in the user account folder stores user settings?

A

Isuer.dat

Ntuser.dat

249
Q

What is the purpose of the C:\Windows\CSC folder?

A

To hold offline files and folders

250
Q

What is the purpose of the Windows.Old folder?

A

To contain files from a previous version of Windows 7 or Vista

251
Q

How can you delete the Windows.old folder?

A

Using a Disk cleanup tool

252
Q

By default, how often does Windows 7 automatically defrag a drive?

A

Once a week

253
Q

What is another name for a file allocation unit, which is used to hold parts of a file on the hard drive?

A

Cluster

254
Q

On what type of hard drive does Windows 7 disable defragmenting?

A

SSD, Flash Drive, or smart card

255
Q

What are two reasons to uninstall software you no longer use?

A

To free up space and better startup performance

256
Q

What is the filename and normal path of the Windows paging file used for virtual memory?

A

C:\pagefile.sys

257
Q

What type of storage media must be used to create a Windows 7 system image?

A

DVD or internal/external drive

258
Q

What two Windows utilities are used to create previous versions of files that can be recovered froma file properties dialog box?

A

Backup and restore, system protection

259
Q

Why is it important to not store backup of drive C onto another partition on the same hard drive

A

If the hard drive crashes, all data and both backups are lost

260
Q

What does Windows XP call a backup of the critical system files it needs for Windows operation?

A

System state data

261
Q

What is the %SystemRoot% folder as used in Microsoft documentation?

A

Where Windows is installed

262
Q

What Widows 7/Vista utility creates restore points?

A

System protection

263
Q

How can you delete all restore points?

A

Turn off system protection and then back on

264
Q

In what folders are restore points kept?

A

C:\System VolumeInformation

265
Q

Which dialog box can you use to manually create a restore point?

A

System Protection tab of the system properties box

266
Q

What is the difference between a file allocation table used by the exFAT file system and the one used by FAT32 file system?

A

exFAT is 32 bit wide, FAT32 is 64-bit wide

267
Q

List the steps to open an elevated command prompt window.

A

Start, all programs, accessories, right click command prompt, then select administrator

268
Q

In a command line, what is the purpose of the ? in a filename?

A

A wildcard for one character

269
Q

What is the purpose of the more parameter at the end of a command line?

A

To display output one screen at a time

270
Q

What is the command to list all files and subdirectories in a directory?

A

dir /s

271
Q

Using Windows 7 or Vista, What type of command prompt window is needed to run the Chkdsk command?

A

an elevated command prompt window

272
Q

When you want to use Chkdsk to fix file system errors and the drive is not locked, when does Windows schedule the Chkdsk command to run?

A

Next boot up

273
Q

What command is intended to replace Xcopy? Which Windows tool can you use to split a partition into two partitions?

A

Robocopy

274
Q

Which is more stable, RAID implemented by Windows or RAID implemented by hardware?

A

RAID implemented by hardware

275
Q

When you move a dynamic disk to a new computer, what status will Disk Management first assign the drive?

A

Foreign drive

276
Q

Which edition of Windows 7 allows you to install a language pack by using Windows Update?

A

Windows 7 Ultimate and Enterprise

277
Q

You are trying to clean up a slow Windows 7 system and discover that the 75 GB hard drive has only 5 GB free space. The entire hard drive is taken up by drive C. What is the best way to free up some space?

A

Move the /program files folder to an external hard drive

278
Q

Which is the best first step to protecting important data on your hard drive?

A

Back the data up to another media

279
Q

List four ways to start Task Manager

A

Ctrl + Alt + Del, right click on system tray, command prompt taskmgr.exe, Ctrl + Shift + Esc

280
Q

If a program is not responding, how can you stop it?

A

By selecting end task at the bottom of task manager

281
Q

If a necessary program is using to much of the system resources and bogging down other applications, what can you do to fix the problem?

A

Use the task manager to lower the priority level of the program

282
Q

How can you view a list of users currently logged onto the computer?

A

Task Manager, User Tab

283
Q

What is the program filename and extension of System Configuration?

A

msconfig.exe

284
Q

Which Windows 7 tool can be used to see a history of problems a computer has had since Windows was installed?

A

Windows 7 reliability monitor

285
Q

What too in Windows Vista, used to temporarily disable a startup program, is not available in Windows 7 or Windows XP?

A

Software Explorer

286
Q

If a nonessential service is slowing down startup, how can you permanently disable it?

A

Service.msc

287
Q

What should be the startup type of a service that should not load at startup but might be used later after startup? What tool can you us to set a service’s startup type?

A

Manual Startup, msconfig tool

288
Q

List three snap-ins that can be found in the Computer Management console that are used to manage hardware and track problems with hardware.

A

Device Manager
Disk Management
Task Scheduler

289
Q

What is the file extension of a console that is managed by Microsoft Management Console?

A

MSC

290
Q

Name the program filename and file extension for the Microsoft Management Console.

A

mmc.exe

291
Q

Which log in Event Viewer would you use to find out about attempted logins to a computer?

A

Security log

292
Q

Which log in Event Viewer would you use if you suspect a problem with the hard drive?

A

System log record

293
Q

Which three Windows 7 tools are contained in the Vista reliability and Performance Monitor?

A

Restore view, performance monitor, and reliability monitor

294
Q

What is the path to the Ntuser.dat file in Windows 7?

A

C:\user\username\ntuser.dat

295
Q

How is the Ntuser.dat file used?

A

It hold user settings when the user logs on

296
Q

Which registry key contains information that device manager used to display information about hardware?

A

HKLM/harware

297
Q

Which Windows 7/Vista tool can give you a quick report of the overall performance of the system expressed as a single number?

A

Windows Experience Index

298
Q

To improve Windows performance, you decide to disable the index used for Windows search. Will Windows search still work?

A

Yes

299
Q

What three indicators in Task Manager can be used to find which program has memory leak?

A

Working set, Handles, and Thread column

300
Q

What key do you press at startup to load the system in Safe Mode?

A

F8

301
Q

If performance improves when Windows is loaded in Safe Mode, what can you conclude?

A

a non essential system is the cause for slowing down the system

302
Q

If performance does not improve when Windows is loaded in Safe Mode, what can you conclude?

A

Possible problems with drivers, hardware devices or windows component

303
Q

When using MSconfig to stop starup services including Microsoft services, which service should you not stop so that restore points will not be lost?

A

Volume shadow copy

304
Q

In what folder does Task Scheduler keep scheduled tasks?

A

C:\windows\system32\tasks

305
Q

What are the two folder where, by default, Windows stores installed software?

A

Program files, Program Files x 86

306
Q

What must you do first before you can delete the program folder containing software that is running in the background?

A

Close the program and stop the services

307
Q

What is the purpose of the Wow6432Node subkey in the Windows registry?

A

It takes care of the differences between a 32 bit window and 64 bit window

308
Q

What is the name of the window used to uninstall software in Windows 7/Vista

A

Programs and features

309
Q

You need to install a customized console on 10 computers. what is the best way to do that?

A

Create the console on one computer and copy the .mmc file to the other 9

310
Q

What is the name of the program that you can enter in the search box to execute Event Viewer?

A

Eventvwr.msc

311
Q

When cleaning up the starup process, which of these should you do first?

A

Run the Defrag utility to optimize the hard drive

312
Q

Using Task Manager, you discover an unwated program that is launched at startup. of the following items, which ones might lead you to the permanent solutions to the problem?

A

Use Task Manager to disable the program

Chapter 1-11 (1 decks)

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