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Test 4 > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

If you’re going to interrupt a flight inspection, what would be the impact?

A

If a run is interrupted because the controller has had to break the aircraft off the approach, the run will not be valid, and the run will have to be repeated.

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2
Q

If you receive a request from the RPAS operating in the CZ and you were not aware of this request, what would you do?

A

Deny the request and refer the operator to the FIC, or responsible RPAS office

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3
Q

Standard space occupied by formation flight

A
  • maximum frontal width of 1 NM.
  • maximum longitudinal spacing of 1 NM between the first and the last aircraft
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4
Q

Are ELT 406 mhz in tower?

A

No

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5
Q

If you refuse a clearance request for reasons other than traffic:

A
  • Inform the pilot that a clearance cannot be issued.
  • Provide the reason.
  • Provide pertinent NOTAM(s) or directive(s) regarding airport conditions.
  • Request the pilot’s intentions.
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6
Q

Who are the 4 people that are authorized to deny taxi or takeoff clearance?

A
  • Federal, provincial, or municipal police officers, but not private airport police, members of the Corps of Commissionaires, or other private security officials
  • On-site security inspectors or safety inspectors from Transport Canada; off-site inspectors must make arrangements through the NOC
  • Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA) officers; CBSA officers must forward requests by American customs officers
  • Canadian Forces officers
  • Any person authorized by the state, such as a medical quarantine officer
  • Officers of the court
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7
Q

If workload or traffic conditions prevent you from providing Class D control service, instruct the pilot of the VFR aircraft to ….

A

remain outside the airspace until the service can be provided.

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8
Q

If a controller responds to a pilot’s initial transmission with “(ACID) STANDBY” can the pilot enter Class D airspace?

A

Yes

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9
Q

Define night

A

The period during any day that starts at the end of evening civil twilight and ends at the start of morning civil twilight

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10
Q

Define daylight

A

The period of time during any day that begins with the morning civil twilight and ends with the evening civil twilight

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11
Q

When an aircraft is departing from an arrival runway at night, in IFR meteorological conditions, or if it will not be visible from the tower:

A

Do not instruct the departing aircraft to line up on the runway unless take-off clearance can be issued within 3 mins from when that aircraft reaches the point from which the take off run will begin

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12
Q

Under what conditions may you authorize SVFR using tower observation of prevailing visibility?

A
  • ground visibility is not reported
    or
  • the visibility reported by the AWOS is non-representative of the prevailing visibility at the airport
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13
Q

SVFR conditions:
Fixed wing:
Helicopter:

A

Fixed wing: 1SM to less than 3SM
Helicopter: 1/2SM to less than 3SM

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14
Q

What operations can SVFR fixed wing aircraft perform at night?

A

Land

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15
Q

What operations can SVFR helicopters perform at night?

A
  • Depart
  • Transit the zone
  • Land
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16
Q

In the event of a discrepancy in AWOS information, you may permit operations to continue provided that you report it as an equipment malfunction and based on the following priority of observations:

A
  1. RVR for the runway of intended use, if applicable
  2. Accredited observations
  3. Tower-observed visibility
  4. The ceiling, runway visibility, or flight visibility as provided by a PIREP
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17
Q

When operating in SVFR conditions what must you not do in a control zone?

A

Do not vector, issue a heading to, or assign an altitude to a pilot of an SVFR aircraft

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18
Q

If an aircraft taxies onto the manoeuvring area when any visibility for the airport is less than RVR 2600 or ½ SM, complete an aviation occurrence report unless one of the following:

A
  • Taxi operations are permitted by unit procedures.
  • Visibility dropped below limits after the aircraft landed or after taxi authorization was issued.
  • An aviation occurrence report was already filed for this aircraft’s below-minima, low-visibility, or reduced-visibility landing or takeoff.
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19
Q

RVOP

A

Reduced Visibility Operation Plan:

A plan that calls for specific procedures by the airport operator and/or ATS when the reported visibility is less than RVR 2600ft or 1/2 SM to greater than or equal to RVR 1200ft or 1/4 SM

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20
Q

LVOP

A

Low Visibility Operations Plan:

A plan that calls for specific procedures by the airport operator and/or ATS when the reported visibility is less than RVR 1200 ft or ¼ SM

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21
Q

What are the abbreviations on PIREP or SIGMET for icing intensity?
- Trace:
- Light:
- Moderate:
- Severe:

A
  • Trace: TR
  • Light: LGT
  • Moderate: MDT
  • Severe: SEV
22
Q

What is the rate of accumulation for following icing conditions:
- Trace:
- Light:
- Moderate:
- Severe:

A
  • Trace: The rate of accumulation is slightly greater than rate of sublimation
  • Light: the rate of accretion may create a problem if flight is prolonged in this environment (over 1hr)
  • Moderate: the rate of accretion is such that even short encounters become potentially hazardous and the use of de-icing/anti-icing equipment, or diversion, is necessary
  • Severe: the rate of accretion is such that de-icing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard
23
Q

If the pilot of an IFR aircraft intends to depart and the ground visibility is below the applicable minimum takeoff visibility published in the CAP:

A
  1. Issue the reported RVR and the ground visibility.
  2. If traffic and airport conditions permit, issue the departure clearance, unless prohibited by local RVOP, LVOP, or runway certification.

Then, if appropriate:
3. If the aircraft takes off when conditions are below the CAP visibility minimum, complete an aviation occurrence report.

24
Q

When an IFR aircraft is inbound to the final approach fix and the RVR for the planned runway is less than 1200 ft:

A
  1. Issue the reported RVR and ground visibility.
  2. Request the pilot’s intentions.
  3. If traffic and airport conditions permit, issue the landing clearance, unless prohibited by local RVOP, LVOP, or runway certification.
  4. If the aircraft lands and the ground visibility is less than ¼ SM, complete an aviation occurrence report.
25
Q

Increased performance wind shear:

A

when an aircraft abruptly enters an increased headwind or a decreased tailwind

26
Q

Decreased performance wind shear:

A

when an aircraft abruptly enters a decreasing headwind or an increased tailwind.

27
Q

An urgent PIREP includes information on the following:

A
  • volcanic ash;
  • tornadoes, funnel clouds, waterspouts;
  • severe turbulence;
  • severe icing;
  • hail;
  • low-level wind shear; and
  • any other reported weather phenomena considered to be hazardous or potentially hazardous to flight operations.
28
Q

What can you do and cannot do for repetitive ground traffic operation?

A

Do not issue instructions that permit unrestricted movement of ground traffic on a controlled manoeuvring area, although, you may instruct ground traffic to operate on a single runway and specific taxiways.

29
Q

If you are relaying a braking action report obtained from the pilot of an aircraft, you must always include:

A
  • the type of aircraft
  • the time of the report
30
Q

Record a new ATIS message if any of the following occurs:

A
  • A new METAR or SPECI is received.
  • An applicable SIGMET, AIRMET, or PIREP is received, updated, or cancelled.
  • The altimeter setting changes by ± 0.04 inches or more since the last recorded altimeter data.
  • The type of IFR approach is changed.
  • A runway is changed.
  • An applicable NOTAM is received, updated, or cancelled.
  • A change in runway conditions is reported.
31
Q

When informed that an aircraft has been illuminated by a laser or other directed bright light, who must you inform?

A
  • Warn other aircraft operating in the same area
  • Advise the ACC shift manager
  • Advise local law enforcement
32
Q

If a pilot of a VFR aircraft reports that the aircraft has encountered or is about to encounter IMC:

A
  • Ask whether the pilot has an instrument rating.
  • Ask whether the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight.
  • Coordinate with the appropriate ACC to determine the required action
33
Q

TCAS

A

TRAFFIC ALERT AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM:

system to detect potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponders.

34
Q

RA

A

Resolution Advisory:

An indication given to the flight crew by the airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) or the traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) recommending a manoeuvre or a manoeuvre restriction to avoid collision.

35
Q

When you recognize an aircraft is operating int low/ unsafe altitude alert, what should you do?

A

Promptly provide pilots with safety alerts and avoidance instructions when required.

 o If an aircraft is at an altitude that is in unsafe proximity to terrain/ an obstruction, issue a low altitude alert
 o If an aircraft is in unsafe proximity to another aircraft, issue a traffic alert
36
Q

ESCAT

A

Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic:

The measures to be implemented by Her Majesty in right of Canada in accordance with the North American Aerospace Defence (NORAD) Command Agreement in the case of an air defence emergency

37
Q

Where there is a two-way radio communication failure between the controlling air traffic control unit and a VFR aircraft while operating in Class B, Class C or Class D airspace, the pilot-in-command shall:

A

a. leave the airspace
i. where the airspace is a control zone, by landing at the aerodrome for which the control zone is established, and
ii. in any other case, by the shortest route;

b. where the aircraft is equipped with a transponder, set the transponder to code 7600; and

c. inform an air traffic control unit as soon as possible of the actions taken pursuant to paragraph (a).

38
Q

Light gun signal meaning: Steady Green

Aircraft on the ground:
Aircraft in flight:
Equipment & personnel:

A

Aircraft on the ground: Cleared for take off

Aircraft in flight: Cleared to land

Equipment & personnel: NA

39
Q

Light gun signal meaning: Flashing Green

Aircraft on the ground:
Aircraft in flight:
Equipment & personnel:

A

Aircraft on the ground: Cleared to taxi

Aircraft in flight: Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at the proper time)

Equipment & personnel: Cleared to cross/ proceed/ go

40
Q

Light gun signal meaning: Steady Red

Aircraft on the ground:
Aircraft in flight:
Equipment & personnel:

A

Aircraft on the ground: Stop

Aircraft in flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

Equipment & personnel: Stop/ hold position

41
Q

Light gun signal meaning: Flashing Red

Aircraft on the ground:
Aircraft in flight:
Equipment & personnel:

A

Aircraft on the ground: Taxi clear of landing area/ runway in use

Aircraft in flight: Aerodrome unsafe; do not land

Equipment & personnel: Vacate the runway immediately

42
Q

Light gun signal meaning: Flashing White

Aircraft on the ground:
Aircraft in flight:
Equipment & personnel:

A

Aircraft on the ground: Return to starting position on the aerodrome

Aircraft in flight: NA

Equipment & personnel: Return to starting position on the aerodrome

43
Q

Unless otherwise known, obtain these things during emergency:

A
  • Aircraft identification and type
  • Nature of the emergency
  • Intentions of the flight crew
  • Position and altitude of the aircraft
44
Q

NC-SIS

A

the NAV CANADA Safety Information System used to record all non-routine events (NREs) that occur in a unit, whether they require an AOR or not.

45
Q

AOR

A

Aviation Occurrence Report(ing):

Reporting of accidents, incidents, and other occurrences in accordance with the Transport Canada Civil Aviation Daily Occurrence Reporting System (CADORS) and with NAV CANADA requirements

46
Q

An aircraft enters the uncertainty phase when:

A

No communication received from the earlier of either of the following times:
* Within 30 minutes after communication should have been received from an aircraft
* When an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made

47
Q

ATS OPERATING IRREGULARITY (OI)

A

A situation that occurs when ATS are being provided and when a preliminary investigation indicates that a hazardous situation or a loss of separation may have occurred.

48
Q

NON-ATS OPERATING IRREGULARITY

A

A situation that occurs when ATS are being provided and when a preliminary investigation indicates that safety may have been jeopardized, less than minimum separation may have existed, or both; and where it was determined that NAV CANADA ATS had not contributed to the negative outcome.

49
Q

Question 27:
Question 28:

A

Question 27: E
Question 28: True

50
Q

Who is responsible for ESCAT testing?

A

the National Operations Center (NOC)

51
Q

ATS operating positions will take the following actions during an ESCAT test:

A
  • Notify by landline/interphone the agencies identified in the fan-out procedures that there is an ESCAT test in progress by using the following phraseology:

ATTENTION—THIS IS AN ESCAT TEST. I SAY AGAIN, THIS IS AN ESCAT TEST.

  • The air traffic controller will forward the implementation completion time to the supervisor or unit manager for forwarding to the MACCO, who will then forward the completion time to the NAV CANADA NOC.
  • Aircraft shall not be grounded or diverted.
  • There shall be no test radio broadcast.
  • Radio communications shall not be interrupted
52
Q

When testing ESCAT, the following will occur:

A
  • NAV CANADA NOC will notify the ACCs.
  • ACCs will notify all appropriate Canadian civil and military ATS units within the boundaries of their domestic FIRs.

Test 4 (1 decks)

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