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1
Q

The source of antibody heterogeneity is:
a. gene rearrangement in the peripheral immune organs
b. gene rearrangement in the central immune organs
c. gene insertion in the fetus
d. hereditary mutation

A

a. gene rearrangement in the peripheral immune organs
b. gene rearrangement in the central immune organs
c. gene insertion in the fetus
d. hereditary mutation

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of acute haemolytictransfusion reaction?
a. bacterial contamination
b. ABO errors
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positivered blood cells

A

a. bacterial contamination
b. ABO errors
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positivered blood cells

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3
Q

. Regarding platelet transfusion, anti-HLA antibodiesplay a key role in the development of
a. posttransfusion infection
b. refractoriness to platelet transfusions
c. posttransfusion purpura
d. neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)

A

a. posttransfusion infection
b. refractoriness to platelet transfusions
c. posttransfusion purpura
d. neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)

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4
Q

Which is the most common type of genetic variantsamong blood group antigens?
a. frameshift
b. splice site
c. large deletion
d. single nucleotide polymorpisns (SNP)

A

a. frameshift
b. splice site
c. large deletion
** d. single nucleotide polymorpisns (SNP)**

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5
Q

Who should be deferred from blood donation?
a. Actually febrile donors
b. Persons just returning from the Zika-endemic areas
c. All of the above
d. Persons who disclose iv. Drug use

A

a. Actually febrile donors
b. Persons just returning from the Zika-endemic areas
c. All of the above
d. Persons who disclose iv. Drug use

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6
Q

Obligatory donor screening test in all developedcountries EXCEPT:
a. Lues ( syphilis)
b. Hepatitis B (Ag, Ab or both)
c. HIV
d. Hepatic enzyme levels (ALAT, ASAT) or serum bilirubin

A

a. Lues ( syphilis)
b. Hepatitis B (Ag, Ab or both)
c. HIV
d. Hepatic enzyme levels (ALAT, ASAT) or serum bilirubin

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7
Q

Which of the following are accepted definitionsof “massive blood loss”?
a. Blood loss of 150ml/min
b. Replacement of 50% of TBV within 3 hours
c. Transfusion rate units within a 24h period d. Replacement of 100% of total blood volume (TBV)within 24h

A

a. Blood loss of 150ml/min
b. Replacement of 50% of TBV within 3 hours
c. Transfusion rate units within a 24h period d. Replacement of 100% of total blood volume (TBV)within 24h

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8
Q

Platelets can be transfused regardless of donorRhD
a. a pregnant women with eclampsia
b. a young man aged 22
c. a woman of childbearing age
d. a twelve-year old girl

A

a. a pregnant women with eclampsia
b. a young man aged 22
c. a woman of childbearing age
d. a twelve-year old girl

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9
Q

The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM)..
a. is always harmful for the patient, because it isrelated to higher incidence of tumor recurrence
b. has no clinical significance since the universalleukoreduction has been implemented all over
c. Is always beneficial for the patient, because itis related to better graft survival
d. Can be either beneficial or harmful, dependingon the clinical situation

A

a. is always harmful for the patient, because it isrelated to higher incidence of tumor recurrence
b. has no clinical significance since the universalleukoreduction has been implemented all over
c. Is always beneficial for the patient, because itis related to better graft survival
d. Can be either beneficial or harmful, dependingon the clinical situation

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10
Q

The most common inherited bleeding disorder
a. factor XI deficiency
b. Haemophilia A
c. Von Willebrand’s disease
d. Factor VII deficiency

A

a. factor XI deficiency
b. Haemophilia A
c. Von Willebrand’s disease
d. Factor VII deficiency

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11
Q

The most likely source of Yersinia contamination of a red blood cell unit is
a. The skin flora of the donor
b. Transient asymptomatic donor bacteremia
c. Contamiation of the plastic bag
d. The skin flora of the laboratory staff

A

a. The skin flora of the donor
b. Transient asymptomatic donor bacteremia
c. Contamiation of the plastic bag
d. The skin flora of the laboratory staff

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12
Q

Advantages of the subcutaneous immunoglobulinsubstitution, EXCEPT:
a. Can be used in patients without available veins
b. Lack of local side effects
c. Results in higher IgG trough levels
d. Can be advantageous in IgA deficiency

A

a. Can be used in patients without available veins
b. Lack of local side effects
c. Results in higher IgG trough levels
d. Can be advantageous in IgA deficiency

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13
Q

MHC (HLA) class I complex
a. Is expressed on lymphocytes, dendritic cells andred blood cells
b. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells andred blood cells
c. Is expressed in all nucleated cells
d. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells andlymphocytes

A

a. Is expressed on lymphocytes, dendritic cells andred blood cells
b. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells andred blood cells
c. Is expressed in all nucleated cells
d. Is expressed on macrophages, dendritic cells andlymphocytes

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14
Q

The transfusion related immunomodulation (TRIM)is associated with
a. The living leukocytes transfused by the blood product
b. Soluble factors released during storage
c. Soluble HLA molecules
d. All the above

A

a. The living leukocytes transfused by the blood product
b. Soluble factors released during storage
c. Soluble HLA molecules
d. All the above

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15
Q

.Possible way to collect more plasma for fractionationthan whole blood donation
a. To collect more than 450ml whole blood from donors
b. Plasmapheresis
c. To increase the centrifugal force “g” for the betterseparation in the blood bag
d. Red cell apheresis

A

a. To collect more than 450ml whole blood from donors
b. Plasmapheresis
c. To increase the centrifugal force “g” for the betterseparation in the blood bag
d. Red cell apheresis

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16
Q

A person of unknown ABO/RhD type should be transfusedwith
a. RhD negative red blood cells and ABO fresh frozenplasma
b. RhD positive red blood cells and ABO fresh frozenplasma
c. RhD negative red blood cells and O fresh frozenplasma
d. RhD positive red blood cells and O fresh frozenplasma

A

a. RhD negative red blood cells and ABO fresh frozenplasma
b. RhD positive red blood cells and ABO fresh frozenplasma
c. RhD negative red blood cells and O fresh frozenplasma
d. RhD positive red blood cells and O fresh frozenplasma

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17
Q

Characteristic for intravenous immunoglobulinproducts; except
a. Contains stabilizer
b. 5 or 10% IgG concentration
c. Produced from pooled plasma of a few thousand blooddonors
d. High IgG aggregate content

A

a. **Contains stabilizer **
b. 5 or 10% IgG concentration
c. Produced from pooled plasma of a few thousand blooddonors
d. High IgG aggregate content

or C

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18
Q

Common donor eligibility criteria; except
a. Level of education (secondary school or higher)
b. Weight (eg. More than 50kg)
c. Defined hemoglobin level
d. Age (eg. 18-66 years)

A

a. Level of education (secondary school or higher)
b. Weight (eg. More than 50kg)
c. Defined hemoglobin level
d. Age (eg. 18-66 years)

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19
Q

The immunogenicity of a red cell antigen indicates
a. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions
b. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
c. Its frequency in the population
d. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibodyin an individual for the giv.

A

a. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions
b. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
c. Its frequency in the population
d. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibodyin an individual for the giv..

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20
Q

The window period of an infection is a time period
a. When there is a 100% safety that the person cannottransmit infections
b. When both antigens and antibodies reach their peaklevels
c. When antigens are already cleared but antibodiesare not produced yet
d. When the viral nucleic acids are absent

A

a. When there is a 100% safety that the person cannottransmit infections
b. When both antigens and antibodies reach their peaklevels
c. When antigens are already cleared but antibodiesare not produced yet
d. When the viral nucleic acids are absent

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21
Q

Which is the maximum benefit that can be expectedfrom a directed blood donation?
a. A family member with hepatitis can be identified
b. Higher safety compared to the general donor pool
c. The donating family member may become a regulardonor
d. Family members can learn more about their risksfor HIV infection

A

a. A family member with hepatitis can be identified
b. Higher safety compared to the general donor pool
c. The donating family member may become a regulardonor
d. Family members can learn more about their risksfor HIV infection

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22
Q

Commonly applied treatments in excessive menstrual bleeding caused by von Willebrand disease except
a. oral tranexamic acid
b. recombinant VIII factor products
c. haemate p factor replacement therapy
d. 3. Generation oral contraceptives

A

a. oral tranexamic acid
b. recombinant VIII factor products
c. haemate p factor replacement therapy
d. 3. Generation oral contraceptives

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23
Q

Passenger leukocytes are responsible for all ofthe following adverse events except
a. hemolysis
b. non-hemolytic febrile reaction
c. anaphylaxia
d. human leukocyte antigens (HLA) immunization

A

a. hemolysis
b. non-hemolytic febrile reaction
canaphylaxia
d. human leukocyte antigens (HLA) immunization

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24
Q

Benefits of autologous blood transfusion except
a. purity, no risk of transmitted disease
b. urgency, available also in urgent situations
c. safety, no risk of transfusion reactions due toincompatibility
d. availability in contrast with donor blood, autologousblood is instantly available and requires.

A

a. purity, no risk of transmitted disease
b. urgency, available also in urgent situations
c. safety, no risk of transfusion reactions due toincompatibility
d. availability in contrast with donor blood, autologousblood is instantly available and requires.

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25
Q

Which blood group is determined by a transferase
a. ABO blood group
b. KELL blood group
c. Duffy blood group
d. RhD blood group

A

a. ABO blood group
b. KELL blood group
c. Duffy blood group
d. RhD blood group

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26
Q

Indications for intraoperative cell salvage inadults and children except
a. major hemorrhage
b. patients with rare blood groups or multiple bloodgroup antibodies
c. surgery where the anticipated blood loss is < 20%of the patients estimated blood volume
d. elective or emergency surgery in patients withrisk factors for bleeding

A

a. major hemorrhage
b. patients with rare blood groups or multiple bloodgroup antibodies
c. surgery where the anticipated blood loss is < 20%of the patients estimated blood volume
d. elective or emergency surgery in patients withrisk factors for bleeding

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27
Q

Which is not characteristic for subcutaneous immunoglobulinsubstitution treatment
a. Systemic side effects are infrequent
b. Can be applied at home
c. Can be used only with infusion pump
d. ??

A

a. Systemic side effects are infrequent
b. Can be applied at home
c. Can be used only with infusion pump
d. ??

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28
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Syphilis can be transmitted by transfusion b. Transfusionrelatedbacterial infectionsaremoreoftenrelatedtoplateletproductsthantoredbloodcell transfuse…
c. Blood products with bacterial contamination donot always cause severe infections
d. Transfusion related bacterial infections and hemolytic reactions cause completely different clinical symptoms

A

a. Syphilis can be transmitted by transfusion b. Transfusionrelatedbacterial infectionsaremoreoftenrelatedtoplateletproductsthantoredbloodcell transfuse…
c. Blood products with bacterial contamination donot always cause severe infections
d. Transfusion related bacterial infections and hemolytic reactions cause completely different clinical symptoms

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29
Q

Transfusion associated graft versus host diseasecan be prevented by
a. leukoreduction of the blood components b. washing the red blood cells
c. freezing thawing of preparation
d. irradiation with a minimum dose of 25 Gy

A

a. leukoreduction of the blood components b. washing the red blood cells
c. freezing thawing of preparation
d. irradiation with a minimum dose of 25 Gy

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30
Q

The positive selection means
a. all macrophages are surviving in lymph nodes ifrecognizing self antigens
b. all macrophages surviving in lymph nodes if notrecognizing self MHC
c. All T-cells are killed in thymus if not recognizingself MHC
d. All T-cells are killed in the thymus if not recognizingself antigens

A

a. all macrophages are surviving in lymph nodes ifrecognizing self antigens
b. all macrophages surviving in lymph nodes if notrecognizing self MHC
c. All T-cells are killed in thymus if not recognizingself MHC
d. All T-cells are killed in the thymus if not recognizingself antigens

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31
Q

What is the most common cause of acute hemolytictransfusion reactions?
a. ABO errors
b. Bacterial contamination
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positivered blood cells

A

a. ABO errors
b. Bacterial contamination
c. Antibodies to the antigens of the Kell system
d. RhD negative patient transfused with RhD positivered blood cells

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32
Q

The optimal rate of blood donation activity (donation/inhabitants)
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 7%

A

a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 7%

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33
Q

The most widespread screening tests to preventtransfusion transmitted infections are:
a. PCR for hepatitis A,B,C,D and E viruses and anti-HIV
b. Anti-Hb’s, anti-HAV, zikavirus PCR, anti HCV, influenzaserology
c. HBeAg, anti-HBe, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, syphilis serology(VDRL), EBV PCR
d. HBsAg, anti HBc, anti-HCV, Anti HIV, HCV PCR, Syphilisserology (VDRL)

A

a. PCR for hepatitis A,B,C,D and E viruses and anti-HIV
b. Anti-Hb’s, anti-HAV, zikavirus PCR, anti HCV, influenzaserology
c. HBeAg, anti-HBe, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, syphilis serology(VDRL), EBV PCR
d. HBsAg, anti HBc, anti-HCV, Anti HIV, HCV PCR, Syphilisserology (VDRL)

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34
Q

The immunogenicity of a red blood cell antigenindicates:
a. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibodyin an individual negative for the given antigen
b. Its frequency in the population
c. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
d. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions

A

a. Its potency to induce the production of an alloantibodyin an individual negative for the given antigen
b. Its frequency in the population
c. Its vulnerability to proteolytic enzymes
d. Its potency to give marked in vitro reactions

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35
Q

Who discovered the ABO blood group system?

A

a. b. Karl Landsteiner

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36
Q

Blood transfusion for a potential organ transplant recipient…?
a…is contraindicated,becausetheimmunosuppressionamplifiestheriskoftransmissionofinfectionsbyblood products
b. …can be performed only by leukoreduced bloodproducts
c. …is obligatory before registration for a transplant waiting list,because the graft survival of all transfused patients is better
d…should be indicated after a thorough consideration, because the risk of harmful HLA sensitization or the potential graft survival advantage is not predictable

A

a…iscontraindicated,becausetheimmunosuppressionamplifiestheriskoftransmissionofinfectionsbyblood products
b. …can be performed only by leukoreduced bloodproducts
c. …isobligatorybefore registration for atransplantwaiting list,becausethegraftsurvivalofall transfused patients is better
d. …should be indicated aftera thorough consideration,because the risk of harmful HLA sensitization or the potential graft survival advantage is not predictable

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37
Q

Which of the following statements are true aboutvolunteer and paid donors?
a. Both types of donations carry equally high risk
b. Patients receiving blood products from volunteerdonors carry higher risk of transmitted infections
c. Patients receiving blood products from paid donorscarry higher risk of transmitted infections
d. In our days, both types of donations are completelyfree from infectious risk

A

a. Both types of donations carry equally high risk
b. Patients receiving blood products from volunteerdonors carry higher risk of transmitted infections
c. Patients receiving blood products from paid donorscarry higher risk of transmitted infections
d. In our days, both types of donations are completelyfree from infectious risk

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38
Q

The most frequent cause of serious lethal transfusionassociated adverse events:
a. Infections transmitted by blood transfusions
b.TRALI
c. Incorrect blood component transfused
d. Acute transfusion reactions

A

a. Infections transmitted by blood transfusions
b.TRALI
c. Incorrect blood component transfused
d. Acute transfusion reactions

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39
Q

What is the complication that is less likely ifHLA-match is perfect in hematopoetic stem cell transplantation?
a. mucositis
b. fungal infection
c. polyneuropathia
d. GVHD

A

a. mucositis
b. fungal infection
c. polyneuropathia
d. GVHD

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40
Q

What are the most important characteristics oftissue stem cells?
a. unlimited lifespan and plasticity
b. unlimited proliferation capability and plasticity
c. self-preservation and differentiation capability
d. unlimited lifespan and proliferation capability

A

a. unlimited lifespan and plasticity
b. unlimited proliferation capability and plasticity
c. self-preservation and differentiation capability
d. unlimited lifespan and proliferation capability

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41
Q
  1. Which therapeutic approach is inappropriate inpatients with common variable immunodeficiency (CIVD)?
    a. Subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution
    b. Interferon gamma
    c. Targeted antibiotic treatment
    d. Intravenous immunoglobulin substitution
A

a. Subcutaneous immunoglobulin substitution
b. Interferon gamma
c. Targeted antibiotic treatment d. Intravenous immunoglobulin substitution

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42
Q
  1. The most widespread screening tests to prevent transfusion transmitted infections are
    a. Anti-HBs, anti-HAV, Zikavirus PCR, anti-HCV, influenzaserology
    b.HBsAg, anti-HBc, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, HCV PCR, syphilisserology
    c. HBeAg, anti-HBe, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, syphilis serology,EBV PCR
    d. PCR for hepatitis A, B, C, D and E viruses andanti.HIV
A

a. Anti-HBs, anti-HAV, Zikavirus PCR, anti-HCV, influenzaserology
b.HBsAg, anti-HBc, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, HCV PCR, syphilisserology
c. HBeAg, anti-HBe, anti-HCV, anti-HIV, syphilis serology,EBV PCR
d. PCR for hepatitis A, B, C, D and E viruses andanti.HIV

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43
Q
  1. The primary immune organs are:
    a. Bone marrow and spleen
    b. Spleen and thymus
    c. Bone marrow and skin
    d. Bone marrow and thymus
A

a. Bone marrow and spleen
b. Spleen and thymus
c. Bone marrow and skin
d. Bone marrow and thymus

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44
Q
  1. The T-cell receptors are consisting of:
    a. Two variable chains
    b. One variable and one constant chain
    c. Two variable and two constant chains
    d. Four variable chains
A

a. Two variable chains
b. One variable and one constant chain (might be this)
c. Two variable and two constant chains
d. Four variable chains

check answer!!

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45
Q
  1. Which alleles are not inherited in a co-dominantway?
    a. RhD blood group: D and d
    b. Duffy blood group: Py-a and Py-b
    c. RhCE blood group: C and c
    d. ABO blood group: A and
A

a. RhD blood group: D and d
b. Duffy blood group: Py-a and Py-b
c. RhCE blood group: C and c
d. ABO blood group: A and

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46
Q
  1. Which type of transplantation has the greatest requirement of blood?
    a. Kidney
    b. Heart
    c. Lungs
    d. Liver
A

a. Kidney
b. Heart
c. Lungs
d. Liver

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47
Q
  1. Cross-match prior to kidney transplantation allows
    a. The selection of optimal immunosuppression aftertransplant
    b. The exclusion of donor related infections
    c. The prevention of hyperacute rejection
    d. The proper evaluation of recipient immune status
A

a. The selection of optimal immunosuppression aftertransplant
b. The exclusion of donor related infections
c. The prevention of hyperacute rejection
d. The proper evaluation of recipient immune status

48
Q
  1. The risk of transfusion related potassium toxicity can be decreased by
    a. Warming the RBC product to body temperature
    b. Freezing the RBC product
    c. Utilizing fresh (not older than 1 week) RBC product
    d. irradiation
A

a. Warming the RBC product to body temperature
b. Freezing the RBC product
c. Utilizing fresh (not older than 1 week) RBC product
d. irradiation

49
Q

50.Disease frequently causing platelet function alterations,
a. Uraemia
b. Paraproteinanemia
c. Hyperuricaemia (gout)
d. Liver failure

A

a. Uraemia
b. Paraproteinanemia
c. Hyperuricaemia (gout)
d. Liver failure

50
Q
  1. Risk of HCV transmission can be decreased by,EXCEPT:
    a. Leukoreduction (filtering)
    b) Application of centrifugation techinques for production
    c) utilizing early HCV seronegative donors
    d) deferreal of high risk donors
A

a. Leukoreduction (filtering)
b) Application of centrifugation techinques for production
c) utilizing early HCV seronegative donors
d) deferreal of high risk donors

checkk answer!!

51
Q

52.Expectation towards responding solution duringblood product generation
a) decreases protein content of the preparation
b) decrease allo- antigen expression of RBC
c) decreae WBC contamination by cell lysis induction
d) allow hematocrit adjustment

A

a) decreases protein content of the preparation
b) decrease allo- antigen expression of RBC
c) decreae WBC contamination by cell lysis induction
d) allow hematocrit adjustment

52
Q
  1. Indications for albumin support, except
    a) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    b) plasmapheresis
    c) severe burns
    d) nephrosis syndrome
A

a) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b) plasmapheresis
c) severe burns
d) nephrosis syndrome

53
Q

54.MHC (HLA) class ll molecules are expressed
a) Red blood cells
b) fibroblast
c) platelets
d) dendritic cell

A

a) Red blood cells
b) fibroblast
c) platelets
d) dendritic cell

54
Q

47.Anemia tolerance is independent of (NO IDEA.)
a. Age
b. The speed of anemia
c. Sex
d. The severity of anemia

A

a. Age
b. The speed of anemia … ??
c. Sex ??
d. The severity of anemia

55
Q

55.Options for living donations, Except:
a) genetic factors
b) emotional relative
c) donor with notarized contract
d) participant of a cross-over donation

A

a) genetic factors
b) emotional relative
c) donor with notarized contract d) participant of a cross-over donation

56
Q
  1. What is the mechanism by which mesenchymal stemcells enhance the regeneration of damaged tissue?
    a) synthesis of trophic and/or anti-apoptotic factors
    b) oxygen transport to the site of damage
    c) synthesis of pre-coagualation factors
    d) replacement of damaged cells of affected tissue.
A

**a) synthesis of trophic and/or anti-apoptotic factors **
b) oxygen transport to the site of damage
c) synthesis of pre-coagualation factors
d) replacement of damaged cells of affected tissue.?

57
Q

57.Primary function of the MHC (HLA) system
a) Apoptosis induction
b) facitliating cell-cell interaction thrugh bindingto integrin proteins
c) antigen presentation
d) activation of allo-reactive NK cells

A

a) Apoptosis induction
b) facitliating cell-cell interaction thrugh bindingto integrin proteins
c) antigen presentation
d) activation of allo-reactive NK cells

58
Q

58.The advantages of intraoperative cell salvages,except
a) low level of 2,3 DPG
b) lower risk for infectious diseases
c) functionally …superior. Cells?
d) Normothermic

A

a) low level of 2,3 DPG?
b) lower risk for infectious diseases
c) functionally …superior. Cells?
d) Normothermic

check answer

59
Q
  1. A potential donor should be deferred in case,except: a) of fever
    b) of a previous blood donation, 6 months earlier
    c) of realistic likelihood of IV drug use
    d) of pregnancy
A

a) of fever
b) of a previous blood donation, 6 months earlier
c) of realistic likelihood of IV drug use
d) of pregnancy

cut off 2 months for males

60
Q
  1. Potential cause of ineffective RBC transfusion,except?
    a) significant splenomegaly
    b) auto or allo immune hemolysis
    c) acute autoimmune disease
    d) continuous presence of blood loss
A

a) significant splenomegaly
b) auto or allo immune hemolysis
c) acute autoimmune disease
d) continuous presence of blood loss

61
Q
  1. Preferred safe donor population for blood donation
    a) foreign people (rare blood types)
    b) voluntary non-remunerated donors
    c) paid, repeat donors
    d) friends, relatives (for the safer donation)
A

a) foreign people (rare blood types)
b) voluntary non-remunerated donors
c) paid, repeat donors
d) friends, relatives (for the safer donation)

62
Q
  1. Appropriate therapy against citrate toxicity
    a) Potassium chloride
    b) sodium bicarbonate
    c) calcium gluconateOr calcium chloride
    d) calcium carbonate
A

a) Potassium chloride
b) sodium bicarbonate
c) calcium gluconateOr calcium chloride
d) calcium carbonate

63
Q
  1. the following technique for unstable blood productallows lower than 1 x 106 WBC/unit
    a) centifucation technique
    b) buffy coat technique
    c) apheresisis technique
    d) heat treatment technique
A

a) centifucation technique
b) buffy coat technique
c) apheresisis technique
d) heat treatment technique

64
Q
  1. in massive bleeding, the factor that the soonest reaches critical levels
    a) Factor v b) Factor Vll c) Prothrombin d) Fibrinogen
A

a) Factor v
b) Factor Vll
c) Prothrombin
d) Fibrinogen

65
Q

65.Regarding platelet transfusion, anti HLA antibodiesplay a key role in the development of.
a) posttransfusion purpura
b) neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (nAIT)
c) refractoriness to platelet transfusion
d) posttransfusion infection

A

a) posttransfusion purpura
b) neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (nAIT)
c) refractoriness to platelet transfusion
d) posttransfusion infection

66
Q

66.Which phenotype is caused by an inactive Abo glycocosiltransferase ?
a) AB
b) B
c) A
d) O

A

a) AB
b) B
c) A
d) O

67
Q

67.What is the minimal frequency of heart rate controlduring transfusion
68.a) Following the transfusion
69. b) Prior and after each unit transfused
70. c) Every 15 min
71. d) The frequency is dependent on the actual conditionof the patient

A

a) Following the transfusion
b) Prior and after each unit transfused
c) Every 15 min
d) The frequency is dependent on the actual conditionof the patient

68
Q

68.The person should be deferred from blood donation,except
a) Persons just returning from zika endemic areas
b) Actually febrile diseases
c) Regularly plasma donation
d) Persons who disclose IV drug use.

A

a) Persons just returning from zika endemic areas
b) Actually febrile diseases
c) Regularly plasma donation
d) Persons who disclose IV drug use.

69
Q

69.structurally carbohydrate blood group antigen
a) Kidd
b) HBO
C) H

A

a) Kidd
b) HBO
C) H

70
Q

70.Which autoimmune disease has the strongest correlationto HLA antigens?
a. Celiac disease
b. Familial hyperlipidemia
c. Hypercholesterolemia
d. …

A

a. Celiac disease

71
Q
  1. Put the key events in blood transfusion in order (fnd the alternatve where the following are arranged in the right order)
    a. Donor
    b. Recipient
    c. Outcome
    d. Product
    e. Diagnostcs
    f. Screening
A

Donor – Screening – Product – diagnostic – Recipient– outcome Donor -> product -> recipient -> outcome

72
Q

72.What is the HLA-Haplotype:
a) The group of HLA alleles physically linked on asingle chromosome.
b) Special characteristic of immature system cells
c) The collection of specific platelet antigens
d) Immunological signal transduction molecules linkedto each other.

A

a) The group of HLA alleles physically linked on asingle chromosome.

73
Q
  1. What is the disease that has a marked component of HLA association?
    a) Gastro esophageal reflux disease
    b) Pancreas carcinoma
    c) Coeliakia (gluten sensitive enteropathies)
    d) Familial hypercholesterolaemia
A

c) Coeliakia (gluten sensitive enteropathies)

74
Q

74.What is the approach to restore haemostasis aftera loss of 100% of blood volume?
A) Red blood cells + Fresh Frozen plasma + Factors(ll + Vll + LX + X + Fibrinogen +/- plateletsß ASMUCH SHIT AS POSSIBLE!
B) RBC + Factor (LL, VLL, IX, X, Fibrinogen)
C) Red blood cell transfusion
D) Red blood cells + fresh frozen plasma + platelets

A

A) Red blood cells + Fresh Frozen plasma + **Factors(ll + Vll + LX + X + Fibrinogen +/- platelets **ß ASMUCH SHIT AS POSSIBLE!

D) Red blood cells + fresh frozen plasma + platelets

maybe A maybe D

75
Q
  1. The source of antibody heterogeneity is: a) Gene insertion in the fetus
    b) Hereditary mutations
    c) Gene rearrangement in the peripheral immune organs
    d) Gene rearrangement in the central immune organs
A

d) Gene rearrangement in the central immune organs

76
Q

76.Common donor eligibility criteria, except a) Weight, more than 50kg
b) Defined hemoglobin level
c) Level of education
d) Age (18-66)

A

c) Level of education

77
Q
  1. In case of bone marrow failure, how much bloodshould be transfused?
    a) 1 bag of RBC per week
    b) 2 bags of RBC per week
    c) 1 bag per month
    d) 2 bags per month
A

a) 1 bag of RBC per week

78
Q

78.What is the difference between IgG and IgM? .

A

a. IgM cant cross placenta while IgG can

79
Q

79.Symptoms of TACO (transfusion associated circulatoryoverload) except:
a. Hypoxia (True)
b. Bradyarrhytmia(should be tachy cardia,
c. Jugular venous distension (True)
d. Dyspnea and moist sounds above lungs on oscultation

A

b. Bradyarrhytmia

80
Q

80.Sign of brain death (something like that.)
a. No corneal Reflex
b. Babinski sign
c. Loss of pain sensation
d. …?

A

a. No corneal Reflex

brainstem reflexes are missing

81
Q
  1. What is the function of the Rh on RBC?
    a. Protein that holds together RBC membrane
    b. ammonia and co2 TRANSporte
A

a. Protein that holds together RBC membrane
b. ammonia and co2 TRANSporter

82
Q
  1. When should we monitor blood pressure ..(in transfused patient).. nobody knows.
    a. 15min everino
    b. Before and after transfusion
    c. .
    . d. .
A

a. 15min everino
b. Before and after transfusion
c. .
. d. .

if they mention the minimum frequency , chose before and after transfusi

if not , maybe 15 mins is the answer

83
Q
  1. Who can undergo autologous blood transfusion, except:
    a. Above 45,
    b. Age >18
    c. Woman who was pregnant before ß this or d. .. ß that
A

a. Above 45,
b. Age >18
c. Woman who was pregnant before ß this or
d. .. ß that

dunno

84
Q
  1. What is synthesized by the endothelium?
A

a. Von Willebrand + NO + Signal Protein ERK5

if alternative its true

85
Q
  1. How much does 1 unit of RBC increase the HG levelapproximately?
    a. 1g/dl
    b. 10g/dl
    c. 1mg/ dl
    d. 10mg/dl
A

a. 1g/dl

86
Q
  1. Which transplanted organ needs the highest amountof O2?
    a. Heart
    b. Lung
    c. Kidney
    d. Liver
A

d. liver

check (c)

87
Q
  1. Which antigen is Carbohydrate (something likethat)?
    a. Kid
    b. Rh
    c. H
    d. …
A

c. H (H is the precursor molecule for AB antigens)

88
Q
  1. Most frequent main diagnosis for cadaveric ( deceased)donors Select one:
    Cerebrovascular attack
    Polytrauma
    Acute myocardial infarction
    Peripheral vascular disease
A

Cerebrovascular attack

89
Q
  1. Regarding platelet transfusion anti-HLA antibodiesplay a key role on the development of Select one:
    Posttransfusion purpura
    Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)
    Refractoriness to platelet transfusions
    Posttransfusion infection
A

Refractoriness to platelet transfusions

90
Q
  1. The most favourable donor population Select one:
    repeat donors with remuneration
    representatives of minority groups
    patient relatives, friends
    voluntary donors without remuneration
A

voluntary donors without remuneration

91
Q
  1. Important information in the history with respectto allo immunization Select one
    Previous pregnancies and their proceess
    Oonurence of autoimmune
    Number of siblings
    Occpation
A

Previous pregnancies and their proceess

92
Q

95.Whichof the followingsymptoms require urgent therapy for a patient with delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction ?
a. Mild jaundice
b. Shivering
c. Oliguria
d, A slight elevation of body temperature( 37.5℃)

A

c. Oliguria

93
Q
  1. Role of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa in hemostasis: Select one:
    a. Its deficiency causes Bernard-Soulier disease
    b. Binds fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet binding
    c. It binds von Willebrand factor allowing platelet adhesion
    d. It binds to subendothelial collagen
A

b. Binds fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet binding

94
Q
  1. Dynamic testing options of the coagulation system: Select one:
    a. Viscoelastic tests (TEG, ROTEM)
    b. International normalized ratio (INR), activated factorX levels
    c. Prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastintime (APTT)
    d. Fibrinogen, antithrombin III levels
A

. Viscoelastic tests (TEG, ROTEM)

95
Q
  1. Function of the Rh blood group proteins Select one:
    a. Complement inactivation
    b. Cell-cell contact receptor
    c. Gas transporter (transports CO2 or NH3)
    d. ATPase
A

c. Gas transporter (transports CO2 or NH3)

96
Q
  1. Complications with increased risk after the transfusionof long-stored (old) red blood cell concentrate,EXCEPT: Select one:
    a. Hyperkalemia, potassium toxicity
    b. Citrate toxicity
    c. Hypocalcemia
    d. Circulatory overload
A

d. Circulatory overload

97
Q
  1. Diagnostic tests to be performed on the cadaverdonor to facilitate transplantation, EXCEPT: Select one:
    a. Blood group determination
    b. HLA-typing
    c. Virus diagnostics: HIV, HBC, HCV testing
    d. CT-angiography
A

d. CT-angiography

98
Q
  1. What is the treatment of post transfusion purpura(PTP): Select one:
A

High dose IVIG (this is the 1st choice, other can be plasmapheresis and corticosteroids)

99
Q
  1. What can happen if you transfuse unwarm blood,EXCEPT: Select one:
    a. Hemolysis
    b. Cardiac arrest
    c. Poor coagulation
    d. Hyperkalemia
A

a. Hemolysis

100
Q
  1. What are the signs of hemolysis, EXCEPT: Select one:
    a. Hyperkalemia
    b. Hypocalcemia
    c. Acidosis
    d. Alkalosis
A

a. Hyperkalemia (release from IC store)
b. Hypocalcemia (dilution effect)
c. Acidosis (secondary to tissue hypoxia, lactate)
** d. Alkalosis**

101
Q
  1. Pathomechanism of hyperacute reaction, EXCEPT: Select one:
    a. Normal cytotoxic T cells
    b. IgA
    c. Complement
    d. Cytokines from macrophages
A

a. Normal cytotoxic T cells

102
Q
  1. MHC type I receptors are present, EXCEPT: Select one:
    a. Monocytes
    b. Platelets
    c. Dendritic cells
    d. Trophoblasts
A

a. Monocytes
b. Platelets
c. Dendritic cells
d. Trophoblasts??

not expressed on trophoblast, sperm cell, rbcs

103
Q
  1. Pathomechanism of transfusion-related acute lunginjury (TRALI): Select one:\
    a. Massive occlusion of pulmonary microvessels and causinglung damage
    b. Caused by the recipient’s antibody with mast cellactivation
    c. Neutrophil-mediated endothelial damage
    d. Activation of the cytotoxic T cell causing lung damage
A

c. Neutrophil-mediated endothelial damage

104
Q
  1. Consequences of traumatic massive bleeding, EXCEPT: Select one:
    a. Alkalosis
    b. Acidosis
A

a. Alkalosis

105
Q

108.What is the reason for post transfusion purpura?

A

Consumption coagulopathy

thrombocytopenia

106
Q

109.What are reasons for a coagulopathy to occur,except? (not exact words) hypokalaemia
thrombocytopenia

A

dunno

107
Q
  1. Potential complications of massive transfusion:
    Hyponatremia
    Hyperthermia
    Citrate toxicity
    Hypovolemia
A

Citrate toxicity

108
Q
  1. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) candevelop in the presence of
    a. A complement binding allo-antibodies
    b. Unaltereg IgA production capacity
    c. Intact cytokine reaction of macrophages
    d. Normal cytotoxic T cell function
A

a. A complement binding allo-antibodies

alloantibodies: developed due to previous exposure to foreign rbc antige

109
Q
  1. Characteristic element of the pathomechanism of post transfusion purpura
    a. impairment of platelet aggregation and release functions
    b. allo-antibody against platelet antigens
    c. increased consumption of clotting factors
    d. increased dilution of clotting factors
A

b. allo-antibody against platelet antigens

leading to consumption of plt

110
Q

The risk of transfusion related hemosiderosisis increased in
a. Beta thalassemia major
b. Hereditary hemochromatosis
c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobin
d. Hereditary spherocytosis

A

a. Beta thalassemia major

111
Q
  1. Which components are indicated for transfusionin case of 100% blood loss.
    a. RBC
    b. RBC + FFP
    c. RBC + FFP + coagulation factors II, V, VII, IX,X
    d. RBC + FFP + coagulation factors II, V, VII, IX,X + platelets
A

d. RBC + FFP + coagulation factors II, V, VII, IX,X + platelets

112
Q

What do you give to someone who needs 100% blood?
a. RBC
b. RBC + plasma
c. RBC + plasma +/- platelets
d. RBC + plasma + fibrinogen +/- platelets

A

a. RBC
b. RBC + plasma
c. RBC + plasma +/- platelets
d. RBC + plasma + fibrinogen +/- platelets

113
Q

126.approximate effect on hemoglobin level of 1 unit RBC concentrate in a healthy adult with average bodyweight without blood loss?
a. approx. 7-8g/dL
b. approx. 1g/dl
c. approx. 5g/dl
d. approx.2-3g/dl

A

a. approx. 7-8g/dL
b. approx. 1g/dl
c. approx. 5g/dl
d. approx.2-3g/dl

114
Q

What is the correct sequence of key activities in transfusion medicine?
a. diagnostics - recipient - outcome - screening
b. screening - donor - outcome - product
c. donor - product - recipient - outcome
d. product - donor - recipient - outcome

A

a. diagnostics - recipient - outcome - screening
b. screening - donor - outcome - product
c. donor - product - recipient - outcome
d. product - donor - recipient - outcome

115
Q

What is the primary goal of crossmatching prior to solid organ
a. to monitor and assure the viability of donor tissue
b. to identify donor-specific antibodies in recipientserum samples
c. to identify infectious viral particles in recipientserum samples
d. to prevent hyperacute rejection

A

a. to monitor and assure the viability of donor tissue
b. to identify donor-specific antibodies in recipientserum samples
c. to identify infectious viral particles in recipientserum samples
d. to prevent hyperacute rejection

transfusion (1 decks)

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