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Pharmacology > PHARMA: POST-TEST > Flashcards

PHARMA: POST-TEST Flashcards

1
Q

A patient is instructed to take two tablets orally on the first day and then take one tablet orally daily for the next four days. Select the term that refers to the instruction to take two
tablets by mouth on the first day.

A. Maintenance dose
B. Therapeutic dose
C. Loading dose
D. None of the above

A

C. Loading dose

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2
Q

The nurse administers 50 mg of a drug at 8:00 AM that has a half-life of 6 hours. What time will it be when 12.5 mg of the drug has been eliminated from the body?
A. 8:00 AM
B. 11:00 AM
C. 2:00 PM
D. 8:00 PM

A

D. 8:00 PM

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3
Q

Mr. James is a 56-year-old client with chronic renal failure. The nurse should recognize that this client will be at particular risk for which condition?

A. Rapid development of drug toxicity
B. Development of allergic reaction tO nephrotoxic
drugs
C. Slow development of tolerance for drugs
D. Need for increased doses of prescribed drugs

A

A. Rapid development of drug toxicity

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4
Q

When teaching a client on the effect of a MYDRIATIC
AGENT, the nurse explains that this drug will have what effect;

A. constrict the pupils
B. dilate the pupils
C. increase lacrimation
D. blurred vision

A

B. dilate the pupils

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5
Q

Which of the following statement describes the effect of “first pass” elimination:

A. drug metabolism may occur in the intestinal wall
B. sometimes extensive drug metabolism may occur
in the liver
C. the liver may excrete drug into the bile
D. first-pass effects may reduce drug
bioavailability

A

D. first-pass effects may reduce drug
bioavailability

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6
Q

Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated in:

A. Obstructive airway disease
B. Hypertension
C. Migraines
D. Pheochromocytoma

A

A. Obstructive airway disease

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7
Q

A 54-year-old woman recovering from abdominal surgery receives bethanechol a muscarinic receptor agonist. Which of
the following symptoms could be expected to be observed in this individual?

A. Dry mouth, abdominal cramps, and tachycardia
B. Mydriasis, bronchospasm, and flushed face
C. Miosis, diarrhea, and bradycardia
D. Constipation, increased sweating, and salivation

A

C. Miosis, diarrhea, and bradycardia

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8
Q

You start a patient in the intensive care unit on a drip of phenylephrine, as the patient is persistently hypotensive. Do you think that this will raise the patient’s blood pressure
because phenylephrine’s primary mechanism of action is which of the following?

A. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist
B. Beta-2 adrenergic agonist
C. Alpha-1 adrenergic agonist
D. Beta-1 adrenergic agonist

A

C. Alpha-1 adrenergic agonist

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9
Q

A beta 2 agonist that is used both for Asthma and as a tocolytic.

A. Salbutamol
B. Pindolol
C. Isosuxprine
D. Terbutaline

A

D. Terbutaline

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10
Q

What is the therapeutic effect when an antagonist drug binds to a muscarinic receptor?

A. It will cause a slowing or calming effect that dilates
the bronchioles and increases the heart rate
B. It will cause a slowing or calming effect that
increases secretions and decreases the heart rate
C. It will have an excitation effect that dilates
the bronchioles and increases the heart rate
D. It will have an excitation effect that increases
secretions and decreases the heart rate

A

C. It will have an excitation effect that dilates
the bronchioles and increases the heart rate

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11
Q

N.G. 34 y/o, soldier was complaining of weak eye closure and
diplopia for several weeks which persisted. She was brought to
the emergency room because she was dragging her right leg.
Initial diagnosis is Myasthenia gravis. To confirm the diagnosis,
the nurse prepares equipments for Tensilon Test.

  1. A positive test confirming diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis
    is:

A. Worsening of muscle function
B. Improved muscle function
C. Improved sensory function
D. Worsening of sensory function

A

B. Improved muscle function

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12
Q
  1. Myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis are the major complications of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is essential nursing knowledge when caring for a client in crisis?

A. Weakness and paralysis of the muscles for
swallowing and breathing occur in either crisis
B. cholinergic drugs should be administered to
prevent further complications associated with the crisis
C. the clinical condition of the client usually improves after several days of treatment
D. loss of body function creates high levels of anxiety and fear

A

A. Weakness and paralysis of the muscles for
swallowing and breathing occur in either crisis

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13
Q
  1. The physician has ordered Basalgel (aluminum carbonate gel) for a client with recurrent indigestion. The nurse should teach the client common side effects of the
    medication, which include:

A. Constipation
B. Urinary retention
C. Diarrhea
D. Confusion
E. Constipation

A

A. Constipation

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14
Q
  1. A client with a duodenal ulcer is diagnosed with H. pylori infection. The physician prescribed Amoxicillin (Wymox), Pantoprazole (Prevacid), and Clarithromycin (Biaxin). Which statement made by the nurse correctly explains the purpose of these medications?(understanding)

A. “These medicines will minimize acid production and will coat the ulcer”.
B. “These medicines will stop the acid
production and will kill the bacteria”.
C. “The ulcer will heal because the medications will kill the bacteria”.
D. “These medicines will control the ulcer and motion sickness”

A

B. “These medicines will stop the acid
production and will kill the bacteria”.

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15
Q
  1. ACE inhibitors work on the renin–angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
    Because this blocking occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of this conversion, use of ACE inhibitors often
    results in

A. spontaneous pneumothorax.
B. pneumonia.
C. unrelenting cough.
D. respiratory depression

A

C. unrelenting cough.

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16
Q
  1. A client who is prescribed an antihypertensive drug suffered an acute attack of asthma. Which of the following drugs should the nurse question if ordered?

A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-specific adrenergic blockers
C. Non-specific Beta adrenergic blockers
D. Angiotensin Receptor Blockers

A

C. Non-specific Beta adrenergic blockers

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17
Q
  1. A 44-year-old woman comes to her physician for a follow-up examination. On her previous visit she was diagnosed with
    hypertension and pharmacotherapy was initiated with metoprolol. In which of the following ways does metoprolol differ from the actions of propranolol?

A. Is used for the management of hypertension
B. Has some selectivity for beta2-adrenoceptors
C. Is less likely to reduce cardiac output
D. Is less likely to precipitate
bronchoconstriction

A

D. Is less likely to precipitate
bronchoconstriction

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18
Q
  1. Reduction in blood pressure can be achieved by reducing peripheral vascular resistance. Which of the following
    medications work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance?

A. Midodrine
B. Alpha-1 agonists
C. Hydralazine
D. Aspirin
E. Beta Blockers

A

C. Hydralazine

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is considered first-line therapy for patients with hypertension combined with abnormal kidney function?

A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Amlodipine
D. Atenolol
E. Spironolactone

A

C. Amlodipine

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20
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a relative contraindication to
    thiazide use?

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Gout
E. Anemia

A

D. Gout

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21
Q
  1. A 36-year-old woman comes to her physician for a follow-up examination. On her previous visit she was diagnosed with
    hypertension and pharmacotherapy was initiated with clonidine. The antihypertensive action of clonidine is due to an
    action on?

A. Beta1-adrenoreceptors
B. Beta2-adrenoreceptors
C. Alpha1-adrenoreceptors
D. Alpha2-adrenoreceptors

A

D. Alpha2-adrenoreceptors

22
Q
  1. A 51-year-old woman goes to her physician for a follow-up examination. She has a history of borderline ASTHMA for 5 years. Repeated blood pressure measurements over multiple
    visits average 148/102 mmHg and is diagnosed as hypertensive. Her physician prescribes a beta-adrenoreceptor blocking agent. Which of the following agents is NOT recommended for use in this patient?

A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Propranolol

A

A. Acebutolol

23
Q
  1. What do methylxanthine medications treat?

A. Bronchodilation
B. Excess secretions
C. Bronchoconstriction
D. Inflammation

A

C. Bronchoconstriction

24
Q
  1. How often do clients need to use their corticosteroid/long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) combination inhaler?

A. Only on days when they know they will be exposed to triggers
B. Only in an emergency
C. Every other day
D. Every day

A

D. Every day

25
Q
  1. Antihistamines are another group of drugs used for the relief of cold symptoms. What properties of these medications result in decreased secretions?

A. Analgesic
B. Anticholinergic
C. Antitussive
D. Cholinergic

A

B. Anticholinergic

26
Q
  1. At 11 p.m. a male client is admitted to the emergency department. He has a respiratory rate of 44 breaths/. He’s anxious and wheezes are audible. The client is immediately
    given oxygen by face mask and methylprednisolone IV. At 11:30 pm, the client’s arterial blood oxygen saturation is 86% and he’s still wheezing. The nurse should plan to administer:

A. Alprazolam
B. Propranolol
C. Morphine
D. Albuterol

A

D. Albuterol

27
Q
  1. A patient is receiving Aminoglycosides. The nurse understands that the action of this drug is by which process?

A. Inhibition of protein synthesis
B. Alteration of membrane permeability
C. Inhibition of bacteria cell-wall synthesis
D. Alteration of bacterial ribonucleic acid synthesis

A

A. Inhibition of protein synthesis

28
Q
  1. The goal of antibiotic therapy is

A. to eradicate all bacteria from the system.
B. to suppress resistant strains of bacteria.
C. to reduce the number of invading bacteria so
that the immune system can deal with the
infection.
D. to stop the drug as soon as the patient feels better

A

C. to reduce the number of invading bacteria so
that the immune system can deal with the
infection.

29
Q
  1. A bacteria may produce an enzyme identified as BETA-LACTAMASE, which can break open the beta-lactam ring
    resulting to inactivation of beta lactams, hence, ineffective. Anexample of a Beta-lactamase inhibitor penicillin is;

A. Clavulanic acid
B. Nafcillin
C. Amoxicillin
D. None of the above

A

A. Clavulanic acid

30
Q
  1. Nurse Kaye is to start Vancomycin treatment to an infant diagnosed with a bacterial infection. Because of the bulk of the
    patient, she unconsciously infused the drug too quickly. What side effect may possibly result?

A. Red Man Syndrome
B. Pseudomembranous colitis
C. Gray Baby Syndrome
D. Hypersensitivity Reaction

A

A. Red Man Syndrome

31
Q
  1. What antibiotic is associated with ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

A. Penicillin
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Tetracycline
D. Macrolides

A

B. Aminoglycosides

32
Q
  1. Nurse Pia is preparing Pencillin G in a syringe as ordered by the physician. She knows that she should not administer Pencillin if the patient is allergic to what drug due to cross
    allergy?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Clindamycin
C. Cephalosporins
D. Tetracyclines

A

C. Cephalosporins

33
Q
  1. A client is taking streptomycin. The nurse explains the nervous system side effects of this medication. The nurse correctly states that this medication causes damage in which
    cranial nerve?

A. Cranial nerve VII.
B. Cranial nerve IX.
C. Cranial nerve VIII.
D. Cranial nerve X.

A

C. Cranial nerve VIII.

34
Q
  1. Nitrates are commonly used antianginal drugs that act to;

A. increase the preload on the heart
B. increase the afterload on the heart
C. dilate coronary vessels to increase the delivery of
oxygen through those vessels.
D. decrease venous return to the heart,
decreasing the myocardial workload.

A

D. decrease venous return to the heart,
decreasing the myocardial workload.

35
Q
  1. Calcium channel blockers are effective in treating angina because they

A. prevent any cardiovascular exercise, preventing strain on the heart.
B. block strong muscle contractions, causing
vasodilation.
C. alter the electrolyte balance of the heart,
preventing arrhythmias.
D. increase the heart rate, making it more efficient.

A

B. block strong muscle contractions, causing
vasodilation.

36
Q
  1. A client who has nitroglycerin to avert an acute anginal attack would need to be taught. Select all that applies:

A. to take five or six tablets and then seek medical help if no relief occurs.
B. to buy the tablets in bulk to decrease the cost.
C. to protect tablets from light and humidity.
D. to store the tablets in a clearly marked, clear container in openview.
E. to use the nitroglycerin before an event or activity that will most likely precipitate an anginal attack.
F. to discard them if they do not fi zzle when placed under the
tongue.

A. A and B
B. B and C
C. C and E
D. D and F

A

C. C and E

37
Q
  1. Which of the following descriptions correctly characterizes the cardiac glycosides (e.g. digoxin)?

A. Positive inotrope, negative chronotrope
B. Negative inotrope, positive chronotrope
C. Negative inotrope, negative chronotrope
D. Positive inotrope, positive chronotrope

A

A. Positive inotrope, negative chronotrope

38
Q
  1. The patient receives warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse notes that the patients morning international normalized ratio (INR)
    is 7-. What are the priority nursing interventions at this time?

A. Hold the next dose of warfarin (Coumadin) and repeat the international normalized ratio (INR).
B. Administer protamine sulfate and hold the next dose of warfarin (Coumadin).
C. Hold the next dose of warfarin (Coumadin) and contact the physician.
D. Administer vitamin K and hold the next dose
of warfarin (Coumadin).

A

D. Administer vitamin K and hold the next dose
of warfarin (Coumadin).

39
Q
  1. A client is being discharged following treatment for left-sided heart failure. The nurse is teaching the client the purpose, actions, adverse effects and use of digoxin
    (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily and hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg, prescribed for daily use. Which statement by the client
    indicates that further discharge teaching is needed?

A. “I should decrease my intake of high-
potassium foods, such as bananas.”
B. “I should take my radial pulse before taking these medications.”
C. “These medications will cause an increase in urine output.”
D. “These medications should be taken in the
morning rather than the evening.”

A

A. “I should decrease my intake of high-
potassium foods, such as bananas.”

40
Q
  1. The patient receives an appropriate dose of warfarin (Coumadin), but the international normalized ratio (INR) is in the high range. The patient denies taking any aspirin products.
    What is the best assessment question to ask the patient at this time?

A. Have you been eating much garlic?
B. Have you been eating a lot of salads and
vegetables?
C. Have you been drinking too much milk?
D. Are you restricting your fluids too much?

A

A. Have you been eating much garlic?

41
Q
  1. Why is IV administration of dopamine an ineffective treatment option for clients with Parkinson’s disease?

A. The administration of dopamine will also cause the excess release of acetylcholine in the brain.
B. More dopamine in the brain will make the disease progression worse.
C. The blood-brain barrier will not allow for the
passage of dopamine into the brain.
D. The client’s body will metabolize the dopamine
before it can reach the brain.

A

C. The blood-brain barrier will not allow for the
passage of dopamine into the brain.

42
Q
  1. What is the benefit of adding carbidopa to levodopa??

A. Carbidopa pierces the blood-brain barrier to allow levodopa to enter the central nervous system.
B. Carbidopa binds to levodopa and carries it into the central nervous system.
C. Carbidopa inhibits peripheral DOPA
decarboxylase.
D. Carbidopa inhibits central DOPA decarboxylase to reduce side effects.
E. Carbidopa induces peripheral DOPA decarboxylase to increase peripheral dopamine

A

C. Carbidopa inhibits peripheral DOPA
decarboxylase.

43
Q
  1. Which type of Parkinson’s disease medications mimics the action of dopamine?

A. Dopamine prodrug
B. MAO-B inhibitors
C. Dopamine agonists
D. Acetylcholinergics

A

C. Dopamine agonists

44
Q
  1. The nurse is performing health education activities for Hanny Segovia, a 30 year old dentist with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus. Hanny is preparing a mixed dose of insulin. The nurse is satisfied with the performance when she:

A. draw insulin from the vial of clear insulin
first
B. draw insulin from the vial of the immediate acting insulin first
C. fill both syringes with the prescribed insulin dosage then shake the bottle vigorously
D. withdraw the intermediae acting insulin frist before withdrawing the short acting insulin first

A

A. draw insulin from the vial of clear insulin
first

45
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a hyperthyroid patient, and having a pulse rate above normal. The nurse would anticipate what doctor’s order?

A. Antithyroid
B. Iodides
C. Beta-Blocker
D. Ca GluconateBottom of Form

A

C. Beta-Blocker

46
Q
  1. A patient taking Tapazole reports feeling dizzy, intolerant to cold, and tired. On assessment, you note the patient’s heart
    rate is 45 and blood pressure is 70/30. What is the most likely cause?

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Antithyroid toxicity
C. Thyroid storm
D. Normal

A

B. Antithyroid toxicity

47
Q
  1. Lugol’s solution helps block ________ of thyroid hormones in thyroid storm. Which of the following are a common side effect of this medication?

A. release/ synthesis; taste changes
B. movement; hypocalcemia
C. excretion; swollen lymph nodes
D. the removal; low body temperatures

A

A. release/ synthesis; taste changes

48
Q
  1. Which long-acting insulin mimics natural, basal insulin with no peak action and a duration of 24 hours?

A. NPH insulin (Humulin N)
B. insulin glulisine (Apidra)
C. insulin glargine (Lantus)
D. regular insulin (Humulin R)

A

C. insulin glargine (Lantus)

49
Q
  1. What is the correct way to mix NPH insulin with Regular insulin?

A. Air to NPH, air to Regular, draw up NPH, draw up Regular
B. Air to NPH, air to Regular, draw up Regular,
draw up NPH
C. Air to Regular, air to NPH, draw up NPH, draw up Regular
D. Air to Regular, air to NPH, draw up Regular, draw up NPH

A

B. Air to NPH, air to Regular, draw up Regular,
draw up NPH

50
Q
  1. Which information should the nurse include in a teaching plan for patients taking oral hypoglycemic drugs?

A. Take your medication only as needed.
B. Explain dietary changes are not necessary.
C. Advise to avoid alcohol consumption.
D. Instruct that it is okay to skip breakfast 1 to 2
times per week

A

C. Advise to avoid alcohol consumption.

Pharmacology (3 decks)

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