Pathology Flashcards

0
Q

What is the main difference in the components of a forensic as opposed to a hospital autopsy?

A

Forensic includes scene investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the difference in hospital and forensic autopsies in requiring a permit?

A

Required for hospital autopsies

Not required for forensic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the main purpose of the hospital autopsy as opposed no forensic?

A

Hospital - document natural disease processes, answer clinician’s questions
Forensic - determine cause and manner of death, document traumatic injury, and report important natural disease, identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the confidentiality of a hospital vs forensic autopsy?

A

Hospital - confidential

Forensic - public record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is toxicology obtained in an autopsy?

A

Hospital - rarely

Forensic - always

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What components does a permit require?

A

Permission of legal next of kin

Signature of non-physician witness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the order of legal next of kin?

A
Spouse
Adult child
Legal guardian of minor
Father or mother
Next of kin (specify relationship)
Person assuming custody for burial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the criteria for classification as a medical examiners case?

A

Death within 24 hrs of hospital admission
Any death in police custody
Death of child under 6
Stillbirth when maternal drug use suspected
Death during or following medical procedure (usually w/i 24 hrs but depends on case)
Any death involving trauma - no time limitations
Suspicious or unexpected or unexplained deaths
Any death without physician in attendance (unwitnessed deaths)
Death occurring at a workplace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the definition of the cause of death?

A

Condition, defect, injury, or process that initiated patients demise
Doesn’t matter now long ago the change occurred
Includes part I - “due to” list and part II - contributing factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the manner of death?

A

Five different ones on checklist - determined by event that initiated death
Natural, suicide, homicide, accident, and undetermined
Only ME or coroner can sign death certificate for anything other than natural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the mechanism of death?

A

Physiological derangement by which death resulted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the four main techniques of organ removal?

A

Virchow - organ by organ, most common
Leutelle - en-bloc resection where everything removed together and subsequently dissected
Rokitansky - in situ dissection combined with biopsies
Ghon - distinct block organs - thoracic, abdominal, genitourinary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the benefits/utilities of the autopsy?

A

Examination of disease process
Answer clinicians questions
Detect infectious processes previously unknown
Identify diseases that might be hereditary
Answer questions regarding etiology of disease process
Teaching and education
Protect physicians from lawsuits
Study clinical therapies or treatment and its effectiveness
Quality management for hospital
Obtain tissue for research, education, and study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the limitations of the autopsy?

A

Good at finding structural defects but not functional
Limited in evaluation of electrolyte abnormalities, endocrinopathies, and some infectious diseases
Looks at single point in time - cant follow evolution of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the definition of SIDS?

A

Sudden unexpected death of an infant between one month and one year of age, with onset of fatal episode apparently occurring during sleep, that remains unexplained after thorough death scene investigation, including autopsy and review of history and circumstances of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the triple risk model of SIDS?

A

A vulnerable infant
External stressors (such as prone sleep position, hyperthermia, minor infection, smoke inhalation, drugs, disease or injury of unknown significance)
Critical developmental period in homeostatic control
Combo of factors might trigger cute cardiovascular collapse and sudden death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are parental factors that increase the risk for sudden infant death?

A
Young maternal age (<20)
Maternal smoking during pregnancy
Parental drug use
Short inter-gestational intervals
Poor prenatal care
Low socioeconomic status
African American and American Indian
17
Q

What are the factors in the infant that raise the risk for sudden infant death?

A
Prematurity or SGA
Male sex
Product of multiple gestational pregnancy
SIDS in prior sibling 
Antecedent respiratory infection
Prone sleeping position
Structural abnormalities in brainstem
18
Q

What are common findings on autopsy of asphyxial deaths?

A

Congestion of lungs

Petechiae on pleural surfaces, thymus and epicardium

19
Q

What are some common causes of asphyxial deaths in infants?

A

Prone sleeping position
Rebreathing
Co-sleeping
Mismatched mattress and crib size

20
Q

What are some common causes of sudden infant death (not SIDS) seen at autopsy?

A

Severe infection
Congenital heart disease
Fatty liver
Delayed development of arousal and cardio respiratory control - hypoplasia of arcuate nucleus in brainstem (ventral medulla)
Polymorphic variants in genes related to serotonergic signaling and autonomic innervation

21
Q

What are the six red cell blood groups in humans?

A

ABO
Rh (C, c, D, E, e) - + or - in relation to D
Duffy - Fy(a) and Fy(b)
Kidd - Jk(a) and Jk(b)
Kell - K, k
MNSs - antibodies to S and s more clinically important

22
Q

Why are low incidence antigens on blood cells not particularly dangerous?

A

Because the chance of activating a secondary response by having the same rare antigen in more than one transfusion is low

23
Q

What are alloantibodies?

A

Antibodies produced in response to stimulation by some foreign cell or substance
Recognize and bind to and often destroy patients own RBCs

24
Q

What is the most immunogenic blood group antigen?

A

D antigen in Rh system

25
Q

What are naturally occurring alloantibodies?

A

Antibodies that occur without known exposure to foreign red cells - most likely due to substances in environment that mimic structure of red cell antigens

26
Q

Which blood group antigens have naturally occurring alloantibodies?

A

A and B in ABO system

M and N antigens

27
Q

Which type of Ig are alloantibodies of clinical significance?

A

Virtually always IgG
Anti a and anti b are IgM
In group o people they are IgG

28
Q

Why is the ABO blood group system very dangerous in blood mismatches?

A

Intravascular hemolysis will occur
Complement fixing can set off coagulation & bradykinin cascades
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs
Small amount of blood can have huge effect
All patients at risk because of preformed antibodies

29
Q

How long does it take to see a primary and antibody response vs a secondary (anamnestic)?

A

4 (6)-12 weeks to detect antibodies
7 to 14 (3 to 10) days
RBC antibody production once stimulated persists for lifetime of patient

30
Q

Which antibody type is important in hemolytic disease of the newborn and why?

A

IgG because it crosses the placenta

31
Q

What does hydrops fetalis look like?

A

Swollen appearance of newborn

32
Q

Why do most cases of ABO mismatch between mom and fetus appear mild and easily treated?

A

A and B antigens poorly developed until first year of life

33
Q

Why is it generally only group O mothers who have infants with ABO hemolytic disease?

A

Because they have IgG antibodies that can cross placenta, IgM cannot

34
Q

What are the two exceptions to the rule that hemolytic disease of the newborn generally only occurs in a moms second pregnancy?

A

If she had a previous transfusion

Of the ABO system because of preformed antibodies

35
Q

What is the difference between a type and screen and a type and cross?

A

Screen - if need for transfusion uncertain

Cross - transfusion is certain

36
Q

What is an indirect antibody test?

A

An antibody screen for unexpected red cell antibodies
Looks for free antibodies in plasma or serum
Then more tests for specificity can be performed

37
Q

What is the direct antiglobulin test?

A

Ordered when immune hemolysis is suspected clinically
Positive when Ig or complement is BOUND to RBCs
If Ig positive can perform red cell elution and remove antibody and feat against known reagent cells to identify specificity

38
Q

What are the four settings when a DAT is ordered?

A

Work up of transfusion reaction
Newborn infant with jaundice
Suspected autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Work up of anemia of unknown cause

39
Q

What are the 3 limited situations where an indirect antiglobulin screen is ordered?

A

Part of transfusion ordering process
Routine pregnancy screening
Part of work up of autoimmune hemolysis

40
Q

What is the most likely case if you see “new” antibodies after only 7 days?

A

Not enough time for actual new ones

Most likely were at low undetectable levels before