Past papers physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Name the pancreatic exocrine hormone responsible for breakdown of

Proteins
Peptides
Carbohydrates
Neutral fat
Cholesterol esters
Phospholipids

q1

A

Trypsinogen
trypsin
pancreatic a amylase
pancreatic lipase
pancreatic lipase
pancreatic phospholipase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why do the pancreatic hormones not digest the pancreas itself?

q2

A

Enzymes are produced as pro-enzymes (zymogens) inactive form
Zymogens are stored in vesicles (zymogen granules)
Stored with protease inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name two other constituents of pancreatic juice

q1c

A

Water
HCO3
Sodium, potassoin, chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define neonatal hypoglycaemia.

q2

A

A plasma glucose level of less than 30 mg/dL (1.65 mmol/L) in the first 24 hours of life
and less than 45 mg/dL (2.6 mmol/L) thereafter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is this value of neonatal hypoglycaemia different compared to a 1-year-old?

A

At birth, there is an immediate increase in metabolic requirements, and oxygen consumption rises
Glycogen stores are exhausted by 3–4 hours in response to catecholamine secretion
after which the fat stores are mobilized with an increase in plasma FFA and glycerol concentrations
As premature babies have inadequate stores of glycogen, hypoglycaemia frequently occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List the two major endogenous sources of energy in the neonate

A

Glycogen
Fat (adipose tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List two non-pathological causes of neonatal jaundice.

A

Physiological jaundice (increased RBC load and immature liver function)
breastmilk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List four pathological mechanisms of neonatal jaundice.

A

Increased production of bilirubin
Decreased conjugation of bilirubin
Impaired excretion of bilirubin
Biliary obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

criggler najja vs dubin Johnson vs Gilbert

A

Gilbert Mildlylow UGTactivity;autosomalrecessive ↑UCB
Naja Absence of UGT highmortality ↑UCB
dubin Deficiencyofbilirubincanaliculartransportprotein;autosomalrecessive ↑CB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List 10 normal respiratory changes in the elderly.

A

Airway: no teeth, increased use of dentures and poor seal on bag mask
Pharnyx: Decreased pharyngeal tone, especially at night (asleep)
Thoracic cage: decreased compliance
Ossification of costal cartilage, kyphosis
Increaesed lung compliance
Degeneration of elastic fibres of the alveolar septae
Increased closing capacity
Increased FRC, RV
Flattening of hemidiaphragm
Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction reflex being less active
Reduced diffusion capacity of alveoli
Reduced alveolar surface area
Increased alveolar-capillary membrane thickness
Diaphragm and intercostal muscle atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 chemical components making up a DNA nucleotide?

A

Nitrogenous base
Pentose sugar
Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Briefly describe the cellular control of protein formation

A

RNA is produced as a copy of the DNA genetic code in the nucleus and exported to the cytoplasm
Messenger RNA (mRNA)
mRNA then leaves the nucleus and travels to the ribosomes of the rough ER, the protein-producing factory of the cell.
In the nucleus, mRNA is synthesized as a copy of a specific section of DNA (transcription)
Transfer RNA (tRNA).
In the cytoplasm, the 20 different types of tRNA gather the 20 different amino acids and ‘transfer’ them to the ribosome, ready for protein synthesis.
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
Within the ribosome, rRNA aligns tRNA units (with the respective amino acids attached) in their correct positions along the mRNA sequence.
The amino acids are joined together, and a complete protein is released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does apoptosis differ from necrosis?

A

NECROSIS: Cell death by injury/disease
▫ External triggers (e.g. infection, temperature)
▫ Internal triggers (e.g. ischemia)

APOPTOSIS
▪ Programmed cell death
▪ Based on caspase cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the role of lung macrophages in bacterial pneumonia in

A

Margination
rolling
adhesion
trnasmigrationandchemotaxis
phagocystosis
killing phagocytosed cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mechanisms in killing of bacteria

A

refer figure on question 5b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the space below draw and label a diagrammatic representation of 2 adjacent liver (hepatic)
lobules.

A

Also Indicate and label, on your diagram the area most at risk of
i) Ischaemic injury. (1)
ii) Toxic injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define and briefly explain the anaerobic threshold in terms of exercise physiology.

A

Lactate threshold/Metabolic threshold also called

At the Anaeroic Threshold, the rate at which lactate appears in the blood will be equal to the rate of its disappearance
Lactate levels will also begin to rise at this time as liver and other alternative lactate consumption sites become overwhelmed
The exercise intensity at which lactic acid starts to suddenly accumulate in the plasma.
This happens when lactate is produced faster than it can be metabolized
The lactate threshold occurs at about 50-70% of VO2 max.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which factors are involved in initiating a clot following vessel injury?

pages9 10 11 12 skipped

A

Tissue factor
Factor VIIa
Factor Va
Factor Xa
Factor IIa (thrombin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which factors are involved in the ‘amplification phase’ to increase thrombin production?

A

Va
VIIIa
IXa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Briefly describe the mechanism of clot stabilisation.

A

Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin monomer. Hydrogen bonds link fibrin monomers to form a
loose, insoluble fibrin polymer.
Factor XIII activated by thrombin and calcium stabilize the fibrin polymers via covalent bond
cross links

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the table below show the normal response for each of the following to mild hypothermia (36o C)
and severe hypothermia (30o
C).

A

refer toquestion 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In which part of the brain is the hypothalamus found?

A

It is located below the thalamus and above your pituitary gland
Ventral part of the diencephalon

23
Q

List the releasing factors for anterior pituitary hormones secreted by the hypothalamus.

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
Thyrotropin releasing Hormone (TRH)
Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
Growth-hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
Somatostatin
Dopamine

24
Q

Name the hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary.

A

ADH
OXYTOCIN

25
Q

Where in the hypothalamus do the hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary originate?

A

They originate in the hypothalamus (supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei)
They are packaged into tiny vesicles and transported to the posterior lobe through nerve axons
and stored in granules within the nerve terminals
It is located below the thalamus and above your pituitary gland
Ventral part of the diencephalon
“Direct neural connections”
paraventricular CRH TRH SST
arcuate DA GHRH
preoptic region GNRH

26
Q

Binding of this immunoglobin to the surface of which cells, results in the release of histamine
and eosinophilic chemotactic factors?

A

Basophils
Mast cells
Eosinophils

27
Q

Name five other chemical mediators that are subsequently synthesised.

A

Histamine
Kinins
Leukotrienes
Prostaglandins
Basophil kallikrein (BK-A)
serotonin
platelet activating factor

28
Q

What is the name of the cutaneous response to anaphylaxis?

A

Urticaria (Angioedema)

29
Q

What is the fundamental difference between anaphylaxis and anaphylactoid reactions?

A

Anaphylactoid reactions are not the result of an interaction with IgE (not dependent on IgE antibody interaction)
Direct activation of complement and IgG mediated complement activation can result in similar inflammatory
mediator and release

30
Q

Define neuropathic pain

2017 June physio

A

Pain caused by a lesion or disease of the somatosensory nervous system

31
Q

List 2 examples of neuropathic pain involving the peripheral nervous system.

A

Diabetic neuropathy
Infections (herpes zoster)
Invasion by cancer

32
Q

List 2 examples of neuropathic pain involving the central nervous system.

A

Multiple sclerosis
Spinal cord injury
Post stroke pain

33
Q

1.

Tabulate 3 differences between neuropathic pain and nociceptive pain.

A

NEUROPATHIC PAIN
Abnormal/Damaged nerve
Abnormal sensations (paraesthesia, allodynia)
Episodic pain (electric shock or burning pain)

NOCICEPTIVE PAIN
Normal nerve function
Sharp or aching
Caused by tissue damage
Noxious stimuli present

34
Q

What is the mechanism of action of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) in the
treatment of neuropathic pain?

A

Segmental inhibition of pain (gate control theory)
Electrical stimulation of A delta fibres using skin electrodes reduces pain intensity in some patients

35
Q

List 2 functions of each of the following vitamins

Vitamin D
B7 biotin
B12 cobalamin

A

Vit D
Promotes bone mineralization
Increase plasma calcium and phosphate concentration

B7 biotin
Essential for hair and nail growth
Helps body metabolise glucose, proteins and fats
CO2 carrier for carboxylase enzymes

B12 cobalamin
Nucleic acid synthesis
Maturation of red blood cells
Integrity of myelin

36
Q

Why is PaO2 in a full term pregnant lady elevated?

A

Minute ventilation increases by 50%, effect of progesterone causing hyperventilation
Hyperventilation therefore increases PAO2 due to the alveolar gas equation.

37
Q

List 4 functions of the placenta.

A

1Exchange of nutrients between foetal and maternal circulations
Supply of glucose, oxygen, amino acids
2Excretion/Elimination of CO2, urea, creatinine, uric acid
3.Endocrine
Producing peptide and steroid hormones
B-hCG, HPL, Oestrogen, Progesterone
4.Immunological
Immune tolerance attributed to the placenta

38
Q

List 2 characteristics that affect the rate of transport across the placenta.

A

Concentration gradient
Molecular size

39
Q

What is the mechanism of Nitrous oxide mediated deficiency of Vitamin B12 .

A

Inhibition of methionine synthetase and thymidylate synthetase which leads to diminished
hydrofolate synthesis and a decrease in DNA formation

40
Q

What is the quantitative daily threshold which distinguishes macro- and micro-minerals

A

100mg/day

41
Q

Give an example of a micro-mineral.

A

Iron, zinc, copper, manganese, iodine, selenium

42
Q

Using the table below list 4 differences between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle.

A

Smooth muscle
1.involuntary
2.Innervated by autonomic nervous system
3.Spindle shaped
4.One centrally located nucleus

Skeletal muscle
1.Voluntary
2.Innervated by the somatic nervous system
3.Long, cylindrical, striated
4.Multiple nucleus

43
Q

Briefly outline the mechanism by which nitric oxide affects smooth muscle activity.

A

please refer page 23

44
Q
A
45
Q

List 3 functions of red blood cells

A

1.Acts as an oxygen carrier, removed CO2 from tissues
2.Acts as a buffer (Histidine side chains act as a buffer by binding H+ ions
3.Deoxyhaemoglobin is better able to bind to H+ than oxyhaemoglobin (Haldane effect)

46
Q

Mature erythrocytes are biconcave discs. Describe the significance of this.

A

It allows the membrane to have a high surface area to volume (SAV) ratio
This facilitates gas exchange
Facilitating large reversible elastic deformation of the RBC while squeezing through the tiny capillaries.

47
Q

How does erythrocyte generate energy?

A

Generate ATP by the anaerobic glycolytic (Embden–Meyerhof) pathway for energy
Produces two molecules of ATP for each molecule of glucose, which is metabolized to lactate

48
Q

What is the direct anti-globulin test and what is it used for?

A

Detection of antibody or complement on the red blood cells that have been sensitized
in the patient’s body (in vivo sensitization).
Used to test for haemolytic diseases
Also called Coombs test

49
Q

List 5 hepatic functions with an example of each.

January 2018 physio

A

Metabolic -Glycolysis, Gluconeogenesis, Glycogenesis, Glycogenolysis
Lipolysis (Beta Oxidation), Lipid Synthesis (cholesterol, triglyceride) Lipid Processing (lipoproteins)
Deamination, Urea formation, Amino acid synthesis (ketoacids), protein synthesis (plasma protien)
Synthetic: Plasma proteins (albumin), coagulation factors,

50
Q

Describe the hepatic arterial buffer response.

A

Metabolic -Glycolysis, Gluconeogenesis, Glycogenesis, Glycogenolysis
Lipolysis (Beta Oxidation), Lipid Synthesis (cholesterol, triglyceride) Lipid Processing (lipoproteins)
Deamination, Urea formation, Amino acid synthesis (ketoacids), protein synthesis (plasma protien)
Synthetic: Plasma proteins (albumin), coagulation factors, serine protease inhibitor)
Endocrine (Activation of vitamin D)
Immunological (Phagocytosis-kuppfer cells, synthesis of proteins
Exocrine (Bile secretion)
Pharmacokinetic/Metabolism (Drug metabolism)

51
Q

Describe the hepatic arterial buffer response.

A

Semi-reciprocal interrelationship between hepatic artery and portal vein
Decrease in portal venous flow = decrease in hepatic artery resistance (increased flow)
Decreased hepatic artery blood flow = little change in portal blood flow (no autoregulation)
Due to chemical mediator (adenosine) resulting in vasodilation
Increase in hepatic venous pressure = increase in in hepatic arterial resistan

52
Q
A
53
Q
A