PARCIAL 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When a patient arrives… What is the first thing you do?

A

OBSERVE

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2
Q

The doctor makes the decisions for the patient.

A

Paternalistic model

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3
Q

The patient makes the decisión. The doctor only provides the information, he does not influence the decisión making

A

Information model:

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4
Q

The Dr. Helps decisión making by accompaning the patient, but not influencing the final decision

A

Interpretive model:

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5
Q

Deliverative model:

A

Shared decisión making. Colaboration

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6
Q

What is the Scale to asses the risk of a patient to treatment?

A

ASA

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7
Q

ASA 1

A

HEALTHY PX

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8
Q

ASA II

A

PX WITH MILD SYSTEMIC DISEASE

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9
Q

ASA III

A

PX WITH SEVERE DISEASE THAT LIMITS ACTIVITY

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10
Q

ASA IV

A

PX WITH SEVERE INCAPACITATING SYSTEMIC DISEASE THAT THREATHS THEIR LIFE

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11
Q

ASA V

A

MORIBUND PX NOT EXPECTED TO SURVIVE PASSING 24 HRS

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12
Q

MENTION THE COMPONENTS OF THE MEDICAL CLINICAL HISTORY

A
  1. ANAMNESIS
  2. PHYSICAL EXAMINATION
  3. DX EXAMS & DIFERENTIAL DX
  4. TREATMENT PLAN
  5. ASSESSMENT
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13
Q

Mention the 7 components of the ANAMNESIS

A
  1. FILIATION
  2. REASON FOR CONSULTATION
  3. HEREDITARY FAMILY HISTORY
  4. PATHOLOGICAL PERSONAL HISTORY
  5. NON-PATHOLOGICAL PERSONAL HISTORY
  6. CURRENT CONDITION
  7. INTERROGATION BY BODY SYSTEMS
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14
Q

What scale can we use to assess the risk of an integral patient?

A

ASA

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15
Q

The doctor makes the decisions for the patient.

A

Paternalistic model

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16
Q

The patient makes the decisión. The doctor only provides the information, he does not influence the decisión making

A

Information model

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17
Q

The Dr. Helps decisión making by accompaning the patient, but not influencing the final decision

A

Interpretive model

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18
Q

Shared decisión making. Colaboration

A

Deliverative model

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19
Q

When a patient arrives… What is the first thing you do?

A

OBSERVE

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20
Q

MENTION IN ORDER THE COMPONENTS OF A CLINICAL HISTORY

A
  1. ANAMNESIS
  2. PHYSICAL EXAMINATION
  3. DX EXAMS & DIFERENTIAL DX
  4. TREATMENT PLAN
  5. ASSESSMENT
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21
Q

set of administrative and care activities that define the referral of the user from a minor health facility to another with greater resolution capacity and the counter-referral of this to their facility of origin, in order to ensure continuity of atention and care of your health

A

REFERENCE AND COUNTER REFERENCE

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22
Q

It is the request for dx evaluation and/or treatment of a patient referred from a health facility with less problem-solving capacity to another with greater capacity, in order to ensure the continuity of service provision. (RESPONSABILITY TRANSFERRED)

A

REFERENCE/REFERRAL

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23
Q

It is the response of the specialist, addressed to the professional of the establishment or Clinical Service of origin of the patient, regarding the interconsultation requested. Px is returned to the establishment of origin

A

Counter reference

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24
Q

Consists of communication between 2 people with different areas of expertise

A

Inteconsultation

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25
Q

In which format is captured the minimum criteria for an interconsultation document?

A

PSOAP

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26
Q

When referring a px, what does the dr needs?

A
  • Anamnesis
  • Physical exam
  • complementary exams
    -Dx impression
  • Tx used
  • Case evolution
  • Reason for being sent
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27
Q

It must be prepared by medical personnel and other professionals in the health area, according to the specific information needs of each one of them and the norm

A

CLINICAL HISTORY- NORMA 004 SSA3 2012

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28
Q

It is the set of data obtained from the general inspection, that is to say, with the naked eye without performing any other physical examination maneuver without any interrogation. It is also defined as the external appearance of the patient

A

External habitus

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29
Q

Set of procedures and maneuvers that are carried out within the clinical history with the aim of obtaining data or signs that are related to the symptoms reported by the patient and helps guide complementary studies to obtain a correct diagnosis

A

Physical exploration

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30
Q

Process that is executed through the interrogation to collect patient information such as: History, signs and symptoms, devices and systems, in order to analyze the clinical situation with these data.

A

anamnesis

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31
Q

which are the elements of a diagnostic method?

A
  • interrogation
  • Physical examination
  • complementary studies
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32
Q

The physical examination should contain:

A
  • outer habitus
  • Vital signs
  • Weight and height
  • Data of head, neck, thorax, abdomen, etc.
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33
Q

What is the structure of a clinical history?

A
  1. Anamnesis
  2. Physical examination
  3. Previous results
  4. Diagnosis
  5. Therapeutic indication
  6. Forecast
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34
Q

Set of physiological variables frequently taken by health professionals to assess the most basic bodily functions.

A

Vital signs

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35
Q

Blood pressure should be
(vital signs values)

A

120/80mmHG

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36
Q

The pulse heart rate should be (vital signs)

A

60-80bpm

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37
Q

The respiratory rate should be (vital signs)

A

12-18rpm

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38
Q

what’s the normal values of temperature

A

36.2º - 37.2º

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39
Q

Which are the 4 basic techniques of clinical examination are

A
  1. Inspection
  2. auscultation
  3. percussion
  4. palpation
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40
Q

They contribute to complementing the information to assess suspicious or pre-existing conditions and establish diagnoses.

A

Complementary studies

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41
Q

Mention 5 complementary studies

A

panoramic rx
studio models
dx wax up
lab tests
clinical photography

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42
Q

surgical procedure aimed at obtaining tissue from a living organism, for microscopic study, basically for diagnostic purposes.

A

Biopsy

43
Q

Mention some one of the indications for making a biopsy

A

dx of potentially malignant lesions

44
Q

It is an evaluation model used in all new px and in the control or monitoring of those who have undergone extensive or complex rehabilitation procedures

A

Comprehensive evaluation

45
Q

It is an evaluation performed during the control and follow-up of discharged patients who have undergone simple dental treatment, in dental emergencies, in massive population studies or when it is required to determine a single condition. This form of evaluation, which is not without quality because it is brief,

A

abbreviated assessment

46
Q

the study and interpretation of the characteristics of the cells that naturally or artificially slough off the oral mucosa.
It consists of observing under the microscope the morphology of the superficial epithelial cells after their collection, fixation and staining

A

Oral Exfoliative cytology

47
Q

which is the fixative of choice for most of the samples that are processed in oral pathology.

A

Formaldehyde 10%

48
Q

mention 3 vitamins or supplements pregnant women must increase:

A
  • calcium
  • folic acid
  • vitamin b6
49
Q

Nutritional tools for risk assessment

A

MNA

50
Q

It consists of 18 questions and ……. for the assessment of nutritional status

A

MNA

51
Q

Which diseases are the leading cause of mortality worldwide (30%)

A

Cardiovasculars

52
Q

Who is a patient with cardiovascular risk referred to?

A

Cardiologist

53
Q

It consists of 18 question…… nutritional status

A

MNA

54
Q

Mention 5 risk factors for development of cardiovascular diseases

A
  • Hypertension
  • Age: men over 55 and women over 65
  • Mellitus diabetes
  • High levels of cholesterol
    *Obesity
55
Q

microbial infection, in most cases of bacterial origin, of the endocardium.

A

Infective endocarditis

56
Q

What is the prevention protocol for the infective endocarditis?

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis

57
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for dental procedures is recommended only in patients with

A

cardiac- related conditions at very high risk of adverse consequences of endocarditis

58
Q

Dental procedures for which prophylaxis is recommended

A

any procedure in which involves bleeding

59
Q

When and what dose is recommended for adults of antibiotic prophylaxis

A

Amoxiciline 2g uni dosis 30-60 min before the procedure

60
Q

When and what dose is recommended for adults of antibiotic prophylaxis of patients alergic to peniciline or ampicilines

A

Clindamicine 600 mg
or
Cefalexina 2g

61
Q

When and what dose is recommended for kids of antibiotic prophylaxis

A

50 mg Amoxiciline

62
Q

What is the option for px who CAN’T tolerate medicaments by oral intake

A

Ampiciline 2g

63
Q

are structural malformations of the heart and great vessels that are present at birth.

A

congenital heart disease

64
Q

Why is it important the leukocyte count for a protocol of tx of a congenital heart disease

A

there may be infection if they are very low and antibiotics may be indicated in surgical procedures.

65
Q

is almost always due to decreased blood flow through the coronary arteries.

A

Myocardial ischemia

66
Q

Clinical-dental protocol in patients with stable angina pectoris or a history of myocardial infarction (6 months or more):

A
  • shorts consultations through the day
  • chair in semi-supine position
  • nitroglycerin to use if necessary
67
Q

patients with stable angina pectoris or a history of myocardial infarction should avoid ____ due to the tachycardia they produce

A

anticholinergic drugs (scopolamine or atropine)

68
Q

Deficiency relationated with severity of periodontal disease

A

Vitamin C and folic acid deficiency

69
Q

Importants nutrients for Good oral health

A

Calcium, Vitamin D and fluoride

70
Q

establishes the architectural characteristics to facilitate the access, transit, use and permanence of people with disabilities in establishments for outpatient and hospital medical care of the National Health System.

A

NOM-030-SSA3

71
Q

what do we look for when making a physical examination

A

exterious habitus, vital signs

72
Q

what do we give to a patient when it has chest pain during consultation

A

nitroglycerin

73
Q

What dose of nitroglycerin tablet is used for the emergency protocol in case of chest pain in consultation

A

.4 to .8mg of nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue it is also necessary to administer oxygen

74
Q

If the chest pain isn’t relieved after giving 3 nitroglycerin tablets in 5 mins intarvals between each one or if the px becomes unstable at anytime

A

call 911 for immediate transport to an emergency unit.

75
Q

In patients with severe arrhytmias what kind of anesthetic we must use?

A

Long-acting anesthetic WITHOUT EPINEPHRINE AND NO MORE THAN 2 CARTRIDGES OF ANESTHETIC

76
Q

vitamins related with the periodontum

A

C and k

77
Q

Patients with unstable angina pectoris or recent myocardial infarction should use and intravenous benzodiazepine such as

A

midazolam

78
Q

are all heart rhythm disorders caused by alterations in the formation and/or conduction of the electrical impulse of the heart.

A

Cardiac arrhythmias

79
Q

pathological noises that are due to vibrations produced by turbulent blood flow.

A

Heart murmurs

80
Q

the heart is unable to meet the metabolic demands of the body or manages to do so, but based on increasing filling pressures.

A

Heart failure (HF)

81
Q

In class III and IV patients of heat failure

A

avoid the use of vasoconstrictors

82
Q

Coagulation exams

A

INR and TPT

83
Q

For qx procedures and the TP and TPT values ​​are altered

A

send vitamin K

84
Q

What drug do we prescribe the night before or 1 hour before the consultation in patients who have had angina pectoris or a myocardial infarction. These drug is used for the reduction stress or anxiety if necessary.

A

10 mg of diazepam the night before and/or 5 to 10mg

85
Q

What’s the normal value of platelet count

A

150,000 – 400,000 platelets/mm3

86
Q

When is contraindicated to do a surgery in relation with the platelet count

A

when it is Below 60,000 platelets

87
Q

Prothrombin time (PT). Normal value:

A

11-14 seconds

88
Q

When we do a surgery and there’s significant bleeding we must do:

A
  1. local hemostatic
  2. When it’s a severe bleeding: vitamin K
  3. Replacement of blood
89
Q

Mention at least 3 ways we can achieve secondary hemostasis:

A
  • gelatin sponges
  • collagen
  • thrombin
  • compress for 20 mins with gauze soaked in tranexamic acid
90
Q

stimulation of the vagus nerve (parasympathetic activation), which causes a reduction in heart rate and dilation of the body’s blood vessels, causing arterial hypotension and secondarily a decrease in cerebral irrigation, causing so dizziness that can even be loss of consciousness or syncope.

A

Vasovagal reaction

91
Q

Once a Vasovagal reaction appears, the treatment consists of:

A
  • Placing the px in Trendelenburg position
  • Contract leg and arm muscles
92
Q

Antiplatelet drugs

A

acetylsalicylic acid

93
Q

It is a polysaccharide marketed in the form of sodium salt that is not absorbed through the digestive tract. Its administration is carried out intravenously or subcutaneously
parenterally. Its action is rapid, acting through the inhibition of different steps of the anticoagulation cascade.

A

Heparin

94
Q

Mention the components od the anamnesis

A
  1. filiation
  2. reason for consultation
  3. Hereditary family history
  4. pathological personal history
  5. non pathological personal history
  6. current condition
  7. Interrogation by body systms
95
Q

bacteria relationated with gastritis

A

helicobacter pylori

96
Q

in chrons disease which is the biggest concern

A

infection

97
Q

blood circulation (todo sobre el flujo sanguíneo)

A

no lo sé la vdd ni tengo ese apunte :(

98
Q

Rinses prior to any treatment in px with cardiovascular diseases

A

with 0.12% chlorhexidine for one minute or 0.2% chlorhexidine for 30 seconds.

99
Q

When there’s a pregnant women whose blood pressure rises after the week 20 that may be an indicative of:

A

preeclampsia/eclampsia

100
Q

Characteristics of the Preeclampsia

A
  • Hypertension
  • Proteinuria
  • Eclampsia
101
Q

In the variations of the circulatory volume, a decrease in the values of hemoglobin and hematocrit is observed, which causes a relative anemia

A

Fake anemia

102
Q

In which position it is recommended to work with a pregnant woman:

A

completely or almost upright position

103
Q

During the _______ of pregnancy, taking X-rays and prescribing drugs should be restricted to emergency situations, since during this period the fetal organs are in formation.

A

first trimester

104
Q

In which condition this drugs such as streptomycin, tetracyclines, barbiturates and diazepam is completely contraindicated

A

Pregnancy