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Part 1 Boards > P1 Boards > Flashcards

P1 Boards Flashcards

1
Q

Ectoderm gives rise to?

A

all neurons and supporting cells

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2
Q

Vertebrae develop?

A

sclerotome (somites-mesoderm)

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3
Q

What does the notochord do?

A

induces ectoderm to form neuroectoderm (nucleus pulposus)

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4
Q

What does the ectoderm form?

A

neural plate

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5
Q

What does the neural plate form?

A

neural groove

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6
Q

What does the neural groove house?

A

spinal cord and brain vesicles

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7
Q

Neural crest develops into:

A 
Branchial arches
PNS 
Shwann cells, pia and arachnoid meninges
Sacral parasympathetics
Spinal and autonomic ganglia
Mesencephalic nucleus of V
Melanocytes
Bones and connective tissue 
Dorsal root ganglia
Ganglia of CN V, VII, IX, and X
Adrenal gland medulla aka suprarenals
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8
Q

Neural plate (brain cells) develops into:

A

Microglial Cells (oligodendrocytes, astrocytes)
Neurons CNS
Ependymal Cells
Retinal Cells

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9
Q

What does endoderm epithelium do?

A

forms the lining of the digestive tube and its associated structures, division foregut, midgut: liver and pancreatic buds

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10
Q

What makes up the foregut?

A

glands buccal cavity, esophagus, stomach, pharyngeal pouches and pharynx.

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11
Q

What makes up the midgut?

A

Duodenum, jejunum, appendix, part of transverse colon

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12
Q

What makes up the hindgut?

A

part of transverse, sigmoid and descending colon, rectum and upper anal canal

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13
Q

What makes up the allantois?

A

urinary bladder, vagina, urethra, prostate, and urethral glands

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14
Q

What do somite cells form?

A

forms the sclerotome which forms the vertebral column (cartilage and bone) also forms myotome and dermatome.

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15
Q

Simple squamous tissue is for?

A

filtration and diffusion

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16
Q

What structures are made of simple squamous tissue?

A

capillaries, alveoli, and glomeruli

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17
Q

Ciliated epithelium tissue is for?

A

circulate, move, sweep, and clean

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18
Q

What structures are made of ciliated epithelium?

A

brain vesicles, oviduct, and lungs

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19
Q

Ciliated pseudo stratified columnar tissue is for?

A

lining

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20
Q

What structures are made of ciliated pseudo stratified columnar tissue?

A

trachea and upper respiratory tract

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21
Q

Non-ciliated pseudo stratified columnar tissue is for?

A

membranes; vas deferens

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22
Q

Foramen ovale becomes:

A

fossa ovalis (between inter arterial septum)

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23
Q

Ductus arteriosis becomes:

A

ligamentous arteriosum (bypasses lung pulmonary trunk to arch of aorta)

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24
Q

Ductus venosis becomes:

A

ligamentous venosum (bypasses sinuses of fetal liver)

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25
Q

Umbilical vein becomes:

A

ligamentum teres (round ligament)

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26
Q

Umbilical arteries become:

A

medial umbilicus ligaments

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27
Q

Urachus is?

A

a remnant of duct of allantois

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28
Q

Cranial nerves with branchial aka pharyngeal arches:

A 
mandibular branch of V - 1
Facial VII - 2
Glossopharyngeal IX - 3
Superior laryngeal of X - 4
Inferior laryngeal of X - 6
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29
Q

Skeletal and muscular structures of mandibular branch of V?

A

Malleus (Merckel’s cartilage)
Incus (Quadrate cartilage)

Muscles of mastication and jaw closing muscles

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30
Q

Skeletal and muscular structures of Facial VII?

A

Stapes
Styloid

Muscles of facial expression and and jaw opening muscles (stylohyoid and stapedius)

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31
Q

Skeletal and muscular structures of glossopharyngeal IX?

A

Cornu
Hyoid

Stylopharyngeous

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32
Q

Skeletal and muscular structures of Superior laryngeal of vagus nerve?

A

thyroid cartilage
cricoid cartilage

pharyngeal and cricothyroid
levator palatine

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33
Q

Skeletal and muscular structures of Inferior laryngeal of vagus nerve?

A

Arytenoid
Corniculate cartilage
Cuneiform cartilage

laryngeal

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34
Q

What are glioblast cells?

A

“glue” give rise to astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

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35
Q

What are astrocytes?

A

most numerous cell in the CNS, acts like connective tissue, part of the blood/brain barrier, forms “scar like tissue”

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36
Q

What are Oligodendrocytes?

A

quite numerous, less than astrocytes, the form myelin around the CNS

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37
Q

What are ependymal cells?

A

they line the CNS, ciliated, makes “leaky” barrier between CSF and CNS.

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38
Q

What are microglia or Gitterzellen?

A

not many of them. Phagocytes aka macrophage

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39
Q

What do neuroblasts do?

A

make neurons

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40
Q

What does gray matter consist of?

A

cell bodies and dendrites

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41
Q

What does white matter consist of?

A

myelinated axons

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42
Q

What do microglia do?

A

astrocytes: blood-brain barrier, functions as active transport for glucose and filters
oligodendrocytes: myelin

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43
Q

Prosencephalon secondary structures are which two structures?

A

telencephalon

diencephalon

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44
Q

Telencephalon structures, cranial nerves, and neural canal regions:

A

forebrain
cranial nerve 1 (olfactory)
lateral ventricles separated by septum pallcuidum

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45
Q

Diencephalon structures, cranial nerves, and neural canal regions:

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal, retina, mamilary body, and posterior pituitary
Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
Foramen of monroe aka interventric foramen

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46
Q

Mesencephalon structures, cranial nerves, and neural canal regions:

A

midbrain
Cranial nerves III and IV (oculomotor and trochlear)
Cerebral aqueduct of sylvius

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47
Q

Rhombencephalon secondary structures are?

A

metencephalon

myelencephalon

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48
Q

Metencephalon structures, cranial nerves, and neural canal regions:

A

Pons and cerebellum
CN: 5, 6, 7, 8 (trigeminal, abducens, facial, vestibulocochlear)
4th ventricle

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49
Q

Myelencephalon structures, cranial nerves, and neural canal regions:

A

Medulla oblongata
CN: 9, 10, 11, 12 (glossopharyngeal, vagus, hypoglossal, spinal accessory)
4th ventricle

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50
Q

What is the circle of willis?

A

arterial anastomosis

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51
Q

Circle of Willis is a blood supply communication between?

A

forebrain and hindbrain

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52
Q

Where is the Circle of Willis?

A

around the pituitary and optic chiasm

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53
Q

What supplies the Circle of Willis?

A

internal carotid and vertebral arteries

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54
Q

What makes up the Circle of Willis?

A

anterior and posterior cerebral arteries

anterior and posterior communicating

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55
Q

Most common location for cerebral vascular accident?

A

middle cerebral artery

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56
Q

Sends 200 branches into ventral aspect of spinal cord:

A

anteromedial longitudinal artery trunk aka anterior spinal artery

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57
Q

What artery supplies branches to posterior spinal cord?

A

posterior longitudinal artery trunks aka posterior spinal artery

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58
Q

Cerebral cortex aka:

A

Pallium

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59
Q

Cerebral cortex is formed from?

A

neural plate

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60
Q

What is neocortex?

A

part of cerebral cortex (from neural plate)
aka isocortex
90% of cortex
Six cerebral cortex laminae (mostly sympathetic)

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61
Q

What is allocortex?

A

10% of cerebral cortex

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62
Q

Diencephalon is mostly formed by?

A

thalamus

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63
Q

What does the diencephalon do?

A

relay for cortex, processes sensory info, sleep, consciousness
motor relay

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64
Q

What do basal ganglia do?

A

responsible for postural adjustments, steadying voluntary movements, enkephalins

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65
Q

Diseases associated with basal ganglia:

A

tremors

Parkinson’s, Huntington’s chorea

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66
Q

What structures do basal ganglia include?

A

corpus striatum, amygdaloid nucleus and claustrum

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67
Q

Telencephalon nuclei include:

A

caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, and basal ganglia

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68
Q

Mesencephalon nuclei include:

A

substantia nigra, and subthalamic

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69
Q

What is the corpus striatum?

A

head of the caudate and putamen

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70
Q

What is the lentiform nucleus?

A

globus pallidus (medial) and putamen (lateral)

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71
Q

What makes of the brainstem?

A

medulla oblongata
pons
midbrain

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72
Q

What are functions of the brainstem?

A
  • conduit for ascending and descending tracts
  • reflex centers associated with respiration, CV, and consciousness
  • Contains important nuclei for CN III - CN XII
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73
Q

How much CSF is in an adult?

A

140-270 ml

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74
Q

What are the meninges from inside to out?

A

PAD
pia
arachnoid (spider)
dura

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75
Q

What is the epidural full of?

A

filled with fat and veins

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76
Q

What is the subarachnoid space?

A

between the arachnoid and pia

used for lumbar puncture or spinal taps

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77
Q

Where are ependymal cells?

A

innermost layer of the neural tube

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78
Q

What is the function of the choroid plexus?

A

produces CSF

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79
Q

What do arachnoid granulations do?

A

resorbs CSF

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80
Q

How much CSF is found in ventricles?

A

25 ml

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81
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are in the body?

A

31

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82
Q

What is the Bell-Magendi law?

A

Dorsal roots - sensory (afferent fibers)

Ventral roots - motor (efferent fibers)

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83
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate?

A

L1/L2

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84
Q

Dorsal roots have what fibers?

A

afferent fibers (sensory)

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85
Q

Ventral roots have what fibers?

A

efferent fibers (motor)

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86
Q

What is the conus medularis?

A

the end of the spinal cord

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87
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

“horse’s tail” roots for lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal nerves through lumbar cistern forming the “tail”

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88
Q

What is the midbrain made up of?

A

tectum (roof) and punduncles

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89
Q

What is the cerebral aqueduct of sylvius?

A

CSF exchange between 3rd and 4th ventricles

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90
Q

What does cerebral punduncles consist of?

A

tegmentum, substantia nigra, crus cerebri, CN III and IV

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91
Q

What is substantia nigra?

A

black color, dopamine from tyrosine, melanin is by product

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92
Q

What is crus cerebri?

A

part of cerebral punduncle, (eye movement)

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93
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

integration of “momentary” static muscle contraction
joint tension
visual and auditory input regarding equilibrium

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94
Q

What is the vermis?

A

medial part of the cerebellum

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95
Q

What is the paleocerebellar and what does it do?

A

the anterior portion of the cerebellum, general muscle tone

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96
Q

What is the neocerebellar and what does it do?

A

posterior portion of the cerebellum, coordination of skilled movements

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97
Q

What is archicerebellar and what does it do?

A

(flocculonodular) equilibirum

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98
Q

What is the blood supply to the cerebellum?

A

branches of vertebral and basilar arteries

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99
Q

Cerebellar nuclei from medial to lateral: (small to large)

A 
fastigial     
globus     
emboliform
dentate
"flowers grow every day"
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100
Q

Characteristics of upper motor neuron lesion:

A 
positive pathologic reflexes (babinski)
increase muscle tone
spasticity
hypertrophy
clonus
increase DTR
decrease in superficial reflexes
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101
Q

Characteristics of lower motor neuron lesions:

A 
no pathologic reflexes
decrease muscle tone
flaccidity
atrophy
fasciculations
decrease DTR
decrease in superficial reflexes
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102
Q

What is the functions of the thalamus?

A

crude sensations and integrations “relay center”

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103
Q

What is the main pathway between the thalamus and the cortex?

A

through internal capsule and corona radiata

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104
Q

What is the function of the post central gyrus?

A

primary sensory cortex

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105
Q

What is the function of the pre central gyrus?

A

primary motor cortex

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106
Q

What is the function of the corticospinal tract?

A

descending tract
(pyramidal)
precise and skilled voluntary movement

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107
Q

What is the origin and destination of the corticospinal tract?

A

1st degree motor cortex
2nd degree motor cortex
parietal lobe

internuncial neurons or alpha motor neurons

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108
Q

The corticospinal tract can continue as:

A

lateral or anterior corticospinal tracts

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109
Q

What happens with the lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts?

A

most cross at decussation of pyramids and descend as lateral corticospinal tracts some continue as anterior corticospinal tracts

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110
Q

Where does the lateral corticospinal tract end?

A

it runs the length of the spinal cord

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111
Q

Where does the anterior corticospinal tract end?

A

it stops at mid thoracic

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112
Q

What is the function of the reticulospinal tract?

A

descending tract
inhibit or facilitate involuntary movement
(pontine and medullary)

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113
Q

Origin and destination of the reticulospinal tract?

A

reticular formation

alpha and gamma motor neurons

114
Q

Where does the reticulospinal tract cross?

A

it crosses at various formations

115
Q

What is the function of the tectospinal tract?

A

descending tract

reflex postural movement to visual stimuli

116
Q

Origin and destination of the tectospinal tract?

A

superior colliculus (midbrain)

alpha and gamma motor neurons

117
Q

What is the function of the rubrospinal tract?

A

descending tract
“red”
facilitates flexors and inhibits extensors

118
Q

What is the origin and destination of the rubrospinal tract?

A

red nucleus (midbrain)

alpha and gamma motor neurons

119
Q

Rubrospinal tract receives what?

A

cerebral and cerebellar information

120
Q

What is the function of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

descending tract

facilitates extensors and inhibits flexors

121
Q

Where is the origin and destination of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

lateral vestibular nucleus

alpha and gamma motor neurons

122
Q

What other information does the vestibulospinal tract receive?

A

receives inner ear information via vestibular nerve

and cerebellar information

123
Q

What is the function of the lateral spinothalamic tract?

A

ascending tract
pain and temperature
“tract of Lissaur” ?

124
Q

What is the pathway of the spinothalamic tract?

A

1st posterior root ganglion
2nd substantia gelatinosa
3rd posterior lateral nucleus of thalamus - post central gyrus

125
Q

What is a clinical problem with the spinothalamic tract?

A

Syringomylia

126
Q

What is syringomylia and what tract does it affect?

A

a fluid filled cyst that leads to bilateral loss of pain and temperature.

127
Q

What is the function of the anterior spinothalamic tract?

A

ascending tract
“protopathic” is defensive to pain, temperature
crude light touch

128
Q

What is the pathway of the anterior spinothalamic tract?

A

1st: posterior root ganglion
2nd: substantia gelatinosa
3rd: posterior lateral nucleus of thalamus - post central gyrus

129
Q

What are the two dorsal columns ?

A

fasciculus cuneateus and fasciculus gracilis

130
Q

What is the function of the dorsal columns?

A

ascending tract
discriminative touch 2 point
vibration and conscious proprioception

131
Q

What is the pathway of the dorsal columns?

A

1st: posterior root ganglion
2nd: nuclei gracilis/cuneatus
3rd: posterior lateral nucleus of thalamus - post central gyrus

132
Q

Where are the locations of the gracilis and cuneatus dorsal columns?

A

Cuneatus: above T6
Gracilis: below T6

133
Q

What are 2nd order neurons called in the dorsal column tracts?

A

internal arcuate fibers

134
Q

What are some clinical problems with the dorsal column tracts?

A

diabetes mellitus
posterior lateral sclerosis
multiple sclerosis
tables dorsalis (syphillis)

135
Q

Function of the posterior spinocerebellar tract?

A

ascending tract

unconscious proprioception

136
Q

What is the pathway of the posterior spinocerebellar tract?

A

1st: posterior root ganglion
2nd: nucleus dorsalis (Clarke’s Column) ascend through inferior cerebellar punduncle to cerebellum

137
Q

How long is Clarke’s column?

A

posterior spinocerebellar tract

spans from C8 - L4

138
Q

What is a clinical problem with posterior spinocerebellar tract?

A

posterior inferior punduncle

139
Q

What is the function of the anterior spinocerebellar tract?

A

ascending tract

unconscious proprioception

140
Q

What is the pathway of the anterior spinocerebellar tract?

A

1st: posterior root ganglion
2nd: nucleus dorsalis (Clarke’s Column) cross segmentally and ascend through superior cerebellar punduncle to cerebellum.

141
Q

What happens to the fibers that cross in the anterior spinocerebellar tract?

A

some fibers do not cross but the ones that do cross back to the ipsilateral sign in the cerebellum

142
Q

What are clinical problems with the anterior spinocerebellar tract?

A

anterior superior punduncle

143
Q

What is the function of the tectospinal tract?

A

ascending tracts

spino visual reflexes

144
Q

What is the pathway of the tectospinal tract?

A

1st: posterior root ganglion
2nd: cross segmentally and ascend to superior colliculus (midbrain)

145
Q

What are clinical problems with the tectospinal tract?

A

spino-quadregeminal

system of Mott

146
Q

What is the function of the reticulospinal tract?

A

ascending tract

level of consciousness

147
Q

What is the pathway of the reticulospinal tract?

A

1st: posterior root ganglion
2nd: ascend to nuclei of reticular formation (brainstem)

148
Q

What happens if the reticulospinal tract is injured?

A

coma

149
Q

What are ganglia and where are they found?

A

groups of neuron cell bodies and they are found in the PNS

150
Q

Where are unipolar cells found?

A

in posterior root ganglion

151
Q

Where are bipolar cells found?

A

found in retina and sensory ganglia of cochlear and vestibular nerve

152
Q

What are the cutaneous (superficial branches of the cervical plexus?

A

lesser occipital C2-3
Greater auricular C2-3
transverse cervical C2-3
Supraclavicular (ant. middle, and post) C3-4

153
Q

What structures are innervated by lesser occipital?

A

posterolateral neck

154
Q

What structures are innervated by greater auricular?

A

ear and parotid gland

155
Q

What structures are innervated by transverse cervical?

A

anterior and lateral neck

156
Q

What structures are innervated by supraclivicuar nerve?

A

shoulder and anterior chest

157
Q

What are the deep (motor) branches of the cervical plexus?

A

ansa cervicali (superior and inferior) C1-C4
segmental branches C1-C5
Phrenic C3, C4, C5

158
Q

What structures does the ansa cervicalis nerves innervate?

A

motor
glenohyoid
infrahyoid

159
Q

What structures does the segmental branches of cervical plexus innervate?

A 
motor
neck and scalenes
levator
trapezius
SCM
160
Q

Phrenic nerve innervates the?

A

diaphragm

161
Q

What are the branches of the lumbar plexus?

A 
femoral L2-L4
Obturator L2-L4
Lateral femoral cutaneous L2, L3
Iliohypogastric L1
Ilioinguinal L1
Genitofemoral L1, L2
162
Q

What structures are innervated by the femoral nerve?

A

sensory: thigh, leg, foot, hip, knee joints
Motor: anterior thigh, psoas, pectineus, iliacus

163
Q

What structures are innervated by the obturator nerve?

A

Sensory: medial thigh and hip joint
Motor: Adductors, gracilis, and obturator externus

164
Q

What structures are innervated by the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve?

A

sensory: lateral thigh, branches to peritoneum

165
Q

What structures are innervated by the iliohypogastric?

A

sensory: lower abdomen, lower back and hip, anterolateral abdominal wall, and pubic region

166
Q

What structures are innervated by inlioinguinal?

A

sensory: external genitalia, thigh and abdominals

167
Q

What structures are innervated by genitofemoral?

A

sensory: scrotum, labia, thigh and cremasterics

168
Q

What are the branches of the sacral plexus?

A 
sciatic nerve: L4-S3
tibial nerve: L4-S3
common peroneal (fibular): L4-S2
superficial peroneal (fibular): L4-S2
Deep peroneal: L4-S2
superior gluteal: L4-S1
Inferior gluteal: L5-S2
Pudendal: S2-S4
169
Q

What is innervated by the sciatic nerve?

A

motor: tibial and common peroneal

170
Q

What is innervated by the tibial nerve?

A

sensory: posterior leg and foot
motor: all muscles in the back of thigh, leg, and foot

171
Q

What is innervated by common peroneal (fibular)?

A

sensory: anterior leg and dorsum of the foot
motor: peroneus, tibialis anterior, extension of toe

172
Q

What is innervated by superficial peroneal (fibular)?

A

motor: lateral compartment of the leg

173
Q

What is innervated by deep peroneal?

A

motor: anterior compartment of the leg

174
Q

What is innervated by superior gluteal?

A

motor: gluteus medius, minimus, and TFL

175
Q

What is innervated by inferior gluteal?

A

motor: gluteus maximus

176
Q

What is innervated by pudendal nerve?

A

sensory: muscles of peritoneum
motor: external anal spincter

177
Q

what is a branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

A

musculocutaneous

178
Q

What are the branches off the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

A

axillary and radial

179
Q

What is a branch of the lateral and medial cord of the brachial plexus?

A

median

180
Q

What are the branches off the medial cord of the brachial plexus?

A

ulnar

181
Q

What comes off the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

A

lateral pectoral nerve

182
Q

What comes off the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

A

upper sub scapular nerve
lower sub scapular nerve
thoracodorsal nerve

183
Q

What comes off the medial cord of the brachial plexus?

A

medial pectoral nerve
medial brachial cutaneous
medial anti-brachial cutaneous

184
Q

What roots does the long thoracic nerve come from?

A

C5, C6, C6

185
Q

How many Kcal are carbs?

A

4 kcal/gram

186
Q

What is the body’s main fuel supply and what percentage?

A

carbs

50-55%

187
Q

What are ketones?

A

multiple hydroxyl groups

188
Q

What is sorbital and where is it found?

A

sugar alcohol from glucose and converted to fructose
found: berries, cherries, plums, pears
used to make sweeteners

189
Q

What are the essential amino acids?

A 
PVT. TIM HALL
Phenylalanine
Valine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine
Histidine
Arginine
Leucine 
Lysine
190
Q

What are the semi-essential amino acids?

A

histidine, arginine

191
Q

What amino acids make up the aromatic “ring”?

A

Phenylalanine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine

192
Q

What are the neutral amino acids?

A 
"STAG"
Serine
Threonine
Asparagine
Glutamine
193
Q

What are the basic amino acids?

A

“Hal is a basic kind of guy”
Histidine
Arginine
Lysine

194
Q

What are the sulfur containing amino acids?

A

methionine

cysteine

195
Q

Which amino acids are not glucogenic?

A

Leucine and Lysine

196
Q

Which are the branch chain amino acids?

A

“LIV”
Leucine
Isoleucine
Valine

197
Q

Which are the acidic amino acids?

A

Glutamate

Aspartate

198
Q

Amino acids of the aliphatic chain from less hydrophilic to more hydrophilic:

A

Glycine, Alanine, Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine

199
Q

What amino acid is a precursor to serotonin?

A

tryptophan

200
Q

What amino acids are a precursor to creatine?

A

glycine and arginine

201
Q

What are the two steps of amino acid metabolism?

A

transamination then oxidative deamination

202
Q

What happens to removed ammonia in amino acid metabolism?

A

carried to the urea cycle by glutamate

203
Q

Left over carbon skeletons in amino acid metabolism are either _______ or _________.

A

Glucogenic (form pyruvate or Oxaloacetate to make glucose)

Ketogenic (form acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA to make ketones)

204
Q

Which three amino acids donate nitrogen for purines and pyrimidines?

A

glutamate
aspartate
asparagine

205
Q

Which six amino acids are muscles able to oxidize?

A 
"GAL VIA"
Glutamate
Aspartate
Leucine
Valine
Isoleucine
Asparagine
206
Q

What are the aka’s for the glucose - alanine cycle?

A

lactic acid cycle or Cori cycle

207
Q

During exercise in the lactic acid cycle, muscle makes ______ from _______ and _______ from ________.

A

ammonia from amino acids

lactate form glucose

208
Q

What is alanine composed of in the Cori Cycle?

A

Ammonia + Lactate

209
Q

What happens in the liver in the Cori Cycle?

A

alanine travels to the liver and is converted back into lactate and ammonia

210
Q

What does ammonia and lactate become in the urea cycle?

A

Gluconeogenesis
ammonia becomes urea
lactate becomes glucose

211
Q

Where does glucose go in the urea cycle?

A

glucose goes back to the muscle after ammonia becomes urea and lactate becomes glucose through gluconeogensis.

212
Q

What is the function of the urea cycle?

A

rids the body of toxic ammonia

213
Q

What are the important intermediates of the Cori Cycle?

A 
"Farco, Ga"
Fumarate
Arginine
Citrulline
Ornithine
Glutamate
Aspartate
214
Q

What is the main enzyme of the Urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

producing “carbamoyl phosphate”

215
Q

What kind of bond is between amino acids?

A

peptide bonds

216
Q

What are main clinical problems with a deficiency in vitamin B1?

A

Beri Beri

Wernicke’s (alcoholics)

217
Q

What foods are thiamine found?

A

wheat, pork, oatmeal

218
Q

What are the function of nucleotides?

A

they bond together to make DNA and RNA

219
Q

What are the purines?

A

Adenine (DNA) and Guanine (RNA)

220
Q

What are the Pyrimidines?

A

Cytosine (RNA)
Uracil (RNA)
Thymine (DNA)

221
Q

What are nucleotides made of?

A

phosphate, sugar, and a nitrogenous base

222
Q

What is a nucleotide when a phosphate is removed?

A

nucleoside

223
Q

What is a double stranded alpha helix?

A

DNA

224
Q

Nucleotides with one strand of DNA has what kind of bonds?

A

Phosphodiester bonds

225
Q

Base pairs between DNA complimentary strands have what kinds of bonds?

A

hydrogen bonds “easily broken”

226
Q

What are the base pairing between purines and pyrimidines in DNA?

A

“ALL TALL GUYS CAN DUNK”
Adenine - Thymine
Guanine - Cytosine
DNA

227
Q

What is the “S” phase of DNA synthesis?

A

DNA replication

228
Q

Where does the “S” phase occur in DNA synthesis?

A

in the nucleus

229
Q

What happens in the “S” phase of DNA synthesis?

A

46-92 chromosomes

mitosis splits the 92 doubled chromosomes into 46 identical sets.

230
Q

What are the enzymes that play in the “S” phase of DNA synthesis?

A

Topoisomerase (helicase) - unwinds DNA strands

DNA polymerase - makes new DNA from from the parent DNA strand “acts as a template”

231
Q

What happens in the transcription process?

A

RNA synthesis 5’ to 3’

232
Q

Where is transcription done?

A

nucleolus

233
Q

What part of the DNA unwinds in RNA synthesis?

A

only the specific region to be transcribed unwinds

234
Q

What are the enzymes of RNA synthesis and what do they do?

A

RNA Polymerase - binds to promoter site, begins to make RNA primer strand form the DNA template.

235
Q

What is the “code” in RNA synthesis?

A

The DNA is read 3 bases at a time. The DNA “sequence” is called a code.

236
Q

What is the termination sequence in RNA synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase reaches a special section of DNA called the termination sequence, the polymerase and RNA primer strand both fall off of the DNA, which then rewinds itself.

237
Q

Where does RNA go after it is made?

A

leaves the nucleus and goes to the cytoplasm.

238
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA?

A

messenger RNA
ribosomal RNA
transfer RNA

239
Q

What is the function of messenger RNA?

A

holds the information to determine amino acid sequence order.

240
Q

What is the function of ribosomal RNA?

A

Main component of the ribosomal unit which moves along MRNA.

241
Q

What is the function of transfer RNA?

A

“jumps on and off” the rRNA, carrying the amino acids with it.

242
Q

What is translation DNA?

A

protein synthesis

243
Q

What does mRNA do in translation?

A

1st step

binds to a ribosome before translation so protein synthesis can occur.

244
Q

What is a codon in translation?

A

3 bases (nucleotides) in the mRNA chain to code for one amino acid.

245
Q

Which cells of the immune system are phagocytic?

A

neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages

246
Q

Which cells of the immune system release inflammatory mediators?

A

basophils
mast cells
eosinophils

247
Q

What are the natural killer cells?

A

complement proteins and cytokines

248
Q

Where does a macrophage come from and what does it do?

A

starts as a monocyte
it presents antigens to T-Cells
produces cytokines

249
Q

What do cytokines do and where do they come from?

A

cytokines come from macrophages

they can activate helper and cytotoxic T- cells, which kill pathogens or cancer cells.

250
Q

What do killer T-cells do?

A

they kill virus infected cells with/without antibody they trigger target cells which then commit suicide.

251
Q

What do helper T-cells do?

A

they help in antigen recognition and regulation (helper and suppressor)
activates helper and killer T-cells
secretes protein molecule called cytokines

252
Q

What do regulatory T-cells do?

A

helps other T-cells stay under control

253
Q

What is an antigen?

A

target of antibody and T-cells. (viral protein)

254
Q

What part of the antigen does the antibody attach to?

A

epitope

255
Q

What do class 1 histocompatibility complex proteins do and where are they found?

A

found on the surface of most cells in the body. They inform KILLER T cells what’s going on inside other cells.

256
Q

What do class 2 histocompatibility complex proteins do and where are they found?

A

made by antigen presenting cells and informs HELPER T-cells that problems exist outside the cell. (macrophages)

257
Q

What does an antibody do?

A

it tags antigens to die.

258
Q

What is opsonization?

A

preparing an antigen to eat

259
Q

What are neutralizing antibodies and what process are they with?

A

can dock on a virus that is still alive on the OUTSIDE of the cell and tag it to die.
Opsonization

260
Q

What is the complement system?

A

20 different proteins (made by liver) working together to destroy invaders/signal immune system players that the attack is on.

261
Q

The classic pathway of the complement system is activated by?

A

depends on antibodies for activation

262
Q

The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by?

A

antibody independent

263
Q

What does the complement system build?

A

VERY FAST
membrane attack complexes
multi-functional cells - enhance function of phagocytic cells.

264
Q

What is the lectin-activation path?

A

mannose-binds lectin
lectin binds carb molecule
carb molecule on pathogens….

265
Q

What does the carb molecule on pathogens do in the lectin-activation pathway?

A

COMPLEMENT SYSTEM
triggers inflammation
chemotactically attracts phagocytes to infection
promotes attachment antigens 2nd signal for B-lymph
causes lysis of gram negative bacteria
harmful immune complexes removed

266
Q

Hypersensitivity type 1 reactions:

A

immediate hypersensitivity
IgE, mast cells, basophils, allergic mediators
allergic reactions, hay fever, asthma

267
Q

Hypersensitivity type 2 reactions:

A

antibody mediated
IgG, IgM cause cell lysis (some autoimmune diseases)
Blood group incompatibility, pernicious anemia, mys. grav

268
Q

Hypersensitivity type 3 reactions:

A

immune complex mediated
IgG, antibody mediated inflammation
SLE, RA, serum sickness, rheumatic fever

269
Q

Hypersensitivity type 4 reactions:

A

T-cell mediated
delayed
infections, dermatitis, graft injections

270
Q

What causes Hay Fever?

A

caused by proteins from mold or plant spores.

271
Q

What causes asthma?

A

caused by dust mites, cockroaches, and household pets

272
Q

Allergic individuals are called ______ and make lots of ______.

A

atopic

IgE antibody

273
Q

How long can IgE antibodies live?

A

1 day in blood but, if attached to a mast cell can last several weeks.

274
Q

When are eosinophils present?

A

chronic allergic reactions

275
Q

What is Canale-Smith syndrome?

A

autoimmune disease

self-reactive lymphocytes repeatedly stimulated, swollen lymph nodes.

276
Q

What is insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?

A

autoimmune disease

organ specific immune disease B cells are the target

277
Q

What is myasthenia graves?

A

autoimmune disease

self-reactive antibodies bind to receptors bind to receptors for acetylcholine

278
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

autoimmune disease
CNS self reactive T-cells, myelin sheaths destroyed
macrophages recruited by cytokines recruited by T cells.
Activated T-cells cross blood-brain barrier

279
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

autoimmune disease
chronic inflammation of joints
IgM-IgG antibody activates microphages

280
Q

What is Lupus Erythematosous?

A

autoimmune disease

  • affects 250,000 people in US 90% women
  • red facial rash, malar, butterfly rash “red wolf”
  • inflammation of lungs, arthritis, kidney damage, hair loss, convulsions, and paralysis.
  • caused by B and T cells that make IgG antibodies
281
Q

What are the steps of slide preparation?

A

crystal violet - primary dye
Gram’s iodine - mordant
alcohol rinse - decolorizer
Safranin - counterstain

282
Q

What do the colors of slides mean?

A 
purple = gram +
red = gram -

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