Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Opthamology rotation > Optho #1 > Flashcards

Optho #1 Flashcards

1
Q

how does optic nerve toxicity usually present?

A

Bilateral central scotomas with intact peripheral fields.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Optic neuritis vision loss is quick/slow?

A

quick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An intercavernous sinus menigioma will knock out which nerves?

A

3,4,5,6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

knocking out the sypathetics and parasympatetics to the eye usually involve which 2 locations?

A 
cavernous sinus (menigioma)
internal carotid (aneurysm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

an aneuysm of the posterior communicating artery usually affects what?

A

CN #3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is simultagnosia?

A

difficulty with the presentation of multiple stimuli simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when does simultagnosia usually present?

A

early dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the 3 major causes of chronic slow visual loss?

A

Glaucoma, cateract, macular degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F The majority of patients with glaucoma experience ocular pain, inflammation and halos?

A

False most of the time its asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the normal intraocular pressure?

A

10-21 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the number one way to diagnose glaucoma?

A

looking at the optic nerve changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a larger risk factor for glaucoma, parents or siblings with glaucoma?

A

Siblings= 2 points
Parents= 1 point
(Recall 3 points means moderate risk, 4+ points means high risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what effect does alpha 1 agonists have on the eye?

A

causes vasoconstriction of the arteries supplying the ciliary body resulting in decreased aqueous humor production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what commonly causes a red eye, hazy cornea, and a fixed dilated pupil?

A

Acute onset closed angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are some of the symptoms for chronic angle closure glaucoma?

A

headache and blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F Corneal edema is associated with high intraocular pressure?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is Buphthalmos?

A

enlargement of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

posterior subcapsular opacity frequently affect what part of the vision?

A

near vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what usually causes subcapsular types of cataracts?

A

metabolic (diabetes) and corticosteriods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is metamorphopsia?

A

wavy distortion of central vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

does a severe cataract produce an relative afferent pupillary defect?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what causes starburst appearance around lights?

A

nuclear cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the leading cause of blindness in the USA?

A

age related macular degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F the fovea is made of only of cones and is avascular?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

where does Drussen deposit in the retina?

A

in Bruches membrane (separates RPE and choroidal vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what percentage of macular degeneration is wet?

A

20% (AKA neovascular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does fluoroscein angiography do?

A

identifies neovascularization of the retina and choroid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how do you tell if the vessels are newely formed from neovascularizaiton?

A

the new vessels are very leaky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is Ocular Coherance Tomography (OCT)?

A

shows the layers of the retina and thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what part of the vision is affected first in macular degeneration?

A

central because it affects the fovea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are 2 major signs of early macuar degeneration?

A

absence of foveal reflex

mottled appearance of RPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is hyperemia?

A

injection of the eye (red eye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T/F chronic open anle glaucoma causes eye redness?

A

False, it is caused by acute closed angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ciliary flush is dilated episcleral vessels adjacent and circumferential to the limbus. what causes this?

A

Iritis or Iridiocyclitis

acute glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what problem that causes eye redness usually spares the area around the limbus?

A

conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the difference between scleritis and episcleritis? (besides the layer location)

A

Scleritis= raised hyperemic lesion on eye and associated with collagen and rheumatoid diseases
Episcleritis=flattened but hyperemic lesion on eye and often associated with allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is dacrocystitis?

A

inflammation of the lacrimal sac

38
Q

what are the layers of the retina?

A 
Innternal limiting membrane 
Nerve fiber layer – axons of the ganglion cell nuclei 
Ganglion cell layer 
Inner plexiform layer
Inner nuclear layer
Outer plexiform layer
Outer nuclear layer – cell bodies of rods and cones
External limiting membrane
Photo-receptor layer
Retinal pigment epithelium
39
Q

T/F patients with conjunctivitis have normal light sensitivity?

A

true

40
Q

what happens to the cornea with glaucoma?

A

corneal edema that results in halos

41
Q

what is mattering of the eye?

A

Exudate from the eye. This often causes the eylids to be stuck together in the mornings.

42
Q

Does conjunctivitis cause decreased visual acuity?

A

No

43
Q

what often causes low IOP?

A

iridocyclitis

44
Q

what is iridocyclitis?

A

inflammation of the iris and ciliary body

45
Q

in viral conjunctivitis, where do you expect the lymph nodes to be enlarged/inflamed?

A

preauricular lymph nodes (note in bacterial conjunctivitis, this enlargement usually does not happen)

46
Q

which virus is known for causing conjunctivitis every year?

A

adenovirus

47
Q

what is erythema multiforme?

A

bulls eye target lesions on skin that can also affect eyes causing scarring and blindness. Steven Johnson syndrome is a form of erythema multiforme that can affect the eyes.

48
Q

what is seborrheic blepharitis?

A

dandruff of the eyelid seen in the eye lashes

49
Q

what is the real name for a stye?

A

Hordeolum (inflammation of the glands or hair follicles of eyelid)

50
Q

what is the difference between a hordolum and a chalazion?

A

In general, hordeola are acute, infected, and painful lesions at the rim of the eyelid. Chalazia are subacute or chronic, noninfected, and generally less painful lesions on the conjunctival side of the eyelid.

51
Q

T/F steroids are effective in the treatment of infectious conjunctivitis?

A

False almost never are they needed

52
Q

what are 4 major side effects of using topical eye numbing drops?

A

1) slows growth/healing of the cornea
2) allergic reaction to drops
3) decreases blinking rate=dries out cornea
4) increased risk for further injury because of numbness

53
Q

what 3 adverse things do corticosteroids do to the eye?

A

1) predispose to herpes and fungal infections
2) cataract formation
3) increase IOP

54
Q

T/F Flourescein should always be instilled in a red eye to test for integrity of the corneal epithelium?

A

True

55
Q

which two major eye conditions cause irregularities in the pupils?

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

iridocyclitis

56
Q

what is epiphoria?

A

chronic tearing of the eye

57
Q

how do you usually treat hyphema of the anterior chamber?

A

watch and wait because they usually resolve spontaneously.

58
Q

what color does the retina turn when edematous?

A

white

59
Q

after ocular trauma and there is vertical restriction and vertical diplopia, what should you be thinking?

A

blowout fracture of the orbit

60
Q

If you have a penetrating eye injury, what should you do as a PCP?

A

place and eye shield and send for immediate optho referral. Order a CT
Do not put on a pressure patch or add ointment to eye.

61
Q

orbital fractures and subconjunctival hemorrhages should be referred to an opthamologist how quickly?

A

semi-urgently (1-2 days)

62
Q

what are 2 common short acting cycloplegics used in opthomology?

A

homatropine and cyclopentolate

atropine is usually not used because of its long duration

63
Q

which 2 topical eye antibiotics are associated with allergic reaction when used longer than 7 days?

A

gentamycin and neomycin

64
Q

when do you add a pressure eye patch?

A

when there is damage to the cornea such as with foreign bodies or abrasions.

65
Q

PCP can suture eyelid injuries except for those that?

A

involve eyelid margin

involve the canaliculi

66
Q

what should you assume with a teardrop shaped pupil and a flat anterior chamber?

A

globe penetration or rupture

67
Q

what is Bells phenomenon?

A

eyes rotate superiorly on lid closure so many traumatic abrasions to the eye are often located in the central or inferior cornea.

68
Q

How do you treat a corneal abrasion?

A

antibiotic ointment, cycloplegic drops, pressure patch, follow up in a few days

69
Q

How do you treat Hyphema without trauma?

A

Steroid drops and cycloplegic drops and tell patient to keep head elevated at all times.

70
Q

what is the first thing that you do when treating someone after facial/ocular trauma?

A

carefully open eye lids and examine for a ruptured globe, if present place shield and send for immediate treatment.

71
Q

T/F orbital fractures are emergencies?

A

False, you can treat them 1-2 weeks afterwards

72
Q

what should you instruct patients to do with orbital fractures?

A

1) ice packs to the orbit
2) avoid blowing the nose
3) oral antibiotics

73
Q

what do alpha 2 agonists do to the eye?

A

located on the ciliary epithelium cause decreased aqueous humor production

74
Q

Beta 2 agonists do what?

A

increase aqueous humor production, therefore beta blockers are helpful in glaucoma

75
Q

which receptors cause iris dilatation? constriction?

A

dilation=alpha 1

constriction=M3 (just like ciliary body)

76
Q

T1 MRI is better for seeing what?

A

Anatomy but usually has fat supression

77
Q

T2 is better for seeing what?

A

Pathology (eyes glow)

78
Q

T/F cellulitis of the eye often causes proptosis?

A

True

79
Q

Why does proptosis happen with thyroid disease?

A

Because the antibodies that are stimulating the thyroid gland also stimulates the the fibroblasts of the eye muscles

80
Q

what is the most common orbital tumor in kids?

A

Dermoid cysts

81
Q

what is the most common benign tumor in adults?

A

cavernous tumor

82
Q

what is the most common primary orbital malignancy in kids?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

83
Q

which tumor is frequently found in the lacrimal gland fossa?

A

lymphoma (50%) soft and molds

84
Q

when do you usually get the trap door fracture of the inferior orbit?

A

younger kids

85
Q

what is the most common cause of eye lid cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma

86
Q

what can sebacious adenocarcinoma mimick?

A

blepharitis usually on upper lid because of so many glands

87
Q

what is the most common cause of ptosis?

A

aponeurotic (muscles slip off of tarsel plate)

88
Q

when do you usually see pseudotumor cerbri (which population)?

A

overweight individuals

89
Q

what is the big danger of orbital cellulitis?

A

cavernous sinus thrombosis

90
Q

what is the only way to prevent glaucoma?

A

by decreasing the IOP (this is the only way)

91
Q

What are the common acute optic neuropathies?

A 
Older = ischemic optic neuropathy
Young = optic neuritis

Opthamology rotation (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions