neurology Flashcards

1
Q

TIA: definition

A

Transient neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain/spinal cord/retinal ischaemia without evidence of acute infarction

previously: transient neurological dysfunction w resolution w/in 24 hrs

up to a third of patients whose symptoms have resolved within 24 hours have evidence of infarction on imaging - definition is now TISSUE based rather than TIME based

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2
Q

TIA: aetiology

A

Temporary blockage of blood flow → ischaemia

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3
Q

Difference b/w presentation of stroke vs TIA

A

In TIA symptoms usually resolve within 1 hour (max 24 hours) rather than persisting (as in the case of a stroke)

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4
Q

TIA: possible clinical features

A
  • unilateral weakness/sensory loss
  • aphasia/dysarthria
  • ataxia/vertigo/loss of balance
  • visual problems (sudden transient loss of vision in one eye, diplopia, homonymous hemianopia)

transient vision loss in one eye = amaurosis fugax

dysarthria - affects muscles used in speech production

aphasia - impairment of ability to express/understand speech

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5
Q

Suspected TIA: immediate management

A
  • Aspirin 300mg immediately (unless contraindicated)
  • Assessed urgently w/in 24 hrs by stroke specialist clinician
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6
Q

What are some TIA mimics that require exclusion

A
  • hypoglycaemia
  • intracranial haemorrhage

all pts on anticoagulants or similar RFs (for haemorrhage) should be admitted for urgent imaging to exclude haemorrhage

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7
Q

What happens if a pt presents > 7 days following TIA

A

should be seen by stroke specialist clinician ASAP w/in 7 days

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8
Q

TIA: what does assessment by stroke specialist clinician involve

A

make decision on brain imaging (whether to do or not)

NICE recommend that CT brains should not be done ‘unless there is clinical suspicion of an alternative diagnosis that CT could detect’
an example exception would be when there is a concern about haemorrhage as the patient is taking anticoagulants

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9
Q

TIA: which brain imaging is preferred

A
  • MRI (including diffusion weighted and blood-sensitive sequences)
  • to determine territory of ischaemia/ detect presence of haemorrhage/other pathologies
  • this should be done on same day as specialist assessment if possible
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10
Q

what specific type of drug is used to manage nausea following chemo/radiotherapy

A

5 HT3 antagonists e.g. ondansetron, palonosetron- these work at the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla

palonostrone - 2nd gen 5HT3 antagonist advantage as less QT prolongation

CTZ is an area in the brain that can detect chemicals e.g. chemo drugs and contains many 5 HT3 receptors (usually detecting serotonin) - serotonin can be released in the gut in response to chemo drugs/irritants - high levels of serotonin stimulates vagus nerve - signal is sent to brain –> triggers sensation of nausea

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11
Q

potential S/Es of 5HT3 antagonists

A

e.g. ondansetron, palonosetron
* prolonged QT interval
* constipation is common

serotonin usually promotes gut motility - so blocking this means less stimulation of peristalsis –> slowing down of movement of contents through the intestines

prolonged QT - slightly inhibits K+ channels in the heart, so slows down the repolarisation process leading to increased QT interval

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