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CompTIA > Net+ > Flashcards

Net+ Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following protocols reside at the application layer of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)

A. SMTP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. HTTP

A

A & D. Layer 7 is the application level. QoS, file transfer, and email are the major popular services at layer 7. SMTP, HTTP, & FTP

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2
Q

A network engineer is adding a bridge into the network design. Where in the OSI model will this bridge operate?

A. Layer 5
B. Data link layer
C. Transport layer
D. Layer 2

A

B & D. The bridge creates a link between the 2 physical segments so that host in segment A can send and receive messages to hosts in segment B.

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3
Q

Client A is sending data to Server A. The packet has left the application layer and transversed the ISO model through to the data link layer. Which header will get encapsulated onto the packet at the data link layer?

A. UDP header
B. TCP header
C. Ethernet header
D. IP header

A

C. Ethernet encapsulates the payload from higher layer protocols within a PDU called a frame. The ethernet header encapsulates onto a packet at the data link layer

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4
Q

Host A is communicating with Host B. Host A uses the ASCII and Host B uses Unicode. The client agree to translate the communication to ASCII. What layer of the OSI model does the agreement and translation occur?

A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Transport
D. Session

A

B. Layer 6 transforms data between the format required for the network and the format required for the application

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5
Q

A device connects all hosts and routes network traffic. Based on the device’s characteristics, what does the network utilize for connectivity and traffic flow?

A. Multilayer switch
B. Repeater
C. IDS/IPS
D. Firewall

A

A. Multilayer switch routes based on the contents of packets at layer 3 and up and more effectively in a VLAN environment

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5
Q

Which OSI layer assumes responsibility for managing network connections between applications?

A. Physical
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Network

A

B. The Session Layer (Layer 5) involves the exchange of multiple messages between the client and server. Sessions can work in 3 modes: Simplex, Half-duplex or Duplex

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6
Q

A network admin is looking at an ARP table on a switch for connected devices. Which OSI layer are they looking at?

A. Network
B. Physical
C. Data link
D. Session

A

C. The data link layer (layer 2) transfer data between different nodes on the same logical segment. This is where ARP tables are located

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7
Q

A wireless access point I available on the floor for wireless users in the area. User 1 wants to send a file to user 2 using their laptop’s wireless adapters. Which of the following is the most secure way of sending files to one another using their current wireless adapters?

A. Using the ad hoc connection
B. Using a bus network connection
C. Using an infrastructure connection
D. Using a wireless mesh network

A

A. In an ad hoc technology, the wireless adapter allows connection to and from other devices

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8
Q

Which blade should an installer use that has a customizable blade on one end of the punch tool?

A. Krone
B. Bix
C. 110
D. 66

A

B. Bix panels are rare but still uses. The blades for these panels are adjustable on one end of the punch tool. They are similar to a 110 punch tool but

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9
Q

A tech configures a network to use an E-lines service. Compare and evaluate the choices to determine which network type the tech configures.

A. WAN
B. CAN
C. PAN
D. MAN

A

D. A MAN uses a service category such as an E-line, which establishes a point-to-point link or an E-LAN

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10
Q

An IT engineer considers optical mode OM1 or OM2 cables for a project. The project requires cables that are rated for apps up to 1 Gbps and use LED transmitters. Of the following choices, which type of cable does the engineer select to use?

A. Duplex
B. Multimode
C. Single mode
D. Bidirectional

A

B. Multimode fiber is inexpensive to deploy compared to single mode fiber and it does not support long distances

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11
Q

A network installer is building a long distance link. The nodes are approximately 10 km apart. What type of fiber link should the installer build for this link?

A. 100BASE-FX
B. 1000BASE-LX
C. 10GBASE-SR
D. 100BASE-SX

A

B. 1000BASE-LX is a gigabit ethernet standard and supports 1 Gbps and a distance of 10 km using single mode fiber

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12
Q

A network technician is installing a new router in a new wing of the corporate building. The technician needs to connect the new router to the core router. The router is about 300 feet away from the core router and requires a 100 Mbps connection. What type of connection should the technician building for the router?

A. Coaxial/RG-6
B. 10GBASE-T
C. 100BASE-TX
D. 10BASE-T

A

C. A 100BASE-TX refers to fast ethernet working over Cat 5 twisted pair copper cable for speeds up to 100 Mbps, and a maximum supported link length of 100 meters

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13
Q

A network administrator is setting up a 192.168.1.0/24 network using variable length subnet masking (VLSM) to support the sales and marketing department. The sales department has 120 computers and the marketing department has 50 computers. Which of the following Internet Protocol (IP) address configurations will provide adequate support for the marketing department? (Select all that apply.)

A. 192.168.1.0/25
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.255.224
D. 192.168.1.128/26

A

B & D.

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14
Q

A host with a Media Access Control (MAC) of 00:72:8b:31:8b:cb uses a global scope addressing scheme. Compose the MAC-derived address for the Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) 64.

A. 0272:8bff:ee31:8bcb
B. 0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb
C. 0072:8bff:fe31:8bcb
D. 0072:8bff:ee31:8bcb

A

B. Globally scoped unicast addresses are routable over the Internet and are the equivalent of public Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) addresses. A MAC address is 48 bits and an Extended Unique Identifier (EUI)-64 creates a 64-bit interface. The digits fffe are added in the middle of the address and the Universally Administered (U)/Locally Administered (L) bit is flipped. The proper EUI-64 in this scenario is 0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb.

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15
Q

A small office is utilizing a total of 25 Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to support various workstations and printers. One of the workstations has an IP address of 192.168.10.50. Which of the following are true about this network’s subnet? (Select all that apply.)

A. CIDR notation of /27
B. Subnet mask of 255.255.255.224
C. Broadcast address of 192.168.10.31
D. CIDR notation of /28

A

A & B. IP address 192.169.10.50 is part of the second subnet of the 192.168.10.0 network that is notated as 192.168.10.32/27. Its subnet mask is 255.255.255.224.

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16
Q

A system uses a private address to send a packet within the internal network. The address is ff02::1. Compare private address types and determine what type of address the system is using.

A. Multicast
B. Broadcast
C. Unicast
D. Internet Protocol (IP)

A

A. A multicast address identifies multiple network interfaces. Unlike Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) must support multicast. The first 8 bits indicate the address is within the multicast scope (1111 1111 or ff). The address ff02::1 has a target of all link-local nodes.

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17
Q

The hosts on a company’s network all use a public Internet Protocol (IP) address. The first octet in the IP range is 132. Determine which class the network belongs to after comparing the octet ranges of the following classes of addresses.

A. Class D
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class A

A

B. The company will require the use of a Class B public network. This network can have up to 65,534 hosts and the first octet of the address will range from 128-191. The first octet in the scenario is 132 and falls within this range.

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18
Q

A real estate agent is uploading photos of the latest listing onto the corporate website. Once the agent uploads the photos, they pass through multiple servers undergoing quality checks and sorting to ensure that they appear in the most relevant searches. What term best describes the passing of data from server to server?

A. TOR Switching
B. Branch office vs 0n-premises data center vs colocation
C. North-South
D. East-West

A

D. East-West is a term to describe traffic that travels or flows between server to server in a data center

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19
Q

The T11 ANSI standard can be a particularly expensive way to connect a SAN and involves three main types of components: the initiator, the target, and a director. What is the name of the standard described?

A. Fibre Channel
B. Application layer
C. North-South
D. iSCSI

A

A. The Fibre Channel connects SANs using 3 main types of components: the initiator, the target, and the Fibre Channel switch. The initiator is the client device of the SAN. The target is the network port for a storage device. The Fibre Channel switch, sometimes referred to as a director, provides the connections between the initiator and the target.

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20
Q

A restaurant chain’s corporate office connect via a hierarchical star network topology. What term does CompTIA use to describe the links that aggregate and distribute traffic from multiple different areas of the network?

A. Backbone
B. Control layer
C. Access/edge
D. Infrastructure layer

A

A. The term backbone describes that aggregate and distribute traffic from multiple different areas in the network

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21
Q

In a spine and leaf topology, there are two layers: the spine and the leaf. What do the top-tier switches in the spine layer compromise, even though neither link to one another?

A. Backbone
B. Control layer
C. Access/edge
D. Infrastructure layer

A

A. Backbone

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22
Q

An org looks to implement a solution where remote workers can access both cloud-based resources and on-premises data. Some users will use company issues laptops, while others will use personally owned desktop computers. Which solution does the IT department deploy?

A. A DaaS environment
B. A VPN
C. A hybrid cloud
D. A multitenancy environment

A

B. VPN

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23
Q

Office desktop computers and VoIP phones will most likely connect to this network device to communicate with other systems over the LAN.

A. AP
B. Wireless LAN controller
C. Layer 3 switch
D. SCADA system

A

C. A layer 3 capable switch is a standard switch optimized for routing between VLANs

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24
Q

A tech is reviewing the routing gateway protocols for the org under the AS control as a single owner. In reviewing the available protools, which one identifies routes within an AS?

A. IGP
B. EIGRP
C. TTL
D. RIP

A

A. An Interior Gateway Protocol is the protocol that identifies routes within an AS

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25
Q

A network architect has positioned multiple routers in different floor levels of a 10 story office building that will support the internal network of a large software company. Each routing device has redundant paths and connections. Which routing protocol would benefit the org’s hierarchical structure?

A. RIP
B. OSFP
C. BGP
D. EIGRP

A

B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link state type of routing protocol ideal for hierarchical systems and networks. OSPF is suitable for orgs with multiple redundant paths between networks

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26
Q

A network contractor is reviewing the algorithms used for path selection. The algorithms categorize according to the topology and metrics used to build and update a routing info base. It also prioritizes optimal or least-cost paths. What algorithm uses the number of hops to determine the destination as a metric?

A. Hybrid routing protocol
B. Routing info protocol
C. Distance vector
D. Static route

A

C. Distance vector protocols use the number of hops to the destination as the metric. The route with the fewest hops is the least cost path and the network will select it for use

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27
Q

A network engineer is reviewing the IP header fields and notices that the field reduces by one every time a packet forwards to a router. What is the name of this IP header field?

A. Static Route
B. EIGRP
C. TTL
D. Routing info protocol

A

C. The Time to Live IP header field reduces by one every time a packet forwards by a router. The TTL output field in the ping command shows the counter’s value when the packet arrives at its destination

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28
Q

A network admin made recommendations to an org to implement QoS features for video conferencing rooms and data networks. However, the op manager was unsure of its benefit. How would the net admin describe QoS to the manager? (Select all that apply)

A. The data plane handles the switching of traffic
B. The control plane decides how to prioritize traffic
C. The service is basically a traffic shaper
D. The management plane creates static routes

A

A, B & D. In terms of QoS, network functions divide into three planes. The control plane makes decisions about how to prioritize traffic and where it should switch them. The data plane handles the actual switching of traffic. This basically forwards packets through the router to their destination. Protocols, appliances, and software that can apply these three functions are known as traffic shapers or bandwidth shapers. Traffic shapers delay certain packet types—based on their content—to ensure that other packets have a higher priority.

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29
Q

Protocols, appliances, and software that can apply a control plan, data plane, and management plane to its network functionality are known as which of the following?

A. Border Gateway Protocol
B. Distance vector
C. Bandwidth shaper
D. Link state

A

C. Protocols, appliances, and software that apply these 3 functions are traffic shapers or bandwidth shapers. Traffic shapers delay certain packet types based on their content

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30
Q

The network monitoring software alerts to issues where packets are circulating between 2 routers before they get discarded. How would a net admin confirm this routing issue on the network?

A. Check if the TTL goes to 0
B. Check the ISP to ISP route
C. Check the routing table for next hop
D. Check the link state of the routers

A

A. The TTL IP header field reduces by one every time a router forwards a packet. When pinging a destination, the routing loop will eventually reduce the TTL value to 0

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31
Q

Which protocol would a switch authenticating via 802.1x mechanism use?

A. EAPoW
B. EAPoL
C. NAC
D. EAP-TLS

A

B. Under 802.1x, the device requesting access is the supplicant. The switch, referred to as the authenticator, enables the EAPoL protocol only and waits for the device to supply authentication data

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32
Q

A network manager for CBA company in Dallas, TX adds host Manage30 to AD. Manage30 is a client in the Management office. Utilize this information to design the distinguished name of the client.

A. DC=com, DC=CBA, ST=TX, L=Dallas, O=CBA, OU=Management, CN=Manage30

B. CN=Manage30, OU=Management, O=CBA, L=Dallas, ST=TX, DC=com, DC=CBA

C. OU=Management, CN=Manage300, O=CBA, L=Dallas, ST=TX, DC=com, DC=CBA

D. CN=Manage30, OU=Management, O=CBA, L=Dallas, ST=TX, DC=CBA, DC=com

A

A distinguished name is a unique identifier for any given resource within a X.500 directory. The most specific attribute is listed first, and successive attributes become progressively broader. In this scenario the client name (CN) is Manage30 and is the most specific attribute followed by the Organization (OU), Organization (O), Locality (L), State (ST), Domain Component (DC).

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33
Q

Communications on an ethernet network occur in which way?

A. Full duplex
B. Half duplex
C. Collision free
D. Non-Shared

A

A. In full-duplex ethernet cables, each node is cabled to a switch with a pair of circuits. One circuit is used for transmitting data to the switch, and the other for receiving data from it. Simultaneous transmission is the default setting but only occurs between the Ethernet cables switch and each node.

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34
Q

Ethernet’s collision detection mechanism results in any network communications to happen in which way?

A. Half duplex
B. Full duplex
C. Collision free
D. Non shared

A

A. The collision detection mechanism means that only half duplex transmission is possible.

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35
Q

Network switches at a small manufacturing firm use the ND protocol. Which features will the network benefit from as a result?

A. Hosts can configure IPv6 addresses automatically
B. Hosts are allowed to discover other nodes
C. Switches are organized into a hierarchy
D. Each switch determines the shortest path to the root

A

A & B. The neighbor discovery protocol features address autoconfig using IPv6 which allows a host to discover other nodes and routers on the local network

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36
Q

An installer is cabling a new building and is laying cable in every area of the building that may need a computer or telephone. What kid of cable is the installer laying?

A. UTP
B. STP
C. Fiber optic
D. Crossover cable

A

A. Installers often flood-wire modern buildings using UTP cabling, which involves laying cable in every location in the building that may need to support a telephone or computer

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37
Q

An admin is using a wire map tester to identify different types of issues with cabling. What kinds of issues can the wire map tester detect? (Select all that apply)

A. Incorrect pin-out
B. Bad port
C. Short
D. Continuinty

A

A, C & D.

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38
Q

A network is running slow. To determine why the admin wants detailed properties for the cable run, including how much attenuation, crosstalk, noise & resistance are on it. What tool should the admin use to get all this information?

A. OTDP
B. Multimeter
C. Spectrum analyzer
D. Cable tester

A

D. The admin should use a cable tester that reports detailed info on the cable’s physical and electrical properties, including crosstalk, attenuation, noise and resistance

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39
Q

A cable installer is using a special tool to affix an RJ-45 connector to an ethernet cable. What tool has this purpose?

A. Fusion splicer
B. Snips
C. Cable crimper
D. Punchdown tool

A

C. A cable crimper creates a patch cord and fixes a plug to a cable. The tools are specific to the connector and cable type, though some may have modular dies to support a range of RJ-type plugs

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40
Q

An admin manually configured a server’s NIC settings to run at 100Mbps and connected the server to the switch. However, communications between the server and other hosts on the network were extremely slow. When the admin checked the light on the server’s switch port, it was blinking amber. What kind of issue does this indicate?

A. Duplexing issue
B. Transceiver issue
C. Shielded cable issue
D. Short issue

A

A. Setting both a NIC and switch port to auto-negotiate will solve a duplex mismatch which will slow the link down by causing high packet loss and late collisions

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41
Q

An admin connected both a router and a gateway that has dissimilar media types. What kind of of issue does this solution remedy?

A. Short issue
B. Shielded cable issue
C. Transceiver issue
D. Duplexing issue

A

C. A transceiver converts from one media type to another, uses an appropriate ethernet standard and wavelength, and must match in pairs

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42
Q

IT security specialists respond to a security breach. An investigation determines that open service ports on an old server was the entry point for malicious activity. Which of the following utilities should the specialists use to determine the cause of the breach?

A. netstat
B. pathping
C. arp
D. dig

A

A. The netstat command allows for checking the state of ports on a local host

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43
Q

What is a device designed to filter and transfer data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks called?

A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Load balancer

A

A. A router connects two or more packet-switched networks.

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44
Q

An engineer connects two network devices together that do not have the auto-MDI/MDIX enabled by default. The devices each have a medium dependence interface (MDI) port. For the devices to properly communicate with one another, the engineer uses which type of cable?

A. Straight through
B. Crossover
C. Duplex
D. Bidirectional

A

B. If the auto-MDI/MDIX is not enabled, then connecting two MDI ports requires a crossover cable

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45
Q

A network admin is deciding which session control protocol they should use for their environment. Which of the following would they use?

A. RTP
B. SIP
C. EGP
D. RIP

A

B. The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is one of the most widely used session control protocols. SIP endpoints are the end user devices such as IP enabled handsets or client and server web conference software

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46
Q

Which of the following tools would a network admin use to make new network cables for the comm closet?

A. Crimper
B. Cable tester
C. OTDR
D. Punch down tool

A

A. Cable crimpers create network cables with terminated ends

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47
Q

A user is having trouble downloading a file from a file server. A network technician checks the connection and that pings commands are receiving replies. The technician can also browse correctly to the file server using Windows Explorer. What should the technician begin to troubleshoot and why? (Select all that apply)

A. The application layer
B. If the file application is misconfigured
C. Any TCP flags
D. The payload

A

A & B. The application layer is where the technician should begin to troubleshoot because the lower levels are verified to be working.

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48
Q

A linux admin is configuring a Linux server’s NIC. The server must have a static IP address for a Class C network. Settings must be verified. Analyze and select which commands would be most appropriate to run in this scenario. (Select all that apply)

A. ifconfig eth0 netmask 255.255.255.0
B. ifconfig eth0 broadcast 192.168.101.100
C. ifconfig eth0 192.168.101.120
D. ifconfig

A

The default static IP address is 192.168.101.120 and subnet mask is 255.255.255.0

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49
Q

An admin normally working on a remote server using RDP, loses the session abruptly. The admin pings the server and does not receive a reply. An RDP session is attempted again, and the admin can log in. Why was the admin unable to ping the server?

A. TCP traffic was blocked
B. IP traffic was not tunneled
C. ICMP traffic was blocked
D. IP traffic was not encrypted

A

C. ICMP is used for a status messaging and connectivity testing. An inbound rule blocking ICMP traffic using a firewall will prevent a reply if a ping command is used externally on the server

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50
Q

A network admin is trying to set up IP assignments to be automatic for all broadcast domains. How can they enable this for routers?

A. IP helper
B. Dynamic assignment
C. Stratum
D. DHCP relay

A

D. It can be configured to provide forwarding of DHCP traffic between subnets. Routers that can provide this type of forwarding are described as RFC 1542 compliant

50
Q

A network technician wants to create efficiencies in network traffic by implementing a device which applies micro-segmentation by establishing a point to point link between any two network nodes. Which of the following should they implement?

A. Access point
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Hub
D. Bridge

A

The switch establishes a point to point link between any two network nodes. This is referred to a micro-segmentation

51
Q

A data center architect is looking at access types and wants something that is cost effective. They are a smaller company so they are willing to take some risks to have a lower cost. What would a good solution for them be?

A. Colocation
B. Spine and leaf
C. Brand and office
D. On-prem

A

A. A company’s private servers and network appliances are installed in a data center that is shared by multiple tenants

52
Q

A helpdesk operator is reviewing the part of a MAC address which determines whether the free is addressed to an individual node or a group. What is this called?

A. OUI
B. EUI-64
C. I/G
D. VNF

A

C. The I/G bit of a MAC address determines whether the frame is addressed to an individual node (0) or a group (1). This latter is used for broadcast and multicast transmissions

53
Q

An engineer install fiber cable between two buildings on a large company campus. Which type of fiber optic cable does the engineer use?

A. Single-mode
B. UPC or QSFP+
C. F-type
D. Multimode

A

A. Single mode fiber cables support data dates up to 10 Gbps or better and cable runs of many km, depending on the quality of the cable and optics

54
Q

What access security controls are important to consider when managing remote access for network admins? (Select all that apply)

A. SSH
B. Authorization
C. Authentication
D. Remote Desktop connection

A

B & C. Authorization & authentication verifies a user and determines what rights and privileges each person has

55
Q

A network consultant reviews protocols to determine if bonded links between the switch ports and the end system were auto-negotiated? What is the name of this protocol?

A. MAC address tables
B. PoE+
C. VLAN
D. LACP

A

D. LACP, which can be used to auto-negotiate the bonded link between the switch ports and the end system, detects config errors and recovers from the failure of one of the physical links

56
Q

A security engineer is looking through packets to analyze possible malicious activity and is currently looking at the three-way handshake. What is the first step in that process?

A. Server sends a SYN/ACK
B. Server opens connection
C. Client sends ACK
D. TCP SYN to server

A

D. The first step is for the client to send a segment with the TCP flag SYN set to the server with a randomly generated sequence number. The client enters the SYN-SENT state

57
Q

A network technician is troubleshooting network issues between a workstation and a virtual server running a beta application. Network performance is lacking and there seems to be issues in the source and destination. Which command will provide the tech with the best info regarding other nodes between the workstation and the remote host?

A. dig
B. pathping
C. route
D. arp

A

B. The pathing command performs a trace route, then it pings each hop router a given number of times for a given period to determine the RTT and measure link latency more accurately. The output also shows packet loss at each hop

58
Q

A network specialist wants to use a widely accepted dial in user service that allows access over switches, wireless networks, and virtual private networks. What dial-in user service would meet the needs of the specialist and organization?

A. TACACS+
B. EAP
C. RADIUS
D. CVE

A

C. RADIUS is widely used for client device access over switches, wireless networks, and VPNs

59
Q

An engineer needs to connect a fiber connection to a network that uses cat5 twister pair cabling. Which of the following solutions will connect the two at the physical layer of the OSI reference model?

A. Media converter
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. Bridge

A

A. Standalone media converters are used to convert one cable type to another

60
Q

A network admin is deciding which session control protocol they should use for their environment. Which of the following would they use?

A. RTP
B. SIP
C. EGP
D. RIP

A

B. The SIP is one of the most widely used session control protocols. SIP endpoints are the end-user devices (also known as user agents), such as IP enabled handsets or client and server web conference software

61
Q

A user is having trouble connecting to the company’s WiFi network. They have verified that the password is correct and the network is indeed available. What could be a potential issue with the device not connecting?

A. AAA server
B. Captive portal
C. TLS settings
D. Encryption protocol mismatch

A

D. An EPM will cause the connection to fail, even if the correct credentials are supplied. Check OS drivers to verify authentication types/protocols on the device

61
Q

Which of the following DNS records can identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol?

A. PTR
B. SRV
C. TXT
D. NS

A

B. An SRV record is used to identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol. They are often used to locate VoIP or media servers

61
Q

An attacker used a malicious host with a spoofed physical address to perform cache poisoning and perpetuate an on-path attack. Which of the following can prevent these types of attacks? (Select all that apply)

A. MAC filtering
B. DHCP snooping
C. PNAC
D. ARP inspection

A

B & D. ARP inspection prevents a host attached to an untrusted port from flooding the segment with gratuitous ARP replies. ARP inspection maintains a trusted database of IP; ARP mappings. DHCP snooping is a type of switch port security setting that inspects DHCP traffic arriving on access ports to ensure that a host is not trying to spoof its MAC address

61
Q

A network tech is implementing a SDN. Which of the following layers would apply business logic to make decision about how traffic should be prioritized?

A. Access
B. Infrastructure
C. Management
D. Application

A

D. The application layer applies the business logic to make decisions about how traffic should be prioritized and secured and where it should be switched

62
Q

After a site survey, the network technician found the single wireless 2.4 Ghz AP in a large office floor space does not have a strong enough signal, and is contending a significant amount of background noise and interference. What will these findings most likely limit on the AP’s wireless signal?

A. They will limit the signal’s range
B. They will cause an overlap in channels
C. They will cause an absorption of the signal
D. They will cause connections to go over capacity

A

A. A low powered AP and background interference, such as other wireless signals in the same frequency band, will greatly reduce the distance, or reach, of the AP to other clients

62
Q

A systems admin installs a connectivity device that results in a high number of data collisions. Which device did the admin install?

A. Bridger
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. Media converter

A

A. A hub connects computers to a network in a star config. A hub lacks the features contained in a switch such as traffic control based on physical addressing

62
Q

A server admin has created a new virtual client to host printers on the network. When adding new printers to a server, the admin notices that print queue is freezing the OS when a new job comes to the server. What could the admin upgrade on the virtual server to help with the print queue load?

A. CPU usage
B. CRC errors
C. Memory
D. Link state

A

C. If system memory utilization is very high, an upgrade might be required, or a network issue may be present. Jobs stored in memory can cause problems with system processed if there is not enough memory to store open jobs

63
Q

A network engineer monitors the network and follows information packets as they move through the network from hosts to endpoints. What is the engineer observing?

A. Speed/duplex
B. Traffic logs
C. Send/receive traffic
D. Traps

A

B. Sending and reaching traffic involves the movement of information within a system

64
Q

Virtual hosts on the network have system clocks that are out of sync. After further investigation, the network admin configures the hosts to the sync system time with domain controllers. What may be causing these clocks to go out of sync? (Select all that apply)

A. The UDP port 123 is blocked
B. The TCP ports 636 and 143 are blocked
C. The TCP port 443is blocked
D. The NTP is misconfigured

A

A & D. NTP works over UDP port 123 & enables the synchronization of time dependent systems and software

64
Q

A network engineer must build out a server app for the businesses’ mail server. The engineer determine each components that is needed and how they will function holistically. What is the name of the processes that the engineer is using?

A. Router
B. UPS
C. Cloud site
D. Configuration

A

D. Configuration is the display or setup method selected to support a particular app role (web server, mail server, file/print server, etc)

65
Q

A systems admin wants to set up IPv4 forwarding for the purposes of load balancing and failover. Which of the following should they use?

A. Broadcast
B. Any-cast
C. Multicast
D. Unicast

A

B. Any-cast means that a group of hosts is configured with the same IP address. It allows for load balling and failover between the server hosts sharing the IP address

65
Q

After setting up an evil twin, the attacker could sniff information about the authentication process. Users tried to recorrect to a wireless network and unknowingly connected to the rouge AP. What type of attack did the hacker most likely use to get the user to connect to the rogue AP?

A. Shoulder surfing
B. De-authentication
C. DNS poisoning
D. Rouge DHCP

A

B. An evil twin may be couple with a de-authentication attack

66
Q

A systems architect is setting up traffic between an SDN controller and infrastructure devices through automation by scripts that call function. What direction of traffic is this considered to be?

A. West
B. East
C. North
D. South

A

D. The SDN controller and instructor device traffic are the “southbound” API calls. The principal innovation of SDN is to insert a control layer between the app layer and the instructor layer

67
Q

When an internet customer wants to set up a SOHO network, what are the main concerns with using a PSK wireless LAN authentication to encrypt communications? (Select all that apply)

A. A PSK is difficult to set up in general
B. Distribution of the key passphrase cannot be secured
C. A PSK fails to provide accounting
D. Periodically changing the key is difficult

A

B, C, & D.

68
Q

An admin is looking at the network diagram that shows the data path between a client and server what kind of diagram is the admin looking at? (Select all that apply)

A. IDF
B. Wiring diagram
C. Logical network diagram
D. Physical network diagram

A

B, C, & D.

68
Q

What allows fine-grained control over traffic parameters?

A. Class of Service
B. Traffic shaping
C. Quality of service
D. Differentiated services

A

C

69
Q

Which technology offers a mode for simultaneous two-way communication?

A. Multimode
B. Bidirectional
C. Crossover
D. Duplex

A

D. Duplex is a communication configuration

70
Q

A technical recently installed a VoIP phone at a user’s desk. The workstation is not able to browse the internet. The VoIP phone connects directly to theLAN, and the workstation connects to the phone in a daisy chain fashion. Other devices can connect successfully to the phone. At which layer of the OSI model would a network technician lost likely continue troubleshooting?

A. Session
B. Application
C. Physical
D. Network

A

D. The network layer is responsible for moving data around a network and routing data packets with IP addresses

71
Q

An IT engineer uses the Nmap utility to document a network. The documentation will then help the engineer plan network improvements. Which of the following describes the use of Nmap for this purpose?

A. Packet capturing
B. Systems hardening
C. Route discovery
D. Logical to physical address mapping

A

B. The Nmap Security Scanner is widely used for scanning remote hosts and networks, both as an auditing and a penetration testing tool. Results can be used to harden systems

72
Q
A
73
Q

A network technician is implementing a software defined network. Which of the following layers would apply business logic to make decisions about how traffic should be prioritized?

A. Access
B. Infrastructure
C. Management
D. Application

A

D. The application layer applies the business logic to make decisions about how traffic should be prioritized and secured and where it should be switched

74
Q

An attacker used a malicious host with a spoofed physical address to perform cache poisoning and perpetuate an on path attack. Which of the following can prevent these types of attacks? (Select all that apply)

A. MAC Filtering
B. DHCP Snooping
C. PNAC
D. ARP

A

B & D.

75
Q

A user is having trouble connecting to the company’s WiFi network. They have verified that the password is correct and the network is indeed available. What could be a potential issue with the device not connecting?

A. AAA server
B. Captive portal
C. TLS settings
D. Encryption protocol mismatch

A

D. It causes the connection to fail, even if the correct credentials are supplied. Check OS drivers or verify auth types/protocols on the device

76
Q

Which of the following DNS records can identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol?

A. PTR
B. SRV
C. TXT
D. NS

A

B. A SRV record is used to identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol. They are often used to locate VoIP or media servers

77
Q

A server admin has created a new virtual client to host printers on the network. When adding new printers to the server, the admin notices that the print queue is freezing the OS when a new job comes to the server. What could the admin upgrade on the virtual server to help with the print queue load?

A. CPU usage
B. CRC errors
C. Memory
D. Link state

A

C. If system memory utilization is very high, an upgrade might be required, or a network issue may be present. Jobs stored in memory can cause problems with system processes if there is not enough memory to store open jobs

78
Q

An IT security employee discovered a rogue AP and traced the activity to a smartphone tethered to a workstation on the corporate network.. What would this type of attack allow a malicious user to do? (Select all that apply)

A. Force clients to authenticate to the AP
B. Capture logon attempts
C. Allow access to private information
D. Perform on path attacks

A

B, C, & D

79
Q

A school with no resources stages enterprise mobility management solution for their planned “BYOD” program. A network analyst will caution them about obstacles they will need to mitigate as a successful part of this rollout. What are the obstacles? (Select all that apply)

A. Compatibility
B. Misconfigured firewall
C. Security
D. Feature licensing

A

A & C

80
Q

A working physical server is experiencing network connectivity issues after switching connections to another physical port on a basic layer two stitch. Identify the most likely problem with the switch

A. Incorrect cable type
B. Blocked TCP ports
C. Duplicate IP address
D. Hardware failure

A

D. A bad physical port or a hardware failure is most likely the cause of the issue, as the connection to the previous physical switch port was working fine

81
Q

A DT needs to secure the cryptographic keys under lock and key to ensure that insider threats do not have access to take them from the building. What item is the logical way to achieve this?

A. Locking racks
B. ACV
C. Smart lockers
D. Locking cabinets

A

D. A locking cabinet can provide secure storage for individual items, such as cryptographic keys or shared password lists

82
Q

A company recently set up a new wireless network for guests and vendors that does not require a network key. Users have reported connecting to this new network fails when the device connects and automatically loads the CP web page. What two items should be verified in troubleshooting the CP setup (Select all that apply)

A. A trust cert is installed
B. VPN settings are correct
C. Client disassociation settings
D. The captive portal page URL starts with https://

A

A & D.

83
Q

After troubleshooting intermittent network connectivity issues with a user, the results of an ifconfig show different network settings that the enterprise uses. What could be the cause of this result?

A. DHCP server is offline
B. A rogue DHCP server
C. APIPA malfunction
D. DHCP scope exhaustion

A

B. If two DHCP servers are running on the same subnet, clients could have an incorrect IP configuration because they have obtained a lease from a rogue server

84
Q

A network tech is looking a various administrative distances to see which route would be selected first. Which of the following would have the lowest administrative distance?

A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. Unknown
D. EIGRP

A

B. BGP has an administrative distance of 20

85
Q

Which of the following options are reasons to NOT use WPA2 (Select all that apply)

A. WPA2 devices cannot be upgraded
B. WPA2 is not supported by some adapters
C. WPA2 is not supported by some OS’
D. WPA2 is not supported by some APs

A

B, C, & D

86
Q

WEP & WPA both utilize which of the following encryption ciphers?

A. TKIP
B. AES
C. CCMP
D. RC4

A

D. WEP’s encryption system (based on the PC4 encryption cipher) is flawed

87
Q

A network engineer monitors the network and follows information packets as they move through the network from hosts to endpoints. What is the engineer observing?

A. Send/receive traffic
B. Traffic logs
C. Traps
D. Speed/duplex

A

A. Sending and receiving traffic involves the movement of information within a system

88
Q

A network admin is setting up the protocol for identifying routes within an AS. Which of the following is this?

A. IGP
B. EGP
C. AS
D. RIP

A

A. An IGP identifies routes within an AS.

89
Q

A network architect is designing a new network with a 3 tiered hierarchy. Which of the following is not part of the traditional hierarchy?

A. Core
B. Access
C. Control
D. Distribution

A

C. A control layer is not part of the traditional hierarchy but it is part of the software-defined networking. The principle innovation of SDN is to insert a control layer between the app layer and infrastructure layer

90
Q

A engineer needs to connect a fiber connection to a network that uses CAT5 twisted pair cabling. Which of the following solutions will connect the two at the physical layer of the OSI reference model?

A. Media converter
B. Switch
C. Bridge
D. Hub

A

A. Standalone media converters are used to convert one cable type to another

91
Q

A network tech is setting up a router in a central office that connects multiple tunneled remote sites. What type of device is this?

A. DSL modem
B. Load balancer
C. Proxy server
D. VPN headend

A

D. A network tech installed a VPN headend in the central office or hub. It needs to be a powerful machine capable of aggregating high traffic volumes

92
Q

An email admin is settings up records for their new cluster of mail servers. What must each of their MX records point to?

A. CNAME
B. A
C. DKIM
D. Root MX record

A

B. The host identified in an MX record must have an associated A or AAAA record

93
Q

What describes what happens when traffic is recirculated and amplified by loops in the switching topology?

A. Routing loop
B. Broadcast Storm
C. Asymmetrical routing
D. Hardware failure

A

B. In a broadcast storm, traffic is recirculated and amplified by looks in a switching topology, causing network slowdowns and crashing switches

94
Q

A network consultant implements a switch port security feature that will block router advertisement packets from unauthorized sources. What is the name of this feature?

A. MAC filtering
B. Port security
C. RA guard
D. Captive portal

A

C. With Router advertisement guard, switch port security feature blocks RA packets from unauthorized sources

94
Q

A help-desk operator is reviewing the part of a MAC address which determine whether a frame is addressed to an individual node or a group. What is it called?

A. VNF
B. I/G
C. OUI
D. EUI-64

A

B. The I/G bit of a MAC address determines whether the frame iOS addressed to an individual node (0) or a group (1). The latter is used for a broadcast and multicast transmissions

95
Q

An administrator normally working on a remote server using RDP, loses the session abruptly. The admin pings the server and does not receive a reply. An RDP session is attempted again, and the admin can log in. Why was the admin unable to ping the server?

A. IP traffic was not tunneled
B. TCP traffic was blocked
C. IP traffic was not encrypted
D. ICMP traffic was blocked

A

D. ICMP is used for status messaging and connectivity testing

96
Q

A criminal enacts a phishing scheme to trick a user into clicking a malicious link. As a result, the user is no longer able to access their work files. A popup message on the computer states that without paying a fee, the files are lost forever. Which attack type has the criminal executed on the user’s files? (Select all that apply)

A. Pharming
B. Ransomware
C. Crypto-malware
D. Spyware

A

B & C.

97
Q

Which of the following DNS records can identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol?

A. SRV
B. TXT
C. NS
D. PTR

A

A. An SRV record is used to identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol

98
Q

A network engineer performs maintenance of a collection of workstations that communicate together and provide a bridge to a cabled network segment. What type of set did they observe?

A. Extended service
B. MIMO
C. Basic service
D. Channel binding

A

C. The AP mediates communications between client devices and can also provide a bridge to a cabled network segment. In 802.11 documentation, this is referred to as an infrastructure Basic Service Set

99
Q

A network technician is troubleshooting network issues between a workstation and a virtual server running a beta app. Network performance is lacking and there seems to be issues in between the source and destination. Which command will provide the tech with the best information regarding other nodes between the workstation and the remote host?

A. route
B. dig
C. pathping
D. arp

A

C. The pathping command performs a trace route, then it pings each hop router a given number of times for a given period to determine the RTT and measure latency more accurately. The output also shows packet loss at each hop

100
Q

An engineer uses fiber optic cable for a run within a building to a centralized fiber distribution panel in a network closet. Which type of transceiver does the engineer use to achieve 40 GbE speed?

A. mini-GBIC
B. QSFP
C. SFP+
D. Bix

A

B. QSFP is a transceiver form factor designed to support 40 GbE plus other high bandwidth apps

101
Q

A sysadmin is investigating alerts that say “ICMP Time Exceeded error messages.” What should the sysadmin investigate first?

A. Routing loops
B. Incorrect VLAN
C. Switching loops
D. Asymmetrical routing

A

A. Occurs when two routers use one another as the path to a network. Packets are caught in a routing loop circle around until the TTL expires. One symptom of a potential routing loop is for routers to generate ICMP Time Exceeded error messages

102
Q

Which of the following tools would a network admin use to make new network cables for the comm closet?

A. Punch down tool
B. Cable tester
C. Crimper
D. OTDR

A

C. A cable crimper is used to create network cables with terminated ends such as a patch cable. Different types of crimpers are specific to the type of connector and cable

103
Q

An engineer plans to configure a device as transparent, at an org. What device does the engineer configure?

A. Firewall
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer

A

B. A proxy server is used as a middle man for internet access. A transparent proxy is configured on an inline device, while a nontransparent proxy is configured on a client machine

104
Q

Which type of encryption cipher is used in WPA2 (Select all that apply)

A. PC4/TKIP
B. AES
C. RC4
D. CCMP

A

B & D. The main difference to the original iteration of WPA is the use of AES for encryption. AES is stronger that RC4/TKIP and replaces RC4 found in WEP & its paired with CCMP

105
Q

The IT floor of a bank building contains servers that hold confidential data and the bank needs to regulate access to sensitive areas within the building. Analyze the scenario to determine which options can be implemented to allow employees to authenticate through locked barriers. (Select all that apply)

A. Smart badge
B. RFIP
C. Cameras
D. Biometric device

A

A & D

106
Q

An attacker plants a device in a native subnet and sends traffic to a computer on an external subnet to deform a DoS attack against the host in the external subnet. What type of attack is this?

A. On path
B. Deauth
C. VLAN hopping
D. Brute force

A

D. VLAN hopping is designed to send traffic to a VLAN other than the one the host system is on.

107
Q

A network admin needs to upgrade a switch firmware remotely. The firmware bits must be transferred over the LAN with or without encryption. Which of the following options is connection oriented and guarantees delivery in this manner? (Select all that apply)

A. FTPS
B. TFTP
C. FTP
D. SFTP

A

B, C, & D. FTP is a connection oriented protocol. It uses TCP port 20 for a data connection and TCP port 21 as a control port. TCP provides a connection oriented, guaranteed method of comm. SFTP provides a secure channel for transferring file operating over TCP 22.

108
Q

An IT engineer works with desktop installation techs who reply new computers to users. The installation techs report that users in one area of the building do not achieve network speeds above 100 Mbps. After evaluating the cabling choices, the IT engineer determine that the problem area uses which type of cabling?

A. Cat 5
B. Cat 6
C. Cat 3
D. Cat 5e

A

A. ANSI and the TIA/EIA have created categories and standards for twisted pair cabling. Cat 5 supports a max speed of 100 Mbps

109
Q

A systems admin is planning a change to a resource record. Which value should they modify prior to the change in order to speed up caching replacement?

A. A
B. Stratum
C. TTL
D. PTR

A

C. Each resource record can be configured with a default TTL value, measured in seconds. If there is a change to a resource record, server and client caching means that the updated record can be relatively slow to propagate

110
Q

A network specialist received a port failure on UDP port 162. What agent is detecting the notable event?

A. Traps
B. OIDs
C. Syslog
D. CPU

A

A. A trap is an agent that informs the monitor of a notable event (port failure, for instance). The threshold for triggering traps can be set for each value. Device queries take place over UDP port 162; traps are communicated over UDP port 162

111
Q

An engineer needs to connect a fiber connection to a network that uses category 5 twisted pair cabling. Which of the following solutions will connect the two at the physical layer of the OSI reference model?

A. Hub
B. Media converter
C. Bridge
D. Switch

A

B. Standalone media converters are used to convert one cable type to another

112
Q
A
113
Q
A
114
Q
A

CompTIA (4 decks)

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