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SAM III > MT I - PQ > Flashcards

MT I - PQ Flashcards

1
Q

Cyanotic mucous membranes are related to..
A) Acute left heart failure
B) right heart failure
C) shock
D) anemia

A

C) shock

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2
Q

. Why is the multifil suture material not recommended by the surgeries on the gastrointestinal organs?
A) Expensive
B) High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage (caused by the suture material)
C) Tensile security properties are worse
D)Knot security properties are worse

A

B) High risk of septic consequences because of the drainage (caused by the suture material)

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3
Q

According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006) which of the following liver biopsy technique caused remarkable (mon than 2 ml) bleeding?
A) ligature-biopsy
B) laparoscopic „pinch” biopsy
C) needle biopsy
D) none of them

A

D) none of them

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4
Q

The most common indication of subtotal colectomy in cats is
A) Congenital megacolon
B) Primary idiopathic megacolon
C) Secondary idiopathic megacolon
D) Tertiary idiopathic megacolon

A

B) Primary idiopathic megacolon

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5
Q

Clinical signs of acute colitis in dog, cat
A) A large amount, watery diarrhea
B) Small amount, pudding-like, mucoid, bloody (haematochezia) diarrhea
C) A small amount, watery diarrhea with undigested food
D) Large amount, mucoid, melenic diarrhea

A

B) Small amount, pudding-like, mucoid, bloody (haematochezia) diarrhea

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6
Q

In which of the following diseases does megaoesophagus not occur?
A) Cushing’s disease
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Addison’s disease
D) Hypothyreosis

A

A) Cushing’s disease

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7
Q

In which of the following diseases does megaoesophagus not occur?
A) Cushing’s disease
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Addison’s disease
D) Hypothyreosis

A

A) Cushing’s disease

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus (GDV)?
A) The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders
B) There is also a chronic form of GDV
C) GDV is usually of acute onset
D) GDV starts right after the latest feeding

A

D) GDV starts right after the latest feeding

I think this is correct. someone said B

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9
Q

. Which of the followings can not cause hepatic icterus?
A) hepatic cirrhosis
B) cholelithiasis
C) cholangiohepatitis
D) liver tumor

A

B) cholelithiasis

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10
Q

Which of the following procedures has a modification called ,,Roux-en-Y” technique?
A) Choledochotomy
B) Cholecystectomy
C) Cholecystoduodenostomy
D) Cholecystojejunostomy

A

D) Cholecystojejunostomy

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11
Q

What does ‘epulis’ mean?
A) Benign papillomatous mass on the gingiva
B) Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva
C) Benign melanoid mass on the gingiva
D) Malignant fibromatous mass on the gingiva

A

B) Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

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12
Q

Which of the followings can cause praehepatic icterus
A) hemolysis
B) extrahepatic biliary duct occlusion
C) hepatic lipidosis
D) hepatic cirrhosis

A

A) hemolysis

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13
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding linear foreign body caused small intestinal obstruction?
A) It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
B) It usually requires multiple GI incisions
C) latrogenic perforation might be caused
D) Multiple Gl incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single Gl opening

A

A) It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy

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14
Q

Which procedure is adequate for irreponable cecum inversion?
A) typhlotomy
B) typhlectomy
C) appendectomy
D) subtotal colectomy

A

B) typhlectomy

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15
Q

Which of these is characteristic of regurgitation?
A) Nausea
B) Retching
C) It is not preceded by a phase of nausea
D) Bile in the content

A

C) It is not preceded by a phase of nausea

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16
Q

Pancreatitis
A) Radiology is essential for its diagnosis
B) is an inflammatory disorder of the endocrine part of the pancreas
C) is very rare in cats
D) can occur in mild as well as in severe, fatal forms

A

D) can occur in mild as well as in severe, fatal forms

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17
Q

Which statement is NOT correct about canine PSS?
A) The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs.
B) In congenital portosystemic shunt, the nervous symptoms are usually episodic
C) The symptoms of the portosystemic shunt can worsen after the feeding of protein-rich food (meat) D) The postprandial bile acid level of the blood is higher than normal in portosystemic shunts

A

A) The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs.

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18
Q

Which is associated with portal hypertension
A) Hepatic microvascular dysplasia
B) Arterio-portal /arterio-venosus fistula
C) Congenital portosystemic shunt
D) Hepatic lipidosis

A

B) Arterio-portal /arterio-venosus fistula

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19
Q

Which statement is NOT correct about feline hepatic lipidosis?
A) It is characterized by intrahepatic cholestasis.
B) The bile acid, bilirubin, ALT and ALP are elevated in the blood. However, GGT can be disproportionally low.
C) The clinical signs are the obese cat has weight loss, icterus, ptyalism, coagulopathy, and hepatomegaly
D) Elevated lipoprotein synthesis due to fasting, thereby decreases the triglyceride level in the liver

A

D) Elevated lipoprotein synthesis due to fasting, thereby decreases the triglyceride level in the liver

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20
Q

Which statement is correct about canine portosystemic shunt (PSS)?
A) The level of the ammonia is usually low in the blood in a portosystemic shunt.
B) The intrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs mainly in small breed dogs
C) The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs mainly in large breeds.
D) In portal hypertension, the acquired portosystemic shunts will reopen in case of blood pressure differences

A

D) In portal hypertension, the acquired portosystemic shunts will reopen in case of blood pressure differences

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21
Q

Which oral region is the mostly affected one by oral tumours?
A) Soft palate
B) Hard palate
C) Gingiva
D) Tongue

A

C) Gingiva

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22
Q

. Which of the following statements is correct? The injuries of the tongue are A) not to be operated on
B) mostly heal with complications
C) mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures
D) always to be regarded as contaminated

A

D) always to be regarded as contaminated

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23
Q

Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal intussusception?
A) Palpation of the invaginatied intestinal section
B) Positive contrast abdominal Gl radiography
C) Lack of feces
D) Vomiting

A

A) Palpation of the invaginatied intestinal section

???

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24
Q

Which of the followings can cause praehepatic icterus?
A) hemolysis
B) extrahepatic biliary duct occlusion
C) hepatic lipidosis
D) hepatic cirrhosis

A

A) hemolysis

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25
Q

What is the major difference between midline and incisional gastropexy?
A) Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst the incisional operates with penetrating sutures
B) The techniques fix different areas of the stomach
C) In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done unlike midline gastropexy D) Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

A

B) The techniques fix different areas of the stomach

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26
Q

Sutureing of an oesophagotomy wound
A) Monofil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2 layers
B) Multifil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2 layers
C) Monofil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted/continous suture pattern, in 1 layer
D) Monofil, non absorable suture material, simple interrupted/ continous suture pattern, in 1 layer

A

C) Monofil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted/continous suture pattern, in 1 layer

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27
Q

Granulomatous colitis is caused by
A) Campylobacter coli
B) Enteropathogenic E coli (EPEC)
C) Adherent-invasive E coli (AIEC)
D) Clostridium perfringens

A

C) Adherent-invasive E coli (AIEC)

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28
Q

Suturing of an enterotomy wound

A

A) Monofil, absorable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern, in 2 layers

o Suturing (single layer(monofilament), interrupted or continuous)

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29
Q

The suggested treatment option of severe FORL (Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions) in cat
A) Chemotherapy
B) A vitamine for 8 weeks
C) Topical Chlorhexidine for 8 weeks
D) Total tooth extraction or crown amputation

A

D) Total tooth extraction or crown amputation

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30
Q

Adherent invasive ecoli (AIEC) causes
A) Neutrophylic cholangitis
B) Acute haemorrhagic diarrhea syndrome (AHDS)
C) Granulomatosus colitis
D) Chronic active hepatitis

A

C) Granulomatosus colitis

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31
Q

Which statement is NOT correct?
A) The antidote of the acetaminophen toxicosis is the N-acetylcysteine
B) The congenital PSS always leads to ascites due to portal hypertension
C) Antiepileptic therapy could cause elevated ALP, ALT and GGT level in the dog. D) Potentiated sulphonamide therapy can cause destructive cholangitis in the dog

A

B) The congenital PSS always leads to ascites due to portal hypertension

NO ascites - due to Portal hypotension

32
Q

In case of intestinal obstraction
A) acute vomiting is the most characteristic symptom
B) urgent gastric lavage is required
C) profuse, bloody diarrhea is the most characteristic symptom D) most of the cases can be managed with conservative therapy

A

A) acute vomiting is the most characteristic symptom

???

33
Q

. Which of the following methods is to be chosen as first in case of foreign body caused caudal thoracic (prediagphragmatic) oesophageal obstruction?
A) Pushing-down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
B) Endoscopic removal
C) Laparotomy + gastrotomy+ transluminal foreign body removal
D) Thoracotomy + Oesophagotomy

A

B) Endoscopic removal

34
Q

Which is the first layer You have to close if You have a median laparotomy wound?
A) Rectus sheet
B) Subcutis
C) falciform ligament
D) Peritoneum

A

D) Peritoneum

35
Q

NOT characteristic of small bowel diarrhoea
A) large amount, watery feces
B) small amount, mucous feces with streaks of fresh blood on the surface C) melaena
D)

A

B) small amount, mucous feces with streaks of fresh blood on the surface

36
Q

Which suture technique is recommended for the closure of the colon in cat A) Single layer simple interrupted
B) Single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous
C) Single or double layer but always simple interrupted
D) Single or double layer but always simple continuous

A

D) Single or double layer but always simple continuous

??

37
Q

Which breed is not predisposed for primer Cu accumulation?
A) Bedlington terrier
B) German shepherd
C) Labrador retriever
D) Dalmation

A

C) Labrador retriever

38
Q

In case of parvoviral enteritis
A) maropitant can be used as an antiemetic drug
B) the patient musn’t be fed till it has diarrhea
C) monotherapy with appropriate antiviral drug is enough for recovery D) the application of antibiotics is harmful and not suggested

A

A) maropitant can be used as an antiemetic drug

39
Q

Application of antibiotics in case of diarrhea is
A) Forbidden
B) Always necessary
C) Necessary in the event of risk of sepsis
D) Necessary only in the event of bacterial enteritis

A

C) Necessary in the event of risk of sepsis

40
Q

Which of the following surgical procedures of the pancreas has the relatively lowest risk of complication? A) partial pancreatectomy
B) total pancreatectomy
C) pancreatic abscess-omentalisation
D) pancreas-excision biopsy

A

C) pancreatic abscess-omentalisation

???

41
Q

Which of the followings is not typical for vomitus?
A) Preceded by nausea
B) Active muscle contractions
C) Presence of gastric chyme
D) Eating the content

A

D) Eating the content

42
Q

Dentine in dogs
A) Is capable of repair in living tooth
B) Dentine layer is thickening toward enamel during production
C) Comprises more than 98% inorganic elements
D) Is continuously narrowing during aging

A

A) Is capable of repair in living tooth

Dead tooth = no dentin production.

B) Dentine layer is thickening toward enamel during production –> Narrowing pulp chamber - Not enamel
C) Comprises more than 98% inorganic elements –> True for enamel

43
Q

Which is the first choice drug in the treatment of primer Cu accumulation? A) D-penicillamine
B) N-acetylcystein
C) Cyclosporine
D) Amoxycillin

A

A) D-penicillamine

44
Q

For which of the following diseases is regurgitation not a typical symptom?
A) Myasthenia gravis
B) Persistent right aortic arch
C) Persistent ductus arteriosus
D) Spirocercosis

A

C) Persistent ductus arteriosus

??

45
Q

Which clinical signs are characteristic for gastric diseases?
A) Vomiting, hematemesis, anorexia
B) Hematemesis, abdominal pain, regurgitation
C) Dyspnea, vomiting, fever
D) Odynophagia, hematemesis, weight loss

A

A) Vomiting, hematemesis, anorexia

46
Q

The chronic inflammatory enteropathy (CIE)
A) involves lymphangiectasia as its subgroup
B) is one of the chronic form of bacterial enteritis
C) can result in protein-losing enteropathy
D) is not known in cats

A

B) is one of the chronic form of bacterial enteritis

??

47
Q

What does „sceletonisation” mean?
A) Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected
B) V-shaped excision of the mesentery
C) Excision of the affected intestinal section
D) Suturing of the V-shaped mesenteric defect

A

A) Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected

48
Q

Which of the followings does usually not cause large intestinal obstruction in small animals? A) Colic tumour
B) Constipation
C) Colic dislocation
D) Foreign body

A

D) Foreign body

???

49
Q

Number of permanent teeth in dogs
A) 32
B) 38
C) 40
D) 42

A

D) 42

28 = Temporary. In cat = 26 Temporary and 30 Permanent.

50
Q

Which component is responsible for the closure of PSS in case of Ameroid. ring constrictor?
A) Celophane
B) Silk
C) Casein
D) Nylon

A

C) Casein

51
Q

Which type of small intestinal obstrution has usually the poorest prognosis?
A) Linear foreign body foreign test
B) obturation
C) ileus
D) Mesenteric torsion

A

D) Mesenteric torsion

52
Q

Which of the followings is not typical for regurgitation?
A) Develops spontaneously
B) Preceded by nausea
C) Undigested food
D) Passive backflow

A

B) Preceded by nausea

53
Q

Which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV?
A) Stabilisation - gastrocentesis - adequate narcosis- surgery - orogastric tubation and gastric lavage
B) Stabilisation - gastric lavage-gastrocentesis - surgery.
C) Stabilisation and gastrocentesis - adequate narciosis - orogastric tubation and gastric lavage - surgery. D) Stabilisation - orogastric tubation and gastric lavage - gastrocentesis - adequate narcosis - surgery

A

C) Stabilisation and gastrocentesis - adequate narciosis - orogastric tubation and gastric lavage - surgery.

54
Q

Which food component’s amount should be increased in case of acute large bowel diarrhea?
A) fat
B) protein
C) fiber
D) carbohydrate

A

C) fiber

55
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus (GDV)?
A) The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders
B) There is also a chronic form of GDV
C) GDV is usually of acute onset
D) GDV starts right after the latest feeding

A

D) GDV starts right after the latest feeding

?

56
Q

extracardiac murmurs typically
A) have maximum point
B) have no maximum point
C) Are due to valvular insuffitiency
D) are always systolic

A

D) are always systolic

57
Q

Which statement is NOT correct about EOGC (eosinophil granuloma complex) in cat
A) eosinophilia can be detected in the blood
B) allergy is suspected in the pathogenesis
C) can be diagnosed only by X-ray
D) in the treatment the cyclosporin is a good option

A

C) can be diagnosed only by X-ray

58
Q

Which clinical signs are charactheristic for the following oesophageal diseases?
A) Oesophagitis: odynophagia, regurgitation, salivation, food refusal
B) Oesophageal foreign body: regurgitation, salivation, sometimes distended abdomen
C) Spirocercosis: regurgitation, vomiting, weight loss, coughing, dyspnea, rarely sudden death
D) All statements are true

A

D) All statements are true

59
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning perianal adenoma?
A) It is uncommon in females
B) It mostly occurs in males
C) It mainly originates from circumanal glands
D) It originates from the anal sac in females

A

B) It mostly occurs in males

60
Q

Which of the pancreatic areas is the most accessible for surgical manipulation?
A) The cranial part of the right lobe
B) The caudal part of the right lobe
C) The left part of the left lobe
D) The right part of the left lobe

A

B) The caudal part of the right lobe

??

61
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of diffuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery?
A) Billroth I gastroduodenostomy
B) Partial gastrectomy
C) Euthanasia
D) Reposition and gastropexy

A

A) Billroth I gastroduodenostomy

62
Q

NOT true for EPI (exocrin pancreas insufficiency)
A) There is breed predilection among German Shepherd dogs
B) It is diagnosed with TLI-measurement
C) Enzyme supplementation is necessary for life long
D) Inappetence and recurrent large bowel diarrhea are typical

A

D) Inappetence and recurrent large bowel diarrhea are typical

63
Q

Gastropexy: what does it mean?
A) The gastric wall is sutured to the liver.
B) The duodenum is sutured to the abdominal wall
C) The omentum is sutured to the gastric wall
D) The gastric wall is sutured to the abdominal wall

A

D) The gastric wall is sutured to the abdominal wall

64
Q

Suggested additional examination in mild, acute small bowel diarrhea
A) Tritrichomonas PCR examination
B) gastroduodenoscopy and biopsy
C) cobalamin concentration measurement
D) fecal parasitology

A

C) cobalamin concentration measurement

65
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding salivary mucocele? A) Its etiology can be either traumatic or inflammatory
B) It is common in poodle
C) Its one of the effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst
D) It definitely indicates surgery

A

C) Its one of the effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst

66
Q

Characteristics of lymphangiectasia
A) severe, chronic large bowel diarrhoea
B) ascites, poor body condition
C) polyphagia, obesity
D) hyperproteinaemia

A

B) ascites, poor body condition

67
Q

Which of the following conditions indicates liver lobectomy?
A) superficial liver rupture
B) diffuse hepatomegaly
C) liver abscess
D) cholelithiasis

A

C) liver abscess

Rupture, tumor (hepatocellular carcinoma, biliary carcinoma - more aggressive), cyst/abscess, liver lobe torsion (infrequent)

68
Q

Which procedure is adequate for irreponable cecum inversion?
A) typhlotomy
B) typhlectomy
C) appendectomy
D) subtotal colectomy

A

B) typhlectomy

69
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body?
A) The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 90%
B) The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure
C) Gastric foreign body may cause perforation
D) Oral feeding can be started 4 to 6 hours after gastrotomy

A

D) Oral feeding can be started 4 to 6 hours after gastrotomy

70
Q

NOT suggested medication in IBD (idopathic inflammatory bowel disease)
A) azatioprine for cats
B) prednisolone
C) cyclosporine
D) budesonide

A

A) azatioprine for cats

71
Q

.Which BAOS surgery technique causes less wide soft palate?
A) FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty)
B) Soft palate resection
C)Tonsillectomy
D) Sacculectomy

A

A) FFPP (folded flap palatoplasty)

???

72
Q

For which of the following diseases is vomitus not a typical symptom?
A) Irritable bowel syndrome
B) Acute pancreatitis
C) Acute kidney injury
D) ileus

A

A) Irritable bowel syndrome

73
Q

Which statement is correct?
A) ALP has the following isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid-induced.
B) The bile acid, bilirubin, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis.
C) The bilirubinuria is always pathologic in the dog, associated with hyperbilirubinaemia.
D) ALT and AST are cholestatic enzymes

A

B) The bile acid, bilirubin, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis.

74
Q

Which additional laboratory parameter should be measured in case of an old cat whith diarrhea?
A) crp
B) T4 level
C) Calcium level
D) ALT level

A

B) T4 level

75
Q

Which of the followings is the least effective in German shepherds’ perineal fistulation?
A) fistulectomy
B) cyclosporine
C) About prednisolone
D) conservative management

A

A) fistulectomy

SAM III (1 decks)

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