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Year 2 extra > MSK extra > Flashcards

MSK extra Flashcards

1
Q

Adults have __% cortical bone, __% trabecular bone.

A

80
20

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2
Q

PTH acts on the kidney to increase reabsorption of calcium within the ________ tubule of the nephron and to increase phosphate secretion in the ________ tubule of the nephron.

A

Distal
Proximal

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3
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency leads to soft bones

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4
Q

What is the precursor of a skeletal cell?

A

Satellite cell

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5
Q

Osteoclasts bind to the bone matrix via which receptors?

A

Integrin

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6
Q

What is the main component of bone ECM?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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7
Q

Premature osteocyte death occurs in…

A

osteoporosis.

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8
Q

Where do osteocytes reside?

A

Lacunae

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9
Q

Red bone marrow is found in which type of bone?

A

Flat

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10
Q

Prostate metastasis causes _________ lesions whereas renal and thyroid metastasis cause ________ lesions.

A

Sclerotic

Osteolytic

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11
Q

When is the popeye sign present?

A

Long head of biceps rupture proximally

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12
Q

What is a common cause of swelling and knee pain in kids?

A

Osgood-Schlatter’s disease

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13
Q

Stress fractures are obvious and easily seen by Xrays. T/F

A

False

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14
Q

In a suspected spinal injury, what is the best way to open the airawy?

A

Jaw thrust

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15
Q

Match these foot injuries to their associations:

  1. Lisfranc injury
  2. metatarsal base stress fracture
  3. Calcaneal fracture

A. Ballet
B. Football or RTA
C. Fall from height

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
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16
Q

Describe chondrosarcomas

A

Osteolytic and worse at night

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17
Q

The leg is _________ rotated in a posterior hip dislocation.

A

internally

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18
Q

What does Gustilo-Anderson assess?

A

Soft tissue injury
Wound size
Vascular injury

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19
Q

How do fat embolisms present?

A

Breathlessness
Confusion
Rash

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20
Q

Where does Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre occur?

A

Mandible

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21
Q

C perfringes 🧔🏾‍♀️

A

Gas 💨

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22
Q

Common fibular nerve

A

Common peroneal nerve

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23
Q

Olecranon

A

Ulnar cup

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24
Q

List carpal tunnel treatment in order of step up therapy.

A

Splint
Steroids
Surgery

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25
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

Incomplete fracture caused by bending

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26
Q

Buckle/torus fractures

A

Bulging impaction fracture

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27
Q

Aneurysms are always…

A

pulsatile and expansile.

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28
Q

What is sudeck’s atrophy?

A

Complex regional pain syndrome

Hot
Shiny
Painful to light touch
Red
Post op

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29
Q

List some risk factors for trigger finger

A

Female
50-60
Diabetes
Dominant hand

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30
Q

Do steroids increase risk of AVN?

A

Yes

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31
Q

How should sudeck’s atrophy be treated?

A

Conservatively with amytriptyline

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32
Q

How are undisplaced intracapsular fractures treated?

A

Internal fixation with hip screws

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33
Q

What is commonly fractured in tennis players?

A

Hamate

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34
Q

What does garden classification describe?

A

Intracapsular hip fractures

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35
Q

Cipro

A

Quino

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36
Q

How do Lisfranc injuries occur?

A

Twisting

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37
Q

What is the advantage of a plaster back slab?

A

Allows room for swelling

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38
Q

What sorts of conditions should ESR be monitored in?

A

Inflammatory
Malignancy

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39
Q

What’s the best investigation for ligaments?

A

MRI

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40
Q

What is the capitellum?

A

Elbow ball bone

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41
Q

How do capitellum fractures present?

A

Lateral tenderness with inability to extend

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42
Q

What is Lipohaemarthrosis?

A

Blood and fat in joint fractures

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43
Q

What do scaphoid fractures have a high risk of?

A

AVN

44
Q

What does Ewing’s sarcoma cause?

A

Fever
Fatigue

45
Q

Does osteochondritis dessicans cause swelling?

A

Yes because of repetitive strain

46
Q

In this condition, trauma causes circumferential calcification with a lucent centre.

A

Myositis ossificans

47
Q

What is the investigation for septic joints?

A

Arthrocentesis

48
Q

Fracture above joint worse than fracture below joint. T/F

A

True

49
Q

What is the grind test for?

A

Arthritis

50
Q

How is post-operative osteomyelitis treated?

A

Remove fixations

51
Q

Where does the sural nerve provide sensation?

A

Lateral leg

52
Q

Carbamazepine increases the risk of…

A

osteoporosis.

53
Q

What is Osgood-schlatter’s disease?

A

Pain over the tibial tuberosity due to over-exertion in children

54
Q

What is specific to acute cord compression?

A

Hyperreflexia

55
Q

Which fracture is at the first metacarpal base?

A

Bennet

56
Q

The ulnar nerve travels posterior to the ________ epicondyl.

A

medial

57
Q

Suspect an ankle fracture with tenderness over the ________ or an inability to ________.

A

malleolus

weight bear

58
Q

Does plantar fasciitis get better or worse throughout the day?

A

Better

59
Q

What does spine wedging indicate?

A

Osteoporosis

60
Q

The psoas muscle is responsible for flexion and…

A

external rotation.

61
Q

Does apoptosis occur in necrosis?

A

No

61
Q

Which muscles does Trendelenburg test?

A

Gluteus medius and minimus

Drops to opposite side

62
Q

What is FOOSH most likely to break?

A

Distal radius

63
Q

Coxa

A

Hip

64
Q

Which muscle does Froment’s test test?

A

Adductor pollicis

65
Q

CN __ innervates the tongue and passes theough the submandibular gland.

A

IX

65
Q

The axillary artery and vein travel closely by the…

A

pec minor and brachial plexus.

66
Q

What is the most common cause of osteolytic bone metastasis in children?

A

Neuroblastoma 🚀

67
Q

The ulnar artery is right next to which bone?

A

Pisiform

67
Q

🙁3

A

ACL

67
Q

Where does the rectus abdominis lie?

A

Rectal sheath

68
Q

Which muscle attaches to the fibrous elbow capsule?

A

Brachialis

69
Q

What is the spinous process formed by?

A

2 laminae

70
Q

The dorsalis pedis artery is a direct continuation of the…

A

anterior tibial artery.

71
Q

ALP in osteomalacia is…

A

high.

71
Q

The sternal angle is at the lower border of the T_ vertebra.

A

4

72
Q

Which bursitis can cause tibia pain?

A

Pes anserinus

72
Q

Aspirin interferes with methotrexate to cause…

A

bone marrow toxicity.

73
Q

What does the trapezius do to the scapula?

A

Upwards rotation

73
Q

In SLE ANA is more ________ and anti-dsDNA is more _________.

A

sensitive
specific

74
Q

Which finger is not a point of attachment for the palmar interossei?

A

🖕

75
Q

Which third of the clavicle is most likely to fracture?

A

Middle

75
Q

What happens in osteopetrosis?

A

Overgrowth and sclerosis from osteoblast dysfunction

76
Q

What does vitamin D deficiency impair?

A

Mineralisation

77
Q

What joins to the proximal radial head?

A

Capitulum

78
Q

TEN can be caused by allopurinol. How does it present?

A

🥵pyrexia
❣️tachycardia
🩸skin separation

79
Q

The hyoid bone is at C_.

A

3

80
Q

What does RA increase risk of?

A

CVD

81
Q

The tibialis anterior tendon passes by the ________ malleolus.

A

medial

82
Q

What is most superficial tummy?

A

External oblique aponeurosis

Rectus sheath

82
Q

Name a GI side effect of methotrexate

A

Hepatotoxicity

83
Q

What delivers blood supply to the scaphoid?

A

Dorsal carpal branch (to the tubercle distally)

84
Q

Is obesity a risk factor for osteoporosis?

A

No

85
Q

Azathioprine inhibits _______ synthesis.

A

purein

86
Q

Chloramphename causes…

A

constipation.

86
Q

What scan is done before DEXA?

A

FRAX

86
Q

Rickets has excess of mineralized osteoid. T/F

A

False. Rickets has excess of non-mineralized osteoid

87
Q

What is Sjogren’s a complication of?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

88
Q

Pseudogout can result from ______ hyperparathyroidism.

A

primary

89
Q

What is azathioprine metabolised to?

A

mercaptopurine

90
Q

Chlorphenamine mechanism of action

A

H1 receptor antagonist

90
Q

What is fibrillin

A

glycoprotein

91
Q

The leg is __ternally rotated for anterior hip dislocations.

A

ex

92
Q

What is a side effect of azathioprine?

A

Pancreatitis
(vomiting, diarrhoea)

93
Q

Describe Ca, phosphate, PTH and ALP levels in osteoporosis

A

Normal

94
Q

Which substance causes gout?

A

Monosodium urate

Year 2 extra (6 decks)

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