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MIS 341 > module 3 > Flashcards

module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is change management?

A

A clear plan for making changes without causing chaos.

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2
Q

What should be kept in writing during change management?

A

All change-related documentation and procedures.

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3
Q

What tools are commonly used for migration?

A

Command line tools, automated scripts, and tools from cloud service providers (CSP).

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4
Q

Why are logs from migration tools important?

A

They help troubleshoot issues and serve as future references.

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5
Q

What is ITIL?

A

IT Infrastructure Library, a set of best practices in IT change management.

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6
Q

What is the importance of user input in change management?

A

It helps users understand and support the change.

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7
Q

What is the first step in a typical change management process?

A

Change Request.

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8
Q

What information is included in a change request?

A

Details about what’s changing, why it’s important, and how to implement it.

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9
Q

Who assesses change requests?

A

A change coordinator

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10
Q

What does a change proposal include?

A

explanation, priority level, timeline, resources, risk analysis, and backup plan

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11
Q

What is a Change Advisory Board (CAB)?

A

A group that reviews high-risk change requests

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12
Q

What is the purpose of an Emergency CAB (ECAB)?

A

To meet quickly for urgent change requests.

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13
Q

What should be documented post-change?

A

Timeline, costs, troubleshooting notes, results, and lessons learned.

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14
Q

Why track configuration changes?

A

To manage resources throughout their life cycles.

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15
Q

What is the main goal of documenting changes?

A

To ensure transparency and reference for future migrations.

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16
Q

What is a workflow in the context of a migration plan?

A

A series of automated steps that collectively guide a process.

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17
Q

What type of diagram represents a workflow?

A

A flowchart.

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18
Q

What shape is used to represent input in a workflow diagram?

A

An oval.

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19
Q

What do diamonds represent in a workflow diagram?

A

Decisions that need to be made.

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20
Q

What shape indicates processes in a workflow?

A

Rectangles.

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21
Q

How does automation benefit the migration process?

A

It reduces overall time, cost, and potential mistakes or unplanned downtime.

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22
Q

What happens to data during the migration process?

A

It is spread across both the old and new networks, creating a differentiation.

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23
Q

What is the term used for the difference between on-prem and cloud-hosted data during migration?

A

Delta

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24
Q

What does the Greek letter Δ represent in this context?

A

A change in some value, referring to the delta between data sets.

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25
Q

Why is it important to account for the delta during migration?

A

To ensure cloud data is up to date with the latest changes before decommissioning on-prem services.

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26
Q

How can differences between data sets be minimized during migration?

A

By completing the migration as quickly as possible.

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27
Q

What risk arises if data continues to change during migration?

A

The risk of having outdated data in the cloud if the delta is not accounted for.

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28
Q

How does spreading resources across both networks affect migration?

A

It creates a challenge in keeping on-prem and cloud data synchronized.

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29
Q

Q: What do technicians do with automated processes before migration?

A

A: They orchestrate them ahead of time.

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30
Q

Q: Why should automated processes be tested before migration?

A

A: To ensure they work correctly in a live environment.

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31
Q

Q: What is the recommended approach to executing workflows during migration?

A

A: Execute each workflow in an orderly manner and validate the results.

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32
Q

Q: Why is orchestration important in cloud management?

A

A: It helps manage automated processes effectively after migration.

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33
Q

Q: What should be done before moving on to the next workflow task?

A

A: Validate the results of the current task.

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34
Q

Q: How does automation impact cloud management post-migration?

A

A: It remains a significant part of managing resources and processes.

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35
Q

Q: What type of data migrations can online transfers over the public Internet support?

A

A: Small or slow data migrations.

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36
Q

Q: How long would it take to upload 100 TB of data over a 1 Gbps connection?

A

A: About 12 days, assuming no throttling or interruptions.

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37
Q

Q: What factors could affect the time it takes to upload data online?

A

A: Throttling, interference, and interruptions.

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38
Q

Q: What is a critical speed measurement for data transfers mentioned in the text?

A

A: 1 Gbps (gigabits per second).

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39
Q

Q: Why might online transfers not be ideal for large data migrations?

A

A: The long duration required and potential for issues like throttling and interruptions.

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40
Q

What advantage do online transfers over a private connection offer?

A

A: More dedicated bandwidth, reducing upload times compared to public Internet options.

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41
Q

Q: What is often required for a private connection?

A

A: A long-term contract with an ISP and payment for a direct connection to the CSP’s POP.

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42
Q

Q: What does POP stand for?

A

A: Point of Presence.

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43
Q

Q: Where are POPs typically located?

A

A: At Internet exchange points (IX) or colocation facilities.

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44
Q

Q: When is a private connection most cost-effective?

A

A: When there’s a steady stream of data over a long period to one cloud location.

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45
Q

Q: What is vendor lock-in?

A

A: The high cost of changing vendors, making customers hesitant to switch to competitors.

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46
Q

Q: What can make transferring to a different CSP expensive?

A

A: Commitment to an existing vendor and the associated costs.

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47
Q

Q: What is a colocation facility (colo)?

A

A: A shared space where multiple providers host their equipment, often including ISPs and CSPs.

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48
Q

Q: What is a potential drawback of a private connection for multi-cloud setups?

A

A: The need for the additional CSP to have a presence at the same colocation facility.

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49
Q

Q: What is an offline transfer?

A

A: Loading encrypted data onto a storage appliance and shipping it to the CSP.

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50
Q

Q: How can the storage appliance be shipped to the CSP?

A

A: By a common package-delivery service or via dedicated transport.

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51
Q

Q: What happens once the storage appliance arrives at the CSP?

A

A: The CSP uploads the data to the cloud.

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52
Q

Q: For what scale of data migrations are offline transfers suitable?

A

A: Terabyte- or petabyte-scale data migrations.

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53
Q

Q: What kind of data is typically handled in offline transfers?

A

A: Encrypted data.

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54
Q

Q: How does the client interact with the data after it’s uploaded to the cloud?

A

A: They can configure the data as needed.

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55
Q

What does P2V stand for?

A

Physical to Virtual.

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56
Q

What is the primary purpose of P2V migration?

A

To migrate an OS and its dependencies from a physical machine to a virtual machine.

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57
Q

What components are included in the dependencies during P2V migration?

A

Configurations, applications, and data.

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58
Q

How is the physical machine preserved during P2V migration?

A

As a snapshot or image.

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59
Q

What resources are allocated when creating a new virtual machine (VM)?

A

vCPUs, memory, storage space, and network configurations.

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60
Q

What is installed on the new VM after it is created?

A

The snapshot of the physical machine.

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61
Q

When is P2V migration commonly used?

A

To salvage systems from aging physical servers or to consolidate multiple physical servers.

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62
Q

What manages the consolidated servers in a P2V migration?

A

A hypervisor.

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63
Q

Why might organizations choose to consolidate physical servers?

A

To improve resource efficiency and reduce hardware costs.

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64
Q

What is one key benefit of P2V migration?

A

It allows for the continuation of services from older physical hardware in a virtual environment.

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65
Q

What does V2V stand for?

A

Virtual to Virtual.

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66
Q

What is the purpose of V2V migration?

A

To migrate a VM from one host system to another.

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67
Q

Why might a V2V migration be necessary?

A

Upgrading host hardware, host OS, hypervisor, or transitioning to a cloud-based host.

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68
Q

How does V2V migration assist in disaster recovery?

A

It allows for the relocation of virtual machines to ensure service continuity.

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69
Q

What is online migration or live migration?

A

Migrating a VM while it is still running.

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70
Q

Who typically handles the V2V migration process?

A

The hypervisor.

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71
Q

What are two primary challenges in live migration?

A

Matching CPU architecture and matching virtual network configurations.

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72
Q

What might CPU architecture challenges include?

A

Differences in the number of cores and advanced CPU features.

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73
Q

Why is matching virtual network configurations important?

A

To ensure seamless connectivity for the migrated VM.

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74
Q

What is a potential benefit of live migration?

A

It minimizes downtime for applications and services during the transition.

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75
Q

Q: What does V2P stand for?

A

A: Virtual to Physical.

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76
Q

Q: What is the primary purpose of V2P migration?

A

A: To migrate an OS and its dependencies from a virtual machine to a physical machine.

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77
Q

Q: What tool is used for V2P migration?

A

A: A V2P tool (not a hypervisor).

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78
Q

Q: What does the V2P tool check before migration?

A

A: It confirms that the physical hardware is compatible with the VM.

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79
Q

Q: What is created during the V2P migration process?

A

A: A VM image.

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80
Q

Q: What must be installed on the physical machine during V2P migration?

A

A: The VM image and the needed device drivers.

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81
Q

Q: When might V2P migration be particularly useful?

A

A: When recovering a physical system from a VM backup.

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82
Q

Q: Why is hardware compatibility important in V2P migration?

A

A: To ensure the VM operates correctly on the physical machine.

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83
Q

Q: What role do device drivers play in V2P migration?

A

A: They ensure that the physical hardware can communicate effectively with the OS and applications.

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84
Q

Q: What does P2P stand for?

A

A: Physical to Physical.

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85
Q

Q: What is the primary purpose of P2P migration?

A

A: To migrate an OS and its dependencies from one physical machine to another.

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86
Q

Q: When is P2P migration especially useful?

A

A: When upgrading hardware.

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87
Q

Q: How is P2P migration related to other migration types like P2V and V2P?

A

A: Some tools that perform P2V or V2P can also perform P2P.

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88
Q

Q: What components are typically included in the dependencies during P2P migration?

A

A: The OS, configurations, applications, and data.

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89
Q

Q: Why might organizations choose P2P migration?

A

A: To enhance performance or capabilities by upgrading to newer hardware.

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90
Q

Q: What is one key consideration when performing a P2P migration?

A

A: Ensuring compatibility between the old and new physical machines.

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91
Q

Q: Can P2P migration occur without downtime?

A

A: It often requires planned downtime to ensure data integrity.

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92
Q

Q: What is a potential challenge of P2P migration?

A

A: Migrating all dependencies without data loss.

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93
Q

Q: What might be a reason for not using P2P migration?

A

A: If the existing hardware is still adequate for current needs.

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94
Q

Q: What is a key consideration when choosing a CSP for VMs?

A

A: The compatibility of supported operating systems (OSs).

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95
Q

Q: What issues might arise with older or customized OSs on CSPs?

A

A: Potential compatibility problems or lack of support.

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96
Q

Q: Why might you face challenges with obscure OSs when using a CSP?

A

A: Many CSPs focus on mainstream operating systems, which can limit options.

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97
Q

Q: What should you check before migrating to a CSP?

A

A: The list of supported operating systems for virtual machines.

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98
Q

Q: What are the two primary components of a VM to consider during migration?

A

A: The VM’s system image (or snapshot) and the virtual hard drive (or storage space).

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99
Q

Q: What does the VM’s system image or snapshot represent?

A

A: The current state of the operating system and its configurations.

100
Q

Q: What is the role of the VM’s virtual hard drive?

A

A: It stores the data, applications, and file system for the virtual machine.

101
Q

Q: Why is the system image important during migration?

A

A: It ensures that the VM can boot and operate as expected on the new system.

102
Q

Q: What must be ensured about the virtual hard drive during migration?

A

A: That all necessary data and applications are transferred without loss.

103
Q

Q: What is the most common file format for a VM’s image?

A

A: OVF (Open Virtualization Format).

104
Q

Q: What does OVF consist of?

A

A: Multiple files packaged together as an open-source standard for VM images.

105
Q

Q: How do CSPs typically handle VM image file types?

A

A: They often use their own specific VM image formats.

106
Q

Q: What file format does AWS use for its VM images?

A

A: AMIs (Amazon Machine Images).

107
Q

Q: What tool does AWS provide for VM image management?

A

A: A conversion tool that allows importing and exporting VM images between AWS and existing virtualization environments.

108
Q

Q: What is the format of a storage drive image for a VM?

A

A: A single, large image file.

109
Q

Q: What are three common VM storage drive file formats?

A

A: VMDK (Virtual Machine Disk), VDI (Virtual Disk Image), and VHD (Virtual Hard Disk).

110
Q

Q: Which VM storage drive format is the most common and was developed by VMware?

A

A: VMDK (Virtual Machine Disk).

111
Q

Q: Which file format is used by default in VirtualBox?

A

A: VDI (Virtual Disk Image).

112
Q

Q: What does OVA stand for?

A

A: Open Virtual Appliance.

113
Q

Q: What is an OVA file used for?

A

A: It packages both the VM’s image and its dependencies into a single, compressed file.

114
Q

Q: What must be done to an OVA file before importing it into a hypervisor?

A

A: It must be extracted.

115
Q

Q: Why is the OVA format beneficial for VM migration?

A

A: It simplifies the transfer process by consolidating files into one package.

116
Q

Q: How does OVA differ from OVF?

A

A: OVA is a single compressed file, while OVF consists of multiple files in a package.

117
Q

Q: What can affect connectivity to resources or a machine after migration?

A

A: Network connections from the system to its network.

118
Q

Q: What happens if SSH’s port 22 is not enabled on the new VM?

A

A: You won’t be able to access the VM remotely via SSH.

119
Q

Q: Which port is used by RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)?

A

A: Port 3389.

120
Q

Q: What must be carefully configured to ensure proper network connectivity post-migration?

A

A: IP addressing, DNS, gateway information, and firewall permissions.

121
Q

Q: Why is firewall configuration important after migration?

A

A: To set the necessary allow or deny permissions for network access.

122
Q

Q: What is storage migration?

A

A: The process of moving blocks or volumes of data from one storage medium to another.

123
Q

Q: When might a VM migration include storage migration?

A

A: When the VM’s storage drive must be moved along with its configuration data.

124
Q

Q: Can storage migration occur independently of VM migration?

A

A: Yes, it can be performed unrelated to VM migration.

125
Q

Q: Why might an organization choose to perform storage migration?

A

A: To move data from older hardware to newer machines, consolidate data from multiple sources, or transition from physical to virtual storage.

126
Q

Q: What typically happens to the data during the migration process?

A

A: The data itself is not changed during migration.

127
Q

Q: What should be done before starting any migration?

A

A: Unneeded data should be removed.

128
Q

Q: What are some examples of data that can be cleared or separated before migration?

A

A: Orphaned records from a database and archived data from active data.

129
Q

Q: Why is streamlining data beneficial for cloud storage?

A

A: Archived storage is significantly cheaper than more accessible storage types.

130
Q

Q: What is the purpose of separating archived data from active data?

A

A: To reduce costs and improve efficiency during migration.

131
Q

Q: How can streamlining help with data management in the cloud?

A

A: It optimizes storage use and minimizes expenses.

132
Q

Q: What should be provisioned to accommodate existing data during migration?

A

A: Sufficient space.

133
Q

Q: In addition to existing data, what else should be considered when planning capacity?

A

A: Additional capacity for anticipated growth.

134
Q

Q: What is the typical time frame for planning anticipated growth in data storage?

A

A: The next three to five years.

135
Q

Q: Why is it important to plan for additional capacity?

A

A: To ensure that future data growth does not lead to storage issues.

136
Q

Q: What does a migration path determine?

A

A: How data will be transferred from the old location to the new one.

137
Q

Q: What factors are important to consider in a migration path?

A

A: Sufficient bandwidth and transfer time.

138
Q

Q: Why is bandwidth critical in a migration path?

A

A: It affects the speed and efficiency of data transfer.

139
Q

Q: What type of connection is particularly important to consider when planning a migration path?

A

A: WAN (Wide Area Network) connection.

140
Q

Q: How can planning an effective migration path benefit the migration process?

A

A: It ensures smooth and timely data transfer, minimizing potential disruptions.

141
Q

Q: What must be protected during the migration of data?

A

A: Data in transit to the new storage location.

142
Q

Q: Why might data require a different form of protection after migration?

A

A: Because it may be stored in a new environment, especially in cloud-based storage.

143
Q

Q: What should be carefully considered regarding data protection?

A

A: Relevant compliance regulations based on the type and sensitivity of the data.

144
Q

Q: What should be planned if the system will be taken offline during migration?

A

A: Downtime should be scheduled when it will be least disruptive to users.

145
Q

Q: What type of migration might still involve some downtime?

A

A: Online migrations.

146
Q

Q: How long can downtime be for offline migrations?

A

A: Several hours to days.

147
Q

Q: Why is careful scheduling important in migration?

A

A: To minimize disruption to users and maintain productivity.

148
Q

Q: What is the purpose of a rollback plan in migration?

A

A: To prepare for potential problems and restore the original storage configuration if needed.

149
Q

Q: Why is it important to establish a rollback plan before migration?

A

A: It helps avoid surprises and ensures a quick response to issues.

150
Q

Q: What should a rollback plan identify?

A

A: The events that would trigger the rollback and the necessary steps to execute it.

151
Q

Q: How can having a rollback plan benefit an organization?

A

A: It minimizes downtime and data loss in case of migration failures.

152
Q

Q: Is a company’s migration journey complete after creating a cloud presence?

A

A: No, it may need to migrate from one cloud platform or vendor to another.

153
Q

Q: Why might a company consider migrating to a different cloud provider?

A

A: For better financial incentives, increased security, better scalability, or more suitable resource types.

154
Q

Q: What is cross-service migration?

A

A: Migrating applications, data, or functions from one cloud service to another within the same platform.

155
Q

Q: What defines a simple migration?

A

A: Shifting resources from one vendor’s platform to another without significant changes to the application’s or data’s structure.

156
Q

Q: Why is migrating an application from one SaaS vendor to another typically simpler?

A

A: It usually requires fewer changes compared to refactoring applications for different deployment models.

157
Q

Q: What do some SaaS and PaaS providers offer to ease migration?

A

A: Standardized compatibility.

158
Q

Q: What issue can arise with providers that create a proprietary environment?

A

A: Components of a system may not be migratable between platforms.

159
Q

Q: Why is it important to consider compatibility before committing to a vendor?

A

A: To avoid potential migration challenges in the future.

160
Q

Q: What is a common component that organizations often want to migrate?

A

A: Data.

161
Q

Q: What standardized formats might a SaaS or PaaS provider offer for data export?

A

A: .csv file or .xlsx file.

162
Q

Q: Why is the ability to export data in a standardized format important?

A

A: It facilitates potential future migrations to different platforms.

163
Q

Q: When evaluating vendors, what export format should be considered?

A

A: Whether the current provider’s export format can be imported into the new provider’s platform.

164
Q

Q: What should companies consider before choosing an initial vendor?

A

A: The data export capabilities and compatibility with potential future platforms.

165
Q

Q: When do compliance issues apply during data migration?

A

A: When moving data from one location to another.

166
Q

Q: What are the three states in which protected data must be safeguarded?

A

A: In use, in motion, and at rest.

167
Q

Q: Why is compliance important during data migration?

A

A: To ensure the protection of sensitive data and adhere to legal regulations.

168
Q

Q: What does “tenancy” refer to in the context of cloud services?

A

A: The structure in which applications are hosted, such as single tenancy or multitenancy.

169
Q

Q: What is single tenancy?

A

A: An architecture where the application is hosted on a dedicated server or a single cloud.

170
Q

Q: What is multitenancy?

A

A: An architecture where the application is distributed across multiple physical hosts or multiple clouds.

171
Q

Q: How can a change in tenancy affect an application?

A

A: It can impact how the application functions and may require some refactoring.

172
Q

Q: Why is it important to assess security configurations during migration?

A

A: To ensure traffic is blocked where it should be and access is allowed where necessary.

173
Q

Q: What are two common security components that may not be automatically ported during migration?

A

A: Firewall rules and access control lists (ACLs).

174
Q

Q: What type of migrations are particularly affected by security settings not being ported?

A

A: PaaS (Platform as a Service) and SaaS (Software as a Service) migrations.

175
Q

Q: When should migrations be scheduled to minimize user impact?

A

A: Migrations should be scheduled at a time when they will have the least impact on users.

176
Q

Q: What should be compared after a migration?

A

A: KPIs from before and after the migration.

177
Q

Q: Why compare KPIs after migration?

A

A: To confirm that the new service is performing as expected.

178
Q

Q: What is the purpose of fine-tuning a deployment after migration?

A

A: To help achieve target KPIs.

179
Q

Q: What should be done if KPIs post-migration are not satisfactory?

A

A: Additional fine-tuning may be necessary.

180
Q

Q: What types of components might be tested before migrating to the cloud?

A

A: Databases, applications, or servers.

181
Q

Q: How is testing typically performed for cloud migration?

A

A: By cloning the resource or environment into the cloud and running tests on the copy.

182
Q

Q: What can be tested when using cloned resources in the cloud?

A

A: Different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) to determine the best fit.

183
Q

Q: What is a downside of using cloned resources for testing?

A

A: The cloned resource is not synced with its source data.

184
Q

Q: What might be missing from a cloned resource that could affect testing?

A

A: Live data streams.

185
Q

Q: What is the main goal of functional testing?

A

A: To ensure that predefined system requirements are met.

186
Q

Q: What does functional testing confirm?

A

A: That everything works as it should.

187
Q

Q: What is component testing also known as?

A

A: Module testing.

188
Q

Q: What are initial checks during development called?

A

A: Smoke testing.

189
Q

Q: Why is it called “smoke testing”?

A

A: It implies that a small problem early on could indicate a larger issue later (like smoke indicating fire).

190
Q

Q: What is one approach to functional testing?

A

A: Testing individual components of the system.

191
Q

Q: How does functional testing contribute to software development?

A

A: It helps identify issues early in the development process.

192
Q

Q: What is a key characteristic of functional testing?

A

A: It focuses on checking specific functionalities against requirements.

193
Q

Q: What can result from effective functional testing?

A

A: Increased reliability and performance of the software system.

194
Q

Q: What does performance testing evaluate?

A

A: Compatibility issues among programs that depend on each other.

195
Q

Q: Why is performance testing important?

A

A: It ensures that programs can work together effectively to perform complex tasks.

196
Q

Q: What type of issues does performance testing primarily focus on?

A

A: Compatibility issues.

197
Q

Q: What kind of programs are often tested for performance?

A

A: Programs that rely heavily on each other.

198
Q

Q: What is a key outcome of performance testing?

A

A: Identification of potential integration problems.

199
Q

Q: What is the primary purpose of load testing?

A

A: To ensure the cloud environment can handle the anticipated workload.

200
Q

Q: How does load testing assess the cloud environment’s capabilities?

A

A: By pushing the limits of the environment to evaluate auto-scaling performance.

201
Q

Q: What happens during load testing as user demand changes?

A

A: The testing examines how well the environment auto-scales up or down.

202
Q

Q: Can load testing be performed manually, automatically, or both?

A

A: Both methods can be used for load testing.

203
Q

Q: Why is careful planning and monitoring important during load testing?

A

A: To avoid accruing unnecessary costs from auto-scaled resources.

204
Q

Q: What can result from inadequate load testing?

A

A: Failure to handle increased user demand effectively.

205
Q

Q: What is the primary goal of regression testing?

A

A: To confirm that changes to one system haven’t negatively impacted other functions.

206
Q

Q: Why is regression testing important?

A

A: Because changes in one system can affect other systems in unexpected ways.

207
Q

Q: Is regression testing limited to the system under development?

A

A: No, it may also involve testing interdependent systems.

208
Q

Q: What does regression testing help identify?

A

A: Unintended effects caused by changes in the new system throughout the network.

209
Q

Q: How does regression testing contribute to software stability?

A

A: By ensuring that new changes do not disrupt existing functionalities.

210
Q

Q: What types of systems might be tested during regression testing?

A

A: Both the system under development and any interdependent systems in the network.

211
Q

Q: What can happen if regression testing is neglected?

A

A: Undetected issues may arise, leading to system failures or degraded performance.

212
Q

Q: When should regression testing typically occur?

A

A: After changes have been made to a system or prior to deployment.

213
Q

Q: What is one of the key benefits of regression testing?

A

A: It helps maintain overall network functionality and reliability.

214
Q

Q: What is the main purpose of usability testing?

A

A: To evaluate the system by observing users as they interact with it.

215
Q

Q: What type of testing is usability testing considered?

A

A: A form of black-box testing.

216
Q

Q: What are two alternative names for usability testing?

A

A: Acceptance testing and User Acceptance Testing (UAT).

217
Q

Q: How do developers use the information gathered during usability testing?

A

A: To identify problems that might cause user confusion.

218
Q

Q: What specific aspects of the system are assessed during usability testing?

A

A: Clarity of instructions, functionality of components, and overall user interaction.

219
Q

Q: What are two phases of usability testing?

A

A: Alpha testing and beta testing. Alpha testing is the first phase of formal testing, during which the software is tested internally using white-box techniques. Beta testing is the next phase, in which the software is tested by a larger group of users, typically outside of the organization that developed it.

220
Q

Q: What does usability testing evaluate regarding component functionality?

A

A: Whether components function as users expect them to.

221
Q

Q: What are the two main types of security testing?

A

A: Vulnerability testing (or assessment) and penetration testing.

222
Q

Q: What does vulnerability testing focus on?

A

A: Identifying application liabilities or gaps in the protection of sensitive data.

223
Q

Q: What is the goal of penetration testing?

A

A: To exploit vulnerabilities in a system.

224
Q

Q: What does a VRR typically entail?

A

A: A request to remediate identified vulnerabilities.

225
Q

Q: What type of testing is crucial for ensuring auto-scaling in cloud environments?

A

A: Load testing.

226
Q

Q: What does auto-scaling refer to in cloud computing?

A

A: The automatic increase or decrease of capacity as needed.

227
Q

rightsizing

A

The process of balancing performance and capacity needs with budgetary needs.

228
Q

Q: What is resource contention in cloud deployments?

A

A: It refers to the competition for limited resources like processing power, memory, or network bandwidth.

229
Q

Q: How can benchmark testing help during cloud migration?

A

A: It minimizes the likelihood of resource contention issues.

230
Q

Q: What are the implications of template misconfiguration?

A

A: Serious security concerns, functionality issues, and connectivity problems.

231
Q

Q: What is resource contention?

A

A: The demand multiple workloads place on limited resources like processing power, memory, or network bandwidth.

232
Q

Q: Why is benchmark testing important in cloud migration?

A

A: It helps minimize the likelihood of resource contention issues.

233
Q

Q: How does resource contention impact service reliability?

A

A: It can interfere with your ability to receive reliable and dependable service.

234
Q

Q: What should organizations monitor to prevent resource contention?

A

A: The performance and utilization of resources during migration.

235
Q

Q: What can organizations do before, during, and after migration to ensure resource availability?

A

A: Conduct benchmark testing.

236
Q

what is template misconfiguration

A

errors in server templates that can lead to security, functionality, and connectivity issues during server creation or migration

237
Q

Q: What security risk is associated with leaving remote access channels open to the Internet?

A

A: It makes servers vulnerable to attacks.

238
Q

Q: What are two common remote access channels that can pose security risks if misconfigured?

A

A: SSH (Secure Shell) and RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol).

239
Q

Q: Why is it important to keep software updated on servers?

A

A: Missing updates can create vulnerabilities that can be exploited.

240
Q

Q: What can result from leaving wide-open permissions on servers?

A

A: Increased risk of unauthorized access and security breaches.

241
Q

Q: When should server images be scanned for vulnerabilities?

A

A: When they are first created and any time a change is made.

242
Q

Q: What are CSP outages?

A

A: Widespread disruptions in Cloud Service Provider services that can affect a single service or the entire platform.

243
Q

Q: How can CSP outages impact organizations?

A

A: They can deeply disrupt an organization’s ability to conduct business.

244
Q

Q: How do larger companies mitigate the risks of outages?

A

A: By having redundancies like multiple ISP connections and cloud-based resources.

245
Q

Q: What is the primary focus of ALM?

A

A: Managing the progression of an application from conception to retirement.

246
Q

Q: How does the software-defined nature of cloud deployments affect configuration?

A

A: Configuration is managed through the ALM phases.

247
Q

Q: What are the key phases of the application lifecycle in ALM?

A

A: Conception, development, testing, deployment, maintenance, and retirement.

MIS 341 (4 decks)

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