MOD 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the correct
Tall Man lettering for Chlorpromazine and Chlorpropamide?
a.CHLORPROmazine, CHLORPROpamide
b. chlorpromazine, chlorpropamide
c.CHLORPROMAZINE,
CHLORPROPAMIDE
d. ChlorproMAZINE, ChlorproPAMIDE

A

d. ChlorproMAZINE, ChlorproPAMIDE

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2
Q

A STATorder means that the drug should be administered
a. immediately
b. as needed
c. before eating
d. at bedtime

A

a. immediately

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3
Q

Drugs affected by the interaction is
referred to as the
a. Object drug
b. Precipitant drug-drug cauing the
interaction
c. Active drug
d. Inactive drug

A

a. Object drug

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4
Q

The following factors increase gastric
emptying rate except:
I. Atropine
II. Stress
IlI. Lying on the left side
IV. Metoclopramide
V. Mild exercise

a. IV and V
b. I, II, III
c. I, II
d. I, III, IV

A

b. I, II, III

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5
Q

A neonate is
a. Less than 1 day
b. 1 year to 12 years
c. 1 day to 1 month
d. 12 to 16 years

A

c. 1 day to 1 month

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6
Q

The following scenario will facilitate
excretion, except:
I. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be absorbed in an acidic medium for it to appear in its hydrophilic form in a low pH environment
II. For a weakly basic drug, it must be absorbed in a basic medium for it to appear in its nonpolar form in a high pH environment
III. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be absorbed in an environment with low pH to facilitate absorption IV. For a weakly basic drug, it must be absorbed in an environment with low pH to facilitate absorption

a. I only
b. I and Il
c. Il and III
d. Ill and IV
e. IV only

A

c. Il and III

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7
Q

When two interacting drugs result to the alteration of the metabolism of one of the drugs, this interaction is classified as a
a. pharmaceutical interaction
b. pharmacokinetic interaction
c. pharmacodynamic interaction
d. physico-chemical interaction

A

b. pharmacokinetic interaction

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8
Q

The following parameters are
objective, except
a. Pain
b. Temperature
c. Respiratory rate
d. Heart rate

A

a. Pain

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9
Q

Which of the following is/are valid
therapeutic use/s of a drug interaction?
I. Giving aspirin with warfarin to
enhance anticoagulation
Il. Giving multiple antihypertensive drugs to control
IlI. Taking ciprofloxacin with antacids to decrease G intolerance to oral therapy./

a. I only
b. Il only.
C. Il and III
d. I, Il and III

A

b. Il only

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10
Q

A prescription for Ammoniated
Mercury Ointment 7%, 450g, with a
Signa of apply ud bid, is received at
your pharmacy. The Pharmacy only has 3% and 10% Ammoniated Mercury available. Using alligation, calculate the amount of each available product needed to prepare this prescription.

a. 192.86g 10% and 257.14g of 3%
b. 225g of 10% and 225g of 3%
c. 257.14g of 10% and 192.86g of 3%
d. 200g of 10% and 250g of 3%

A

c. 257.14g of 10% and 192.86g of 3%

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11
Q

A formula for an antifungal shampoo contains 2% (w/v) of ketoconazole. How many grams of ketoconazole would be needed to prepare lot the shame?
a. 5
b. 500
c 5000
d. 50

A

b. 500

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12
Q

The following drug/s can increase
the clearance of another drug:
benzype ideer
I. Valproic acid
II. Grapefruit juice
III. Cimetidine
IV. Erythromycin

a. I and IV
b. I, II, III
C. AOTA
d. NOTA

A

d. NOTA

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13
Q

Which of the following is/are
considered as Error-prone
abbreviations; by the Institute for Safe Medication Practice?
I. mg
II. mcg
III. IU
IV. cc
V. units

a. I only
b. I and II
c. Ill and IV
d. IIl, IV, and V
e. V only

A

c. Ill and IV

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14
Q

Anemia commonly associated with
the use of chloramphenicol
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. IDA

A

a. Aplastic anemia

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15
Q

Message of physician to the
pharmacist
a. Signa
b. Subscription
c. Inscription
d. Superscription

A

b. Subscription

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16
Q

Which of the following statement
best describes thrombolytics and
antithrombotics?
a. An example of a thrombolylic is
Aspirin
b. Reteplase is an anti-thrombotic agent
c. Thrombolytic reduces clot formation while antithrombotic agents dissolve clot
d. Thrombolytic agents dissolve clot
while antithrombotics reduces clot
formation

A

d. Thrombolytic agents dissolve clot
while antithrombotics reduces clot
formation

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17
Q

In monitoring the inventory of drugs at the pharmacy which of the following transactions will DECREASE the “STOCK-ON-HAND" of a drug?
I. Dispensing of the drug to patient
Il. Receiving incoming supply %
Ill. Returning of drug due to recall order

a. I and ||
b. I, Il and Ill
c. I and Ill
d. II and Ill

A

c. I and Ill

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18
Q

End product of protein metabolism
a. Albumin
b. Creatinine
C. Uric acid
d. BUN

A

d. BUN

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19
Q

This observed risk is noted when a
patient takes an Atorvastatin with
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
a. Rise in uric acid levels
b. Rise in serum level of ACE inhibitor
c. Enzyme inhibition by Spironolocatone
d. Rise in serum potassium

A

d. Rise in serum potassium

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20
Q

The following is/are true regarding
Cotrimoxazole?
I. Consists of two drugs namely
Sulfisoxazole and Trimethoprim
II. Exhibits synergism
ilI. Used in the treatment of fungal
infections
a. Ill only
b. I, II, and III
c. I and II
d. II and III

A

d. II and III

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21
Q

The science that evaluates the value
of pharmaceutical product or drug
therapy compared to its effect
a. Pharmacogenomics
b. Pharmacoinformatic
c. Pharmacoeconomics
d. Pharmacoepidemiology

A

c. Pharmacoeconomics

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22
Q

Which of the following statement/s
is/are true?
I. The anticoagulant effect of Warfarin is monitored using PTINR
I. The lower the PT-INR the faster the clot formation
III. Warfarin is administered orally while Heparin Is administered intravenously
a I, Il and Ill
b. l and I|I
c. I and II
d. I only

A

a I, Il and Ill

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23
Q

Type A ADR is described by the
following statements, except:
I. dose-dependent
Il. an example is penicillin allergy
III. unpredictable

a. I only
b. I, II and III
c. Il and Ill
d. Il only

A

a. I only

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24
Q

Which of the following are people
are blinded in a triple-blind study?
I. Investigation
II. Statistician
III. Subjects

a. I, Il and Ill
b. land I
c. I and III
d. Il and II -

A

a. I, Il and Ill

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25
Q

Antidote for Acetaminophen
poisoning
a. Pralidoxime-regeneruter for prophet
b. Atropine cholinengie canis
c. NAC
d. Ethyl alcohol -rettano lupere

A

c. NAC

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26
Q

The serum creatinine of a 70-year
old female weighing 154 Ibs was 1.7
mg/dL. What is her creatinine
clearance?
a. 97
b. 40
c. 34
d. 47

A

c. 34

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27
Q

Quinidine sulfate 200 mg capsule
and Quinidine 200 mg tablet are
products
a. pharmaceutical equivalent
b. pharmaceutical alternative.
c. therapeutic equivalent
d. therapeutic alternative

A

b. pharmaceutical alternative

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28
Q

The following statements regarding
drug interaction are incorrect, except:
a. All drug interactions can potentially cause an adverse response in the patient
b. The clinical significance for each
potential drug interaction must be
considered individually
c. A precipitant drug that inhibits the metabolism of the object drug causes a more serious drug interaction compared to a precipitant drug causing an
increase in the bioavailability of the
e. If the patient is prescribed drugs that can potentially interact, the prescriber should be called, and a different precipitant drug should be suggested

A

b. The clinical significance for each
potential drug interaction must be
considered individually

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29
Q

Specific situation in which a drug,
procedure or surgery should not be
used because it may be harmful to the person
a. Precaution
b. Warning
c. Contraindication
d. NOTA

A

c. Contraindication

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30
Q

Epoetin alfa is used in:
a. Cancer treatment
b. Alzheimers disease
c. Dialysis
d. Viral treatment

A

c. Dialysis

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31
Q

Below normal CD4 or Helper T-cell
count may indicate:
a. Dengue
b. HIV-AIDS
c. IDA
d. Pernicious anemia

A

b. HIV-AIDS

32
Q

Medication error wherein an error
has occurred that resulted in temporary patient harm
a. Category E
b. Category F
c. Category I
d. Category X

A

a. Category E

33
Q

A patient weighing 121 Ibs was
administered 2.1 grams of a drug that was intended to be dosed at 30 mg/kg. What can you say about the dose administered?
a. Correct
b. Underdose
c. Overdose
d. Insufficient information

A

c. Overdose

34
Q

S-license for prescribers
a. S4 license
b. S2 license
c. S3 license
d. P1 license

A

b. S2 license

35
Q

Which of the following medications
is safe to use in the third trimester of pregnancy?
a. APAP
b. Warfarin
c. Captopril
d. Aspirin

A

a. APAP

36
Q

Drug names ending with "coxib" may
treat which of the following medical
conditions?
a. Hyperacidity
b. Hypertension
c. Migraine
d. Angina

A

c. Migraine

37
Q

A 25-yr old female with UTL is being
treated with Ciprofloxacin but has not been responsive to the antibiotic. Which of the following drugs that she is taking for other reasons could have decreased the effectiveness of Ciprofloxacin?
a. Levocetirizine
b. Levetiracetam
c. B-complex vitamin
d. Ferrous sulfate tablets ranti folate

A

d. Ferrous sulfate tablets ranti folate

38
Q

The adverse drug effect of
Methotrexate
a. Diarrhea
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Hemorrhagic cystitis
d. Cardiotoxicity

A

b. Hepatotoxicity

39
Q

Which of the following is true
regarding palliative care for cancer
patients?
I. Addresses cure for disease like
removal of tumor through surgery
Il. Relief of pain and other symptoms of discomfort
Il. Integration of psychological and
spiritual aspects of patient care
a. I, Il and III
b. lI and Ill
c. I and Il
d. I and I||

A

b. lI and Ill

40
Q

The following drugs may require
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring because of their reported narrow therapeutic index:
a. Phenytoin
b. Gentamicin
c. Digoxin
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

41
Q

Rofecoxib was withdrawn in the
market because of:
a. Neurotoxicity
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Cardiovascular events
d. Nephrotoxicity

A

c. Cardiovascular events

42
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors and
food rich in tyramine will lead to
I. increase BP
II. non-metabolism of tyramine
Ill. accumulation of pressor amines

a. I only
b. I, Il and III
c. Il and Ill
d. Il only

A

b. I, Il and III

43
Q

The following is/are true about the
following drugs and their risk in pregnant patients
I. Ethanol - FAS
I. DES - Vaginal adenocarcinoma
III. Carbimazole - Aplasia cutis
V. ACEls - Renal dysgenesis

a. I only
b. Il only
c. Il and Ill
d. Il, Ill and IV
e. I, Ill, Il and IV

A

e. I, Ill, Il and IV

44
Q

Laboratory parameter to monitor the anticoagulant activity of Heparin
a. aPTT
b. PT - INR
c. Leukocyte count
d. Hematocrit

A

a. aPTT

45
Q

2nd most abundant intracellular
cation
a. Chloride
b. Phosphate
c. Magnesium
d. Potassium

A

c. Magnesium

46
Q

The following statements regarding
drug interaction are true:

I. Drug interaction may be beneficial 
Il. Drug interaction may be intentional

III. Drug interaction may result to different responses of the patient for what the drug is primarily intended

a. I, Il and Ill
b. I and
c. Ill only
d. I and I

A

a. I, Il and Ill

47
Q

What information a pharmacist
should give t patients who are asking when to take Meclizine tablet?
a. Take during travel
b. Take 1 hour before travel
c. Take 30 minutes before travel
d. Take 24 hours before travel

A

b. Take 1 hour before travel

48
Q

Which of the following types of
diabetes has been previously classified as ;insulindependent diabetes mellitus
(IDDM)?
a. Type I diabetes
b. Type Il diabetes
c. Gestational diabetes
d. Adult-onset diabetes

A

a. Type I diabetes

49
Q

Error that occurred when drugs that
are physically o chemically incompatible are mixed:
a. Unauthorized drug error
b. Deteriorated drug error
c. Wrong administration technique error
d. Wrong drug preparation error

A

d. Wrong drug preparation error

50
Q

These are the common clinical
manifestation of hypoparathyroidism
a. Hypercalcemia and
Hypophosphatemia
b. Hypocalcemia and
Hyperphosphatemia
c. Hypocalcemia and
Hypophosphatemia
d. Hypercalcemia and
Hypophosphatemia

A

b. Hypocalcemia and
Hyperphosphatemia

51
Q

Which of the following drug products are considered “therapeutic alternatives
a. Quinidine sulfate 500 mg capsule and Quinidine 500 mg tablet
b. Mefenamic acid tablet and Ibuprofen tablet
c. Paracetamol 500 mg tablet (Biogesic) and Paracetamol 500 mg tablet (Tempra)
d. Verapamil SR tablet and Verapamil SC tablet

A

b. Mefenamic acid tablet and Ibuprofen tablet

52
Q

Physico-chemical incompatibilities
can be detected by:
a. Change in color
b. Formation of precipitate
c. Evolution of gas
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

53
Q

Any substance that may be
considered a food or par of a food and provides medical or health benefits, including the prevention and treatment of disease
a. Nutraceutical
b. Phytochemical
c. Chemopreventive agent
d. Designer food non ford furtified ml health

A

a. Nutraceutical

54
Q

The following are anti-viral agents,
except:
a. Foscarnet
b. Cycloserine
c. Lamivudine
d. NOTA

A

d. NOTA

55
Q

When the prescription has the
instruction: ;NO SUBSTITUTION
a. Violative
b. Impossible
c. Erroneous
d. Correct

A

a. Violative

56
Q

Refers to the responsible provision
of drug therapy to achieve definite
outcomes that are intended to improve a
patient"s QUALITY OF LIFE
a. Drug therapy assessment
b. Therapeutic drug monitoring
c. Pharmaceutical care
d. STGs

A

c. Pharmaceutical care

57
Q

Which of the following components
of parenteral nutrition is/are
micronutrients?
I. Dextrosex
II. Fats x
IlI. Vitamins
IV. Electrolytes

a. I, Il and I|l
b. Ill and IV -
c. IV only
d. I and II

A

b. Ill and IV -

58
Q

A new test for HIV does not detect
the presence of the virus in someone
who is infected. This is a case of
a. True negative
b. False negative
c. True positive
d. False positive

A

b. False negative

59
Q

The only Insulin administered
intravenously
a. Detemir
b. Aspart
c. Lispro
d. Regular Insulin

A

d. Regular Insulin

60
Q

Post-marketing surveillance falls
under what phase of clinical trials?
a. Pre-clinical
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3
e. Phase 4

A

e. Phase 4

61
Q

An obligation to respect patient as
individuals and to honor their preference in medical care
a. Autonomy
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Beneficence
d. Confidentiality

A

a. Autonomy

62
Q

Which of the following anti-asthma
medications are
I. Cromolyn sodium
II. Salbutamol
III. Atenolol
Iv. Propranolol
V. Budesonide

a. I only
b. II only
c. I, II, and III
d. II and III
e. I and V

A

b. II only

63
Q

The following pairings of unwanted
effect and causative drug are true,
EXCEPT?
a. Throbbing headaches with Nitrates
b. Lupus-like syndrome with Hydralazine
c. Hypokalemia with Salbutamol
d. Dry cough with Valsartan

A

d. Dry cough with Valsartan

64
Q

Which of the following
macronutrients are found in Total
Parenteral Nutrition?
a. Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats
b. Carbohydrates, Vitamins, Proteins,
Fats and Electrolytes
c. Protein and Trace Minerals
d. Protein, Fats and Electrolytes

A

a. Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats

65
Q

Arithistamine that can be taken by
Grab drivers.
a Diphenhydramine
b. Cetirizine
C. Loratadine
d. Two of the choices
e. AOTA

A

d. Two of the choices

66
Q

With which antibiotic does antibiotic
antagonism occur when given with
Penicillin?
a. Tetracycline
b. Streptomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Two of the above

A

d. Two of the above

67
Q

A beta-blocker that can also block
alphareceptors
a. Metoprolol
b. Carvedilol
c. Celiprolol
d. Carteolol

A

b. Carvedilol

68
Q

Parameters to be considered when
storing medications
a. Temperature
b. Air velocity
c. Humidity
d. Two of the above

A

d. Two of the above

69
Q

Which of the following is/are true
regarding the dispensing of Dangerous Drugs?
I. Partial filling is allowed
II. Brand name is required in prescribing Dangerous drugs
III. Not all Dangerous drugs require a Yellow Prescription for it to be
dispensed

a. l and Ill
b. Il and Ill
c. I, Il and Ill
d. I and II

A

a. l and Ill

70
Q

In a drug interaction scenario, what
would best describe the result if Drug A
induces the metabolism of Drug B?
a. Increased blood levels of Drug A
b. Increased blood levels of Drug B
c. Decreased blood levels of Drug A
d. Decreased blood levels of Drug B

A

d. Decreased blood levels of Drug B

71
Q

Code carts located at nursing units
and clinics are used primarily for what purpose?
a. Securing PRN medications for
individual patients
b. Availability of unit doses for 24 hour medications for patients
c. Availability of critical medications and supplies for emergency
d. Securing controlled substances in the hospital

A

c. Availability of critical medications and supplies for emergency

72
Q

The following drug has a MOA that
involves enzyme iphibition:
a. Acetazolamide
b. Salbutamol
c. Zafiriukast
d. Cimetidine

A

a. Acetazolamide

73
Q

If not specified, a prescription for an antibiotic is valid
a. 14 days
b. 7 days/
c. 1 month
d. 3 days

A

b. 7 days/

74
Q

The following are thiazide diuretics
except:
a. HCTZ
b. Chlonhalidone
c. Indaparide
d. Furosemide

A

d. Furosemide

75
Q

The following are sign of intoxication
of physostigmine, except:
a. Diarrhea
b. Mydriasis
C. Bradycardia
d. Lacrimation

A

b. Mydriasis

76
Q

Which of the following drugs
produce positive inotropic effect?
a. Lanoxin
b.Actlyse
c. Isoproterenol
d. Plavix

A

a. Lanoxin

77
Q

Cerebefar functonts assessed using
ths test
a. Dolls test owlose phiatic refur custate
wrainstem
b. Rombergs test
c. Rinnes test
d. Snellens chart

A