Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

comptia a+ 220-1001 (deck 1) > Mike Meyers - TOTAL: A+ Certification 220-1001 Udemy Course > Flashcards

Mike Meyers - TOTAL: A+ Certification 220-1001 Udemy Course Flashcards

1
Q

Which item is not likely to be found in a Tech’s Toolkit?

Tweezers
Nut Driver
Spudger
EMP
Hemostat
A

EMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A Tech might use a Voltage Tester or this Tool to check power coming out of a wall socket?

RFI Meter
ESD Meter
Voltmeter
Tweezers

A

Voltmeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The FIRST Step in Troubleshooting is to _________?

Identify the Problem
Implement Solution
Document the Service
Follow up with the Customer

A

Identify the Problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

After a Problem is Solved, which is an Appropriate Step?

Replace the Fault Component
Take Preventative Measures
Identify the Problem
Teach the Customer the jargon related to the Problem

A

Take Preventative Measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which Primary PC Component is an Output Device?

Microphone
Printer
Web Camera
Keyboard

A

Printer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This External Connector supports Connecting to a Network?

RJ-45
PS/2
Parallel Port
Mini-DIN

A

RJ-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which Component is not installed directly onto the Motherboard?

Chipset
CPU
RAM
Thermal Paste

A

Thermal Paste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which item is NOT a Computer?

Laptop
Tablet
CPU
Android Phone

A

CPU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When an instruction is sent to the CPU in Binary pattern, how does the CPU know what Instruction the pattern means?

External Data Bus
Register
Translator
Code Book

A

Code Book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the design foundation on which families of CPUs are built?

Microarchitecture
Machine Language
Binary
System Crystal

A

Microarchitecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does a CPU increase the speed of the System Clock?

Hyperthreading
Overclocking
Internal Crystal
Clock Multipliers

A

Clock Multipliers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of Memory inside a CPU is the Slowest?

Go
L1
L2
L3
System RAM
A

L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which is a common Intel Socket?

1151
AM4
TR4
AM3+

A

1151

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When installing a CPU, protect it with what?

Antistatic Wrist Strap
OEM Fan
Thermal Paste
Orientation Notch

A

Antistatic Wrist Strap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DDR4 RAM modules have how many pins?

168
240
288
204

A

288

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of RAM modules have 240 pins?

SO-DIMM
SDRAM
DDR3
DDR4

A

DDR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which Technology makes Simultaneous Access to multiple RAM modules?

Dual-Channel Memory
Synchronous RAM
Single-Sided RAM
Double-Sided RAM

A

Dual-Channel Memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which RAM would typically be installed in a Laptop Computer?

ECC
SPD RAM
SDRAM
SO-DIMMs

A

SO-DIMMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What types of RAM can function even if one of the memory chips has failed?

SO-DIMM
ECC
SPD RAM
Dual-Channel RAM
Double-Sided RAM
A

ECC (Error Correction Code)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In what order should memory slots be populated?

Whatever order the MB manual specifies.
Closes to the CPU to farthest from the CPU
Alternate slots starting farthest from the CPU
Farthest from the CPU to closest to the CPU
Memory slots are smart so any order is acceptable.

A

Whatever order the MB manual specifies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BIOS Programs that enable hardware to function are called what?

POST
Services
CMOS
Device Drivers

A

Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is found in BIOS?

Good Power Wire
CMOS Battery
Services
Real-Time Clock

A

Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Primary purpose of POST?

It is an addon card to test the Computer.
It applies power to the CPU.
It enables hardware to function before the OS Boots.
It performs Diagnostic Tests before booting to the OS.

A

It performs Diagnostic Tests before booting to the OS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For which failures would you expect a POST to issue beep codes?

Video Card
Missing Keyboard
No Printer Found
No CPU Installed
No Network Connected
A

Video Card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How would a Tech start the System Setup Program?

Touch the screen setup button on the front panel of the computer.
Press a certain key before the computer boots to the OS.
Turn off the power switch, unplug the computer. Then plug in the computer and press the power switch to automatically start Setup Program.
Enter the administrator password during bootup.

A

Press a certain key before the computer boots to the OS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

To prevent random people from booting the OS, a tech should do what?

Set a User Password
Set an Admin Password
Flash the BIOS Chip
Remove the CMOS Battery

A

Set a User Password

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which is more likely to cause a computer’s reported time to fall behind?

Earth is spinning more slowly.
The computer was not programmed to recognize leap year.
The CMOS Battery is weak or failing.
The wall Voltage is too slow.

A

The CMOS Battery is weak or failing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which battery provides power to the RTC and CMOS Chip?

CR3022
CR2032
AA Battery
9 Volt Battery

A

CR2032

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The Largest Motherboard Form Factor is?

ATX
Micro-ATX
ITX
Mini-ITX

A

ATX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is true of an I/O Shield?

The I/O Shield must be customized to fit the case.
The I/O Shield is customized to fit the motherboard I/O area.
The dimensions of the I/O Shield for a Micro-ATX motherboard are 9.6” by 9.6”.
All I/O Shields are standardized to fit all motherboard I/O Areas.

A

The I/O Shield is customized to fit the motherboard I/O area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which Chip is typically found on Modern Motherboards?

CMOS Battery
Second Bridge
North Bridge
South Bridge

A

South Bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The job of the South Bridge is to act as the Interface between the CPU and what?

Slow Hardware
Fast Hardware
RAM
Video Card

A

Slow Hardware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which is typically not found on a Motherboard?

PCIe Slots
SATA Cables
Voltage Regulators
Power Connectors

A

SATA Cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Connectors with Cables that plug into the Motherboard are known as what?

Dongles
Dangles
Slots
I/O Shields

A

Dongles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Keeping the wires in a case neat, out of the way and easy to identify is called what?

Structured Cabling
Cable Management
Cable Bays
Pass-Throughs

A

Cable Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which critical components are found on the outside of the Case?

Front-Panel Connections
Power Supplies
Hard Drives and SSDs
Tower Cases

A

Front-Panel Connections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which is it best to do before mounting the Motherboard in the Case?

Connect the front-panel connection cables to the motherboard.
Connect the case fans to the motherboard.
Test the motherboard with CPU and RAM installed.
Remove the CPU and RAM.

A

Test the motherboard with CPU and RAM installed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which must be done before installing the Motherboard into a case?

Install Case Fans.
Install the I/O Shield.
Install the SATA Cables.
Install a Video Card into a PCIe Slot.

A

Install the I/O Shield.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A Power Supply with optional cable plug-ins is known as what?

Soldered Power Supply
Option Power Supply
Flex Power Supply
Modular Power Supply

A

Modular Power Supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does the On/Off Switch on a Power Supply do?

Provides Wall Power to the Power Supply
Turns on the Computer.
Applies Power to the “Power Good” Wire.
Nothing, Power Supplies Autodetect Power and Turn On or Off accordingly.

A

Provides Wall Power to the Power Supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The 4/6/8 Pin Connector, (Known as the P4 Connector) on the ATX 12v Power Supply provides power to which computer components?

SATA Drives
Optical Drive
CPU
SSD

A

CPU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which is a Primary Characteristic to be considered when choosing a Power Supply?

Cable Lengths
Efficiency
UPS Compatability
Power Sag Rating

A

Efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which is the quietest Cooling Solution?

Small Fan on a Heat Sink
Large Fan on a Heat Sink
SpeedFan Application
Liquid Cooling

A

Liquid Cooling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the Primary Result of Overheating the CPU?

Faster Fan spinning
Increased Performance
System Slowdowns
Shutdowns and Rebooting

A

Shutdowns and Rebooting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The Voltages output by a PSU can be checked with which Tool?

Power Supply Tester
Your Finger
A Bent Paper Clip
Smoke Detector

A

Power Supply Tester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Catastrophic (FAST) Power Supply Failures typically include which symptom?

Slow System Performance
Rebooting
Burning Smell
Dropping Voltages over time.

A

Burning Smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Unexpected noise coming from inside a running computer likely comes from what?

The system speaker failing.
Something interfering with a fan.
Beep codes generated by failing RAM.
The CPU overheating.

A

Something interfering with a fan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

If installed RAM does not show up in the CMOS setup program, what is the best course of action?

Re-Seat the CPU
Re-Seat the RAM Modules/s
Re-Seat the Main Power Connector
Add Cooling Fans to the RAM Module/s

A

Re-Seat the RAM Modules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Mass Storage is organized into __________ ?

Gibibytes
LBAs
Pages
Gigabytes

A

LBAs (Logical Block Addressing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does not describe a Mass Storage Device?

Optical Drive
M.1 Drive
Magnetic Disk
SSD

A

M.1 Drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which is a Standard Command and Connection standard for Mass Storage Devices?

ATA
LBA
2.5 Form Factor
3.5 Form Factor

A

ATA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Using SATA, how is data passed between the Computer and the Hard Drive?

Eight bits at a time.
Four bits at a time.
Two bits at a time.
One bit at a time.

A

One bit at a time.

SATA uses a serial data transfer protocol. Data is transferred one bit at a time from the drive to the computer and one bit at a time from the computer to the drive. SATA does not pass data 2-bits, 4-bits or 8-bits at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SSDs are organized into Logical Blocks, but their Memory Storage cells are called what?

Sectors
Slots
Pages
Sockets

A

Pages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which interface is the Fastest?

SATA
SCSI
NVMe
PATA

A

NVMe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Combine SCSI with SATA to get _______ ?

SSCSI
SAS
M.2
SASI

A

SAS (Serial Attached SCSI)

56
Q

Running SCSI commands over Ethernet is called ______ ?

iSCSI
SCSIi
eSCSI
SCSIe

A

iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Systems Interface)

57
Q

Which cannot be set as the first Boot Choice?

USB Drive
Optical Drive
M.2 Drive
UEFI

A

UEFI

58
Q

Which is a likely reason for a Computer to fail to boot?

Boot order set to bootable Optical Media.
System cannot boot from USB Drive.
Boot order changed to a non-bootable device.
System set to boot from SSD.

A

Boot order changed to a non-bootable device.

59
Q

What is the minimum number of Drives to perform RAID 5?

1
2
3
4
5
A

3

60
Q

What is the Max Number of Drive Failures under RAID 6 at which the Array will still function?

0
1
2
3
4
A

2

61
Q

Which is an example of Hardware RAID Controller?

Storage Spaces
Dedicated Expansion Card
Dynamic Disks
Basic Disks

A

Dedicated Expansion Card

62
Q

RAID 10 Requires how many Drives?

4
3
2
8

A

4

63
Q

Which is most likely the Result of a Corrupted OS?

System attempts to boot from wrong device.
Slow Performance
The Hard Drive makes a Loud Clicking Noise.
Continuous Rebooting

A

Continuous Rebooting

64
Q

Which is a Valid capacity for a CD?

74 Mb
74 Minutes
80 Mb
4.37 Gb

A

74 Minutes

74 minutes is a valid CD capacity. The other values are not valid for CDs.

65
Q

Which is not a Valid USB Speed?

12 Mbps
480 Mbps
5 Gbps
1.1 Gbps

A
  1. 1 Gbps
  2. 1 Gbps is not a valid USB speed. USB 1.1 Full Speed runs at 12 Mbps. USB 2.0 Hi Speed runs at 480 Mbps. USB 3 and 3.1 Gen 1 run at 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed).
66
Q

Each version of USB in a computer has it’s own what?

USB Hub
USB Controller
USB Peripheral
USB Type-B Connector

A

USB Controller

Each version of USB in a computer has its own USB controller which is then connected to a USB hub. USB Type-B connectors connect to a downstream peripheral (such as a printer). A USB hub is a circuit or device with one or more upstream USB ports. Each version of USB does not have its own peripheral.

67
Q

Most USB peripherals already have a what?

Windows Driver
USB Lock
HID Interface
Lighting Connector

A

Windows Driver

68
Q

Which is not a Valid Thunderbolt Speed?

10 Gbps
20 Gbps
30 Gbps
40 Gbps

A

30 Gbps

69
Q

What color is a PS/2 Mouse Port?

Red
Blue
Purple
Green

A

Green

PS/2 mouse ports are green. PS/2 keyboard ports are purple. Red and blue PS/2 ports are not a standard and are seldom, if ever, seen.

70
Q

Which utility would a Tech use to configure mouse settings?

Display Settings
Control Panel
Disk Management
Mice don’t have config settings.

A

Control Panel

71
Q

What kind of audio connector provides Digital Audio Output?

Main Speaker Connector
S/PDIF Connector
Microphone Connector
Silver/Gray Connector

A

S/PDIF

S/PDIF is the Sony/Phillips Digital Interface. The other connector choices are all analog, not digital.

72
Q

Which is not a consideration when selecting a slot in which to install an Expansion Card?

Air Flow
Slot Type
Type of Operating System
Space for Connectors

A

Type of Operating System

73
Q

Which is not a step in installing a New Expansion Card?

Turn on the Computer
Select a Connector Slot
Secure the Card in its slow with a slot-cover Screw.
Connect any power or data cables to the card.

A

Turn on the Computer.

74
Q

The two most critical components in Virtualization Workstations are a Powerful CPU and what?

Powerful Video Card
RAM
Mass Storage
KVM

A

RAM

75
Q

What is the Core Component in a NAS Setup?

SSD
RAID Array
RAM
Dual Monitors

A

RAID Array

76
Q

Which is a Monitor Backlight Technology?

LCD
LED
OLED
Nit

A

LED

LEDs are a monitor backlight technology. LCDs don’t make their own light (thus the need for a backlight). OLEDs make their own light (they don’t need a backlight). Nit is a unit used to measure monitor brightness.

77
Q

Which display technology uses Moving Mirrors?

CCFL
RGB
DLP
LCD

A

DLP (Digital Light Processing)

78
Q

A CPU with a built in graphics processor is what?

DVI
APU
VGA
GPU

A

APU (Accelerated Processing Unit)

79
Q

Which is not True of DVI Connectors?

Dual-Link connectors can support multiple monitors.
DVI-I supports only 1 monitor.
DVI can support analog or digital signals.
Dual-Link cards can support higher resolutions.

A

DVI-I supports only 1 monitor.

DVI-I can support one or more monitors. The other statements are all true regarding DVI.

80
Q

Which interface supports DRM?

HDMI
CCFLs and OLEDs
VGA
DVI-I

A

HDMI

81
Q

Which is not a task performed in Windows when installing a Video Card?

Adjust PCIe Power
Adjust Font Size
Update Drivers
Set Resolution to Native

A

Adjust PCIe Power

82
Q

Which is not a standard projector adjustment?

Keystone
Pincushion
Skew
Threading

A

Threading

83
Q

Which may be corrected by resetting a Connector?

Dead Pixel
Dim Image
Burn In
Incorrect Color Patterns

A

Incorrect Color Patterns

84
Q

Which is not a cause of an Overheat/Shutdown?

Bad Fan
Poor Ventilation
Failed Inverter
High Video Load

A

Failed Inverter

85
Q

What goes at the END of an Ethernet Frame?

Destination MAC
Source MAC
FCS
Data

A

FCS (Frame Check Sequence)

86
Q

MAC Addresses are made up of how many Bits?

24
48
64
128

A

48

87
Q

How does a Switch know the MAC Addresses of Connected devices?

Switches don’t know MAC Addresses
Switches query each connected host.
An Administrator must program the MAC-to-Port Table
The Switch learns the addresses by watching frames.

A

The Switch learns the Addresses by watching Frames.

88
Q

MAC Addresses can be represented by how many Hexadecimal Characters?

4
8
12
16

A

12

89
Q

How are WANs Identified?

Logical Address
Physical Address
MAC Address
Ethernet Address

A

Logical Address

90
Q

Which is not a Network Cable type?

Coaxial
Plenum
UTP
STP

A

Plenum

91
Q

Multimode Fiber Optic cables use what for their Light Source?

Lasers
Infrared Light
LEDs
Halogen Bulbs

A

LEDs

92
Q

Which is the best tool to identify a specific cable without a bundle of cables?

Fox & Hound
TDR
Continuity Tester
Punch Down Tool

A

Fox & Hound

93
Q

Solid-Core Cabling is best used where?

To connect a Switch to a Patch bay in a Patch Panel
To connect a computer to a wall jack.
To connect distant locations with Horizontal Runs and drops inside walls and plenum spaces.
To connect rarely-moved office equipment such as printers and copiers.

A

To connect distant locations with Horizontal Runs and drops inside walls and plenum spaces.

94
Q

A Class A IP Address has how many locked octets?

One
Two
Three
Four

A

One

95
Q

What does 255 mean in a Subnet Mask?

The octet is part of the host address.
The octet is part of the network address.
The network address is 255.
The host address is 255.

A

The octet is part of the Network Address

96
Q

Which is usually true of NAT Routers?

NAT Routers have a Private Address on the WAN side and a Public Address on the LAN side.
NAT Routers have a Private Address on the WAN side and a Private Address on the LAN side.
NAT Routers have a Public Address on the WAN side and a Private Address on the LAN side.
NAT Routers have a Public Address on the WAN side and a Public Address on the LAN side.

A

NAT Routers have a Public Address on the WAN side and a Private Address on the LAN side.

97
Q

How many bits are in an IPv6 address?

32
64
128
256

A

128

98
Q

Which Service uses port 445?

HTTPS
SMB
IMAP
SLP

A

SMB (Server Message Block)

99
Q

What is the max number of Characters in a FQDN?

128 (Including Dots)
128 (Not including Dots)
255 (Including Dots)
255 (Not including Dots)

A

255 (Including Dots)

100
Q

Which is NOT a WIFI Capable device?

WAP
Switch
Smartphone
Tablet

A

Switch

101
Q

Which 802.11 Standard runs on 5GHz?

  1. 11a
  2. 11b
  3. 11g
  4. 11c
A

802.11a

102
Q

Which should you try first if your device can’t Connect to a remembered public Wireless Network?

Increase the transmit power of the SOHO Router.
Connect to the SOHO Router with a Cable.
Reset the SOHO Router to Factory Defaults.
Delete the Profile and try to connect again.

A

Delete the Profile and try to connect again.

103
Q

Which is not true of Wireless Mesh Networks?

Mesh Networks have a single base station.
Mesh Networks are best for large enterprise Networks.
Mesh Networks have one or more beacon/satellite stations.
Mech Networks provide wide coverage in homes and small offices.

A

Mesh Networks are best for large enterprise Networks.

104
Q

Which is not a Wireless Radio Technology found in computers, tablets, or phones?

Infrared
Bluetooth
RFID
NFC

A

Infrared

105
Q

Which is most likely to prevent a device from Connecting to a previously used WIFI Network?

The Antenna(s) are poorly oriented.
The SSID has changed.
Too many devices are accessing the WAP.
The WAP is disconnected from the Internet.

A

The SSID has changed.

106
Q

Which is NOT True of Broadband Connections?

Broadband is Always On
Dial-Up Supports Broadband Speeds of 1.5 Mbps
Broadband DSL may require PPPoE Authentication
Cable Broadband uses the DOCSIS Standard.

A

Dial-Up Supports Broadband Speeds of 1.5 Mbps

107
Q

Which Firewall exception must be enabled on a Client to Connect to a Webserver?

Port 143 (inbound)
Port 143 (outbound)
Port 80 (inbound)
Port 80 (outbound)
A

Port 80 (outbound)

108
Q

Passive mode FTP uses Port ______. Active Mode FTP uses this same port plus Port ______?

20, 21
20, 22
21, 20
21, 22

A

21, 20

109
Q

Which is NOT an Email Protocol Port?

25
110
143
443

A

443

110
Q

Which is NOT a Wireless Technology used in IoT?

Ethernet
802.11
Zigbee
Z-Wave

A

Ethernet

111
Q

A Virtual Machine is a _______ OS running within a ______ OS.

hypervisor, host
guest, hypervisor
guest, host
host, guest

A

guest, host

112
Q

Which is NOT needed to install a VM?

Hypervisor
Guest OS .iso File
Virtual Disk
Optical Drive

A

Optical Drive

113
Q

Which is NOT a good use of VMs?

Practice administering different OS.
Experiment with multiple drives without purchasing hardware.
Configure Virtual Networking
Install 3D Games

A

Install 3D Games

114
Q

Which is NOT a benefit of Cloud Service?

Local Hosting
Rapid Elasticity
On-Demand
Resource Pooling

A

Local Hosting

115
Q

Which is NOT a Cloud Ownership Category?

Corporate
Private
Public
Hybrid

A

Corporate

116
Q

Which is NOT a benefit of Cloud-Based Apps?

Server is located off-site.
Streaming apps can be installed locally.
Data is synchronized across multiple devices.
Enables access to remotely-hosted desktops.

A

Streaming apps can be installed locally.

117
Q

Which feature is Unique to Laptops?

Touchpad
Laptop Edition Windows
Function Keys
Integrated Audio/Video

A

Touchpad

118
Q

Which is a good technique to use when working inside a Laptop?

Store all removed screws and hardware in a bowl to avoid losing them.
Keep the battery attached so you can test as you go.
Review a disassembly guide or manual.
Use a butter knife to separate case halves because it is dull but strong.

A

Review a disassembly guide or manual.

119
Q

Which technique is most helpful when reassembling a laptop?

Consult pictures taken when disassembling the laptop.
Use larger replacement screws than the ones removed.
Upgrade all upgradable components during reassembly.
Have a second laptop of the same model to review during reassembly.

A

Consult pictures taken when disassembling the laptop.

120
Q

Which component usually takes the most disassembly to replace in a laptop?

RAM
Battery
Hard Drive
CPU

A

CPU

121
Q

Laptop monitors can be challenging to work on for what reason?

They use high power.
They are sealed.
They have built in batteries.
They use chemical backlighting.

A

They are sealed.

122
Q

Which is not True of Mobile Devices?

It is a Single, Sealed Unit.
It runs a Mobile OS
It supports Wireless Connectivity.
It can easily be service and upgraded.

A

It can easily be service and upgraded.

123
Q

Which is not a wired connection for a smart phone?

Lightning
Ethernet
Micro USB
USB C

A

Ethernet

124
Q

Where can users get Android Apps?

Play Store
App Store
Microsoft Store
Steam Store

A

Play Store

125
Q

Which best describes Augmented Reality?

A Completely computer-generated environment.
Computer-generated elements superimposed on the real environment.
Blending real elements into a computer-generated environment.
Using a traditional computer and monitor to view real-time camera output.

A

Computer-generated elements superimposed on the real environment.

126
Q

Which is not a Mobile-Device Maintenance Practice?

Update the PRL
Update the Firmware
Backup the Data and Apps
Install .apk Files

A

Install .apk Files

127
Q

Synchronization is least concerned with which choice?

Contacts
Calendar
Backups
Files

A

Backups

128
Q

Which port number is not used by an Encryption Email protocol?

143
993
587
995

A

143

129
Q

What material do Laser Printers use to create the Final Printed Image?

Heated Thermal Plastic
Heat
Ink
Toner

A

Toner

130
Q

Which letters represent the Ink Colors normally used in Color Inkjet Printers?

RGB, BK, WH
RGBKW
RGB
CMYK

A

CMYK

131
Q

Which is not a part of the Impact-Printing Process?

Pins Pop Out of the Print Head.
Pre-Heat the Printhead.
Pins strike an Inked Ribbon
Inked Ribbon makes contact with paper.

A

Pre-Heat the Printhead.

132
Q

What is not a Maintenance Task for a Thermal Printer?

Replace the Paper
Clean the Printhead.
Replace the Fuser
Blow out any Debris.

A

Replace the Fuser

133
Q

Connecting a Local Printer to a Computer is usually done with what kind of Connection?

USB
Serial
Ethernet
Infrared

A

USB

134
Q

Which is NOT True of Shared Printers?

To access a shared printer, create a local printer and then convert it to Shared.
To create a shared printer, enable file and print sharing.
To create a shared printer, give it a share name.
To access a shared printer, add a printer, then select the Shared Printer.

A

To access a shared printer, create a local printer and then convert it to Shared.

135
Q

Which is not part of the 3D Printing Process?

Create the 3D Image
Create the Slice File
Print a 2D Test
Preheat the Extruder and bed.

A

Print a 2D Test

comptia a+ 220-1001 (deck 1) (38 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions