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MENTAL HYGIENE AND PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY > MIDTERMS > Flashcards

MIDTERMS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters regulates what individuals think, feel, and do?

A. Serotonin
B. Norepinephrine
C. GABA
D. Only A and C
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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2
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitter MOST LIKELY results in decreased anxiety to GAD patients when activated/increased?

A. GABA
B. Glutamate
C. Norepinephrine
D. Endorphin/Opioid
E. All of the above

A

A. GABA

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3
Q

Which biochemical reaction/imbalance is expected from a schizophrenia patient who is extremely agitated?

A. Elevated level of Dopamine
B. Imbalance level of Serotonin
C. High level of GABA
D. All of the Above
E. Only A and B

A

E. Only A and B

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4
Q

Which of the following phrases involves drug distribution?

A. The scattering of drugs or substances throughout body tissues and fluids
B. Movement of a substance into the bloodstream
C. It occurs through the kidneys
D. Process of a substance entering the body
E. Turning drug into derivative products

A

A. Scattering of drugs or substances throughout the body tissues and fluids

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5
Q

Which of the following BEST describes biotransformation?

A. It is the process of a substance entering the body
B. It prepares derivative product for elimination
C. It occurs in the liver
D. None of the Above
E. Only B and C

A

E. Only B and C

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6
Q

Which of the following BEST describes Psychologically-Oriented Psychiatry?

A. It focuses on understanding mental disorders from a biological standpoint
B. It held the view that psychiatric disorders had an organic basis
C. It focuses on the role of current emotional stressors
D. Believes that psychological conflicts are causal agents in the development of psychiatric symptomatology
E. It focuses on the functions of the nervous system

A

C. It focuses on the role of current emotional stressors

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7
Q

When a patient is experiencing depression with vegetative symptoms, which biochemical reaction/imbalance is expected?

a. Low levels of Serotonin
b. Low levels of Norepinephrine
c. Elevated levels of GABA
d. Only A and C
e. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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8
Q

Which of the following studies involves the study of the use of medications in treating mental disorders?

a. Pharmacognosy
b. Pharmacology
c. Pharmacogenetics
d. Psychopharmacology
e. All of the above

A

D. Psychopharmacology

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9
Q

Which of the following ways BEST demonstrates being skeptical about psychotropic agents?

a. Being certain only on psychotropic agents with approval from FDA and nothing else.
b. Looking for published data gathered by the employees of a particular pharmaceutical company.
c. Trusting only on psychotropic agents that are well-advertised with indications of clinical evidences.
d. Considering what is trending nowadays in the psychopharmacology field in treating mental disorders.
e. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

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10
Q

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a goal of pharmacotherapy?

a. To prevent relapse after clinical improvement
b. To fix purely psychologically based problems
c. To treat acute mental disorders
d. To prevent future episodes
e. None of the above

A

B. To fix purely psychologically based problems

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11
Q

In developing rapport with a client, the mental health professional should consider the following, except

a. Dressing professionally
b. Taking notes during sessions
c. Displaying symbols of comfort in the office/clinic
d. Soliciting client’s input when selecting treatments
e. None of the above

A

B. Taking notes during the session

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12
Q

Which pharmacokinetic term refers to the highest plasma concentration?

a. Bioavailability
b. Concentration in Plasma
c. Plasma Clearance
d. Peak Plasma Concentration
e. Half-Life

A

D. Peak Plasma Concentration

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13
Q

Which term refers to the time required to bring down drug level in body by one half which is dependent on volume of distribution and clearance?

a. Half-Life
b. Plasma Clearance
c. Drug Accumulation
d. Bioavailability
e. Time to Peak Plasma Concentration

A

A. Half Life

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14
Q

Which pharmacokinetic term refers to the proportion of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation?

a. Half-Life
b. Bioavailability
c. Liver-Pass Extraction
d. Volume Distribution
e. Plasma Clearance

A

B. Bioavailability

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15
Q

Elevated level of Norepinephrine can significantly lead to

a. Mania
b. Depression
c. Sleepiness
d. Decreased Anxiety
e. Either A and C

A

A. Mania

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16
Q

Which of the following is MORE LIKELY true about cyclic antidepressants?

a. These agents block the actions of acetylcholine.
b. They inhibit the sedative effects of alcohol.
c. They excite the effects of histamine.
d. All of the above
e. Both A and C

A

A. These agents block the actions of acetylcholine

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17
Q

Which of the following describes rapid cyclers?

a. Episodes of major depression persists within 1 year period.
b. Episodes of mania can be more severe.
c. Some bipolar patients are rapid cyclers.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

A

D. All of the above

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18
Q

Which of the following describes bipolar II?

a. True mania must persist.
b. At least two or more episodes of hypomania must exist.
c. Episodes of full-blown depression must exist.
d. Hypomania must exist for a minimum of one week.
e. Both B and C

A

C. Episodes of full-blown depression must exist

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19
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT influence a clinically depressed patient with less than adequate response to treatment?

a. Underdosage
b. Substance abuse
c. Underlying bipolar disorders
d. Undiagnosed medical conditions
e. Only A and B

A

E. Only A and B

20
Q

Although Lithium’s exact functioning in the body remains unclear, many still relies on its effects for managing bipolar disorders. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable assumption about Lithium?

a. It normalizes mania initially through its effects on norepinephrine.
b. It contributes to enhancing the actions of serotonin by increasing the levels of trytophan.
c. Since its a single agent and its exact functioning is unclear, overdosage is unachievable.
d. It might lead to a decrease in thyroid hormone production.
e. Both C and D

A

C. Since its a single agent and its exact functioning is unclear, overdosage is unachievable.

21
Q

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY true about MAOIs?

a. It usually inhibits the reuptake of 5-HT and NorE.
b. It has serious drug-food administration than SSRIs.
c. It causes serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs.
d. It has fatal drug-drug interactions than atypical antidepressants.
e. None of the above

A

A. It usually inhibits the reuptake of 5-HT and NorE.

22
Q

Which of the following is a psychotherapeutic technique by which patients learn to self-regulate their own neural activity through the use of brain activity displays in real-time?

a. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)
b. Neurofeedback
c. Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)
d. Exposure Therapy
e. Vagal Nerve Stimulation

A

B. Neurofeedback

23
Q

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY true about Lamictal (lamotrigine)?

a. It is more effective in treating mania.
b. It reduces the risk of future bipolar manic episodes.
c. It is an atypical antipsycotic used as a mood stabilizer.
d. It is effective in the treatment of bipolar depression.
e. None of the above

A

D. It is effective in the treatment of bipolar depression.

24
Q

Which of the following describes mixed depression?

a. It represents the majority of depressions seen clinically
b. It leads to physiological stress/disturbance
c. It can occur due to stressful events
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C

A

D. All of the above

25
Q

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a major causal factor/basis of bipolar disorder?

a. History of head injury/trauma
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Adjustment disorder
d. Seizure disorders
e. Central nervous system tumor

A

C. Adjustment disorder

26
Q

In initiating antidepressants to patients, which of the following MUST be considered?

a. When depressive symptoms are evident.
b. When the overall functioning is impaired.
c. When patient shows marked vegetative symptoms.
d. All of the above.
e. Only A and B.

A

C. When the patient shows marked vegetative symptoms.

27
Q

When a clinically depressed patient is mostly or partially resistant to medication, what should be the ideal treatment?

a. Monotherapy is still the most ideal.
b. Gradually increase the dosage of the prescription drug and strictly follow the chronic treatment guidelines.
c. Consider drug holidays.
d. Consider gradual discontinue of medication treatment and apply psychotherapy treatment.
e. Consider addition of medication from the combination of antidepressants.

A

E. Consider addition of medication from the combination of antidepressants.

28
Q

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a symptom of unipolar depression?

a. Apathy
b. Feeling of low self-esteem
c. Irritability
d. Elevated mood
e. Anhedonia

A

D. Elevated mood

29
Q

Which of the following psychotherapies teaches the patient how to better stabilize and organize daily routines and adhere to daily schedules?

a. Rhythm Therapy
b. Neurofeedback
c. Systematic Desensitization
d. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
e. Family-Centered Therapy

A

A. Rhythm Therapy

30
Q

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY true about Depatoke (divalproex)?

a. It has an anticonvulsant agent.
b. It may be better tolerated than Lithium.
c. It is a first-line agent for bipolar depression.
d. It causes liver toxicity in children especially those taking multiple psychiatric medications.
e. None of the above

A

C. It is a first-line agent for bipolar depression.

31
Q

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY a clinical effect of cigarette smoking to atypical antipsychotics?

a. Severe hypotension
b. Sudden onset of ESPs
c. Increased antipsychotic concentrations
d. Reduced plasma concentrations of antipsychotic agents
e. Both B and D

A

D. Reduced plasma concentrations of antipsychotic agents

32
Q

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY true about atypical antipsychotics?

a. These agents are used to improve the tolerability of antipsychotic use.
b. They have no drug interactions unlike conventional antipsychotics.
c. They are heterogenous class of antipsychotics.
d. They carry lower risks of EPS.
e. None of the above

A

B. They have no drug interactions unlike conventional antipsychotics.

33
Q

When a psychotic patient is experiencing EPS during antipsychotic treatment, which of the following should be the MOST ideal treatment?

a. Discontinue all antipsychotic treatment
b. Other pharmacological treatment can be utilized
c. Continue the usual dosage and apply psychotherapy
d. None of the above
e. Both A and B are ideal.

A

B. Other pharmacological treatment can be utilized

34
Q

Which neurological adverse events primarily due to prolonged use of first-generation antipsychotics is characterized by muscle rigidity, mask-like faces, shuffling gait and diminished arm-swinging?

a. Akathisia
b. Dystonia
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Parkinsonian
e. Tardive dyskinesia

A

D. Parkinsonian

35
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about schizoaffective disorder?

a. It sometimes meets the full criteria of schizophrenia with partial onset of bipolar disorder.
b. It strictly meets the full criteria of both schizophrenia and bipolar disorder/mood disorder.
c. It has features of positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and mood components of mood disorder.
d. None of the above.
e. Only A and B.

A

E. Only A and B

36
Q

Which of the following is a primary negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a. Exaggerations in language and communication.
b. Impaired information processing
c. Impaired attention
d. Loose associations
e. None of the above.

A

E. None of the above

37
Q

Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic?

a. Haldol (haloperidol)
b. Mellaril (thioridazine)
c. Prolixin (fluphenazine)
d. Stelazine (trifluoperazine)
e. Thorazine (chlorpromazine)

A

A. Haldol (haloperidol)

38
Q

Which of the following MOST likely describes drug mechanism of an effective antipsychotic?

a. Inhibits reuptake of selective serotonin
b. Blocks actions of 5-HT and dopamine
c. Inhibits reuptake of both serotonin and NorE
d. Blocks actions of dopamine and increases norepihephrine actions
e. None of the above.

A

B. Blocks actions of 5-HT and dopamine

39
Q

The following BEST describes the etiology of schizophrenia, except

a. Hyperactivity of dopamine
b. Hypofunction of glutamate
c. Significant genetic component
d. Onset influenced by psychosocial factors
e. None of the above.

A

E. None of the above

40
Q

The following are the indications of first-generation antipsychotics (DRAs), except

a. Mania
b. Delusional disorder
c. Depression with psychosis
d. Substance-induced disorder
e. None of the above

A

E. None of the above
`

41
Q

Which of the following is a good example of a primary psychosis?

a. A woman experiencing menstrual psychosis which affects thinking and mood.
b. A postictal psychosis happening in people with epilepsy.
c. A myxedematous psychosis happening due to hyperthyroidism.
d. A psychosis occurring during manic phases of people with bipolar disorder.
e. A depression and severe headache with altered consciousness in people experiencing stroke.

A

D. A psychosis occurring during manic phases of people with bipolar disorder.

42
Q

Which of the following antipsychotic has least or essentially no EPS?

a. Seroquel (quetiapine)
b. Psychotherapy (CBT)
c. Thorazine (chlorpromazine)
d. Mellaril (thioridazine)
e. Haldol (haloperidol)

A

A. Seroquel (quetiapine)

43
Q

The following are significant manifestations/symptoms of EPS, except

a. Muscle-tightening in the neck
b. Muscle rigidity and tremor
c. Motor restlessness
d. Muscle-tightening in the shoulders, accompanied by spasms
e. Only A and D

A

E. Only A and D

44
Q

Which significant adverse events due to long-term use of conventional antipsychotics refers to involuntary facial movements involving the tongue?

a. Tardive dyskinesia
b. Akathisia
c. Parkinsonian
d. Dystonia
e. Agranulocytosis

A

A. Tardive dyskinesia

45
Q

Which of the following LEAST likely describes brief psychotic disorder?

a. Psychosis follows an identifiable stressor.
b. Symptoms may include positive symptoms.
c. Symptoms may include negative symptoms.
d. It lasts until 6 months if not diagnosed properly.
e. Both B and D.

A

D. It lasts until 6 months if not diagnosed properly.

MENTAL HYGIENE AND PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY (7 decks)

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