MIDTERM 01 - Gram-Negative Coccobacilli and Cocci Flashcards

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1
Q

A gram-negative coccobacilli found on the mucous membranes of the upper respiratory tract

A

Haemophilus sp.

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2
Q

Enriched medium for Haemophilus sp.

A

Chocolate agar plate

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3
Q

An enriched medium for Haemophilus sp. that is made up RBCs that are lysed by slowly heating it to 80°C

A

Chocolate agar plate

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4
Q

Contains a polysaccharide capsule; has 6 types, from A-F (Haemophilus species)

A

Haemophilus influenzae/ Pfeiffer’s bacillus

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5
Q

Contains polyribitol ribose phosphate (PRP); is the major virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae

A

Type B Haemophilus influenzae

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6
Q

Haemophilus influenzae was the most common cause of __________ and __________ in children during the pre-vaccine era

A

Bacterial meningitis, Community-acquired pneumonia

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7
Q

Haemophilus influenzae is the second most common cause of __________ and __________

A

Otitis media, Acute sinusitis

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8
Q

Now rare; characterized by high fever, sore throat, dyspnea, and rapidly progressing respiratory obstruction (Clinical findings of Haemophilus influenzae)

A

Acute epiglottitis

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9
Q

2 treatments for Haemophilus influenzae

A

3rd-generation cephalosporins, Carbapenems

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10
Q

Prevention for Haemophilus influenzae

A

Haemophilus influenzae b (Hib) conjugated vaccine

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11
Q

Most common Haemophilus species isolated from cases of HACEK endocarditis (Haemophilus species)

A

Haemophilus parainfluenzae

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12
Q

A group of fastidious, slow-growing, gram-negative bacteria; causes severe systemic infections

A

HACEK group

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13
Q

Associated with the highly communicable form of conjunctivitis (pinkeye) in children (Haemophilus species)

A

Haemophilus aegyptius/Koch-Weeks bacillus

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14
Q

Causes chancroid (soft chancre), an STD characterized by a ragged ulcer on the genitalia, with marked swelling and tenderness (Haemophilus species)

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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15
Q

An STD characterized by a ragged ulcer on the genitalia, with marked swelling and tenderness (Clinical findings of Haemophilus ducreyi)

A

Chancroid (Soft chancre)

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16
Q

A gram-negative coccobacilli that is cultured in Bordet-Gengou medium and Regan-Lowe medium

A

Bordetella pertussis

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17
Q

2 media used to culture Bordetella pertussis

A

Bordet-Gengou medium, Regan-Lowe medium

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18
Q

Media used for culturing Bordetella pertussis that is composed of potato-blood-glycerol agar and penicillin

A

Bordet-Gengou medium

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19
Q

Media used for culturing Bordetella pertussis that is composed of charcoal horse blood-cephalexin-amphotericin B

A

Regan-Lowe medium

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20
Q

Used for adhesion to ciliated epithelial cells and tracheal colonization (Bordetella pertussis virulence factors)

A

Filamentous hemagglutinin & fimbriae

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21
Q

Promotes lymphocytosis, sensitization to histamine, and enhanced insulin secretion (Bordetella pertussis virulence factors)

A

Pertussis toxin

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22
Q

Damages and kills respiratory ciliated epithelial cells, resulting in the inability to move mucus (Bordetella pertussis virulence factors)

A

Tracheal cytotoxin & Lipooligosaccharide

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23
Q

A respiratory illness caused by Bordetella pertussis that has a catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescence stage (Clinical findings of Bordetella pertussis)

A

Pertussis (Whooping cough)

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24
Q

Occurs after a 2 week incubation period; characterized by mild coughing and sneezing, and the patient is highly infectious but not very ill (Stages of pertussis)

A

Catarrhal stage

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25
Q

Characterized by explosive cough, with “whoop” upon inhalation, and lymphocytosis (Stages of pertussis)

A

Paroxysmal stage

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26
Q

Treatment for Bordetella pertussis in the catarrhal stage

A

Erythromycin

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27
Q

Treatment for Bordetella pertussis used to prevent anoxic damage

A

O2 inhalation and sedation

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28
Q

3 vaccines used for Bordetella pertussis prevention

A

DPT, DTap, Tdap

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29
Q

Refers to the whole inactivated pertussis vaccine (Bordetella pertussis prevention)

A

DPT

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30
Q

Refers to the acellular pertussis vaccine with inactivated pertussis toxin; has fewer side effects but more expensive (Bordetella pertussis prevention)

A

DTap

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31
Q

Refers to the vaccine that has smaller concentration of diphtheria toxoids and pertussis antigens (Bordetella pertussis prevention)

A

Tdap

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32
Q

A gram-negative coccobacilli that is zoonotic and are obligate intracellular parasites of animals and humans

A

Brucella sp.

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33
Q

Preferred host of Brucella melitensis

A

Goats

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34
Q

Preferred host of Brucella suis

A

Swine

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35
Q

Preferred host of Brucella abortus

A

Cattle

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36
Q

Preferred host of Brucella canis

A

Dogs

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37
Q

Through cuts or abrasions in the skin or of the conjunctiva (Brucella sp. transmission)

A

Inoculation

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38
Q

Through infectious aerosols (Brucella sp. transmission)

A

Inhalation

39
Q

Through contaminated meat or dairy products (Brucella sp. transmission)

A

Ingestion

40
Q

Through contact with an infected animal (Brucella sp. transmission)

A

Contact

41
Q

Occurs in humans; characterized by malaise, fever, weakness, aches, and sweats (Clinical findings of Brucella sp.)

A

Brucellosis (Undulant fever/Malta fever)

42
Q

Occurs in animals; due to erythritol in the animal placenta (Clinical findings of Brucella sp.)

A

Abortion

43
Q

2 treatments for Brucella sp.

A

Doxycycline + Streptomycin/Gentamicin, Doxycycline + Rifampin

44
Q

A gram-negative coccobacilli that is zoonotic and is a highly infectious and a potential agent of bioterrorism

A

Francisella tularensis

45
Q

Culture medium used for culturing Francisella tularensis

A

Media enriched with cysteine

46
Q

Disease cause by Franciscella tularensis (Clinical findings of Francisella tularensis)

A

Tularemia

47
Q

Characterized by regional lymph nodes enlargement and necrosis, and lymphadenopathy with ulcers (Types of tularemia)

A

Ulceroglandular tularemia

48
Q

Characterized by peribronchial inflammation and lcoalized pneumonitis (Types of tularemia)

A

Pneumonic tularemia

49
Q

Characterized by yellowish granulomatous lesions on the eyelids and preauricular/cervical adenopathy (Types of tularemia)

A

Oculoglandular tularemia

50
Q

Characterized by lymphadenopathy without ulcers (Types of tularemia)

A

Glandular tularemia

51
Q

Occurs in the mouth and throat (Types of tularemia)

A

Oropharyngeal tularemia

52
Q

Characterized by septicemia (Types of tularemia)

A

Typhoidal tularemia

53
Q

2 treatments used for Francisella tularensis

A

Streptomycin, Gentamicin

54
Q

A gram-negative coccobacilli that is the most common organism found in human wounds inflicted by bites from cats and dogs

A

Pasteurella multocida

55
Q

Transmission of Pasteurella multocida

A

Animal bite

56
Q

2 treatments for Pasteurella multocida

A

Penicillin G (DOC), Tetracyclines & fluoroquinolones

57
Q

2 gram-negative diplococci that are facultative anaerobes and are oxidase positive

A

Neisseria sp., Moraxella catarrhalis

58
Q

A gonococci that is cultured using a Thayer-Martin agar plate; causes gonorrhea (Neisseria species)

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

59
Q

Culture medium used for Neisseria gonorrhoeae; made up of a chocolate agar plate and vancomycin, colistin, and nystatin (VCN)

A

Thayer-Martin agar plate

60
Q

Antibiotic present in Thayer-Martin agar plate that inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria

A

Vancomycin

61
Q

Antibiotic present in Thayer-Martin agar plate that inhibits the growth of gram-negative bacteria

A

Colistin

62
Q

Antifungal present in Thayer-Martin agar plate that inhibits the growth of fungi

A

Nystatin

63
Q

A Thayer-Martin agar plate that contains trimethoprim that is used to inhibit the growth of Proteus sp.

A

Modified Thayer-Martin agar plate

64
Q

Adherence and resistance to phagocytosis (Neisseria gonorrhoeae virulence factors)

A

Pili

65
Q

Adherence to host receptor cells (Neisseria gonorrhoeae virulence factors)

A

Opa proteins

66
Q

Form pores that control inflow of nutrients to the bacterial cell; prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion within neutrophils (Neisseria gonorrhoeae virulence factors)

A

Por proteins

67
Q

LPS without O-antigen side chains; major virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae (Neisseria gonorrhoeae virulence factors)

A

Lipooligosaccharide (LOS)

68
Q

Characterized by urethritis in men and pelvic inflammatory disease in women (Clinical findings of Neisseria gonorrhoeae)

A

Gonorrhea/The Clap/Tula

69
Q

May lead to blindness in neonates (Clinical findings of Neisseria gonorrhoeae)

A

Gonorrhea ophthalmia neonatorum

70
Q

Treatment/regimen of choice for treating most gonococcal infections caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin

71
Q

Cultured using chocolate agar plate; has 6 important serogroups associated with disease in humans and is transmitted through droplet and direct contact (Neisseria species)

A

Neisseria meningitidis

72
Q

Neisseria meningitidis is cultured using __________

A

Chocolate agar plate

73
Q

Initiate binding to nasopharyngeal epithelial cells (Neisseria meningitidis virulence factors)

A

Pili

74
Q

Responsible for many of the toxic effects (Neisseria meningitidis virulence factors)

A

Lipid A disaccharide of LPS

75
Q

Characterized by a triad of sudden high fever, nuchal rigidity, and altered mental status; can progress to coma (Clinical findings of Neisseria meningitidis)

A

Meningitis

76
Q

Characterized by high fever, hemorrhagic rash, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and circulatory collapse (Clinical findings of Neisseria meningitidis)

A

Fulminant meningococcemia

77
Q

Characterized by bilateral hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands with subsequent adrenal failure (Clinical findings of Neisseria meningitidis)

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

78
Q

Drug of choice for Neisseria meningitidis

A

Penicillin G

79
Q

2 vaccines used for prevention of Neisseria meningitidis

A

Tetravalent polysaccharide vaccine, Tetravalent conjugate vaccine

80
Q

A gram-negative diplococci that is cultured in a blood/chocolate agar plate and is a member of the normal microbiota

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

81
Q

3 most common bacterial causes of sinusitis and otitis media

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis

82
Q

A weakly gram-negative cocci that is an obligate intracellular bacteria and is cultured in a yolk sac of embryonated eggs or cell/tissue culture

A

Chlamydia sp.

83
Q

Environmentally stable infectious particle (transmissible form) (Chlamydia biphasic development cycle)

A

Elementary body (EB)

84
Q

Intracellular form (Replicative form) (Chlamydia biphasic development cycle)

A

Reticulate body (RB)

85
Q

Transmitted from eye to eye by infected secretions; is a chronic keratoconjunctivitis that can progress to scarring and blindness (Clinical findings of Chlamydia trachomatis)

A

Trachoma/Ancient eye disease

86
Q

Acquired by newborns during passage through an infected birth canal; in adults, it causes an irritated eye and mucopurulent or purulent damage (Clinical findings of Chlamydia trachomatis)

A

Inclusion conjunctivitis

87
Q

Characterized by dysuria, nonpurulent discharge, and frequent urination (Clinical findings of Chlamydia trachomatis)

A

Nongonococcal urethritis

88
Q

Characterized by suppurative inguinal adenitis (Clinical findings of Chlamydia trachomatis)

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

89
Q

An inflammatory arthritis that manifests after several days to weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection; characterized by a classic triad of arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis (Clinical findings of Chlamydia trachomatis)

A

Reactive arthritis/Reiter syndrome

90
Q

2 treatments for Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline, Azithromycin (if pregnant)

91
Q

Causes atypical pneumonia; formerly known as Taiwan acute respiratory agent (TWAR) (Chlamydia species)

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

92
Q

Acquired from contacts with birds; causes psittacosis (Chlamydia species)

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

93
Q

Characterized by sudden onset of illness resembling influenza, nonbacterial pneumonia, or typhoid fever (Clinical findings of Chlamydophila psittaci)

A

Psittacosis/Ornithosis/Parrot fever