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RADI > Meh > Flashcards

Meh Flashcards

1
Q

Acute renal failure would also be known as what type of reaction?

A

organ specific reaction

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2
Q

What two processes move urine through the ureters to the bladder?

A

peristalsis and gravity

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3
Q

A nonallergic reaction is what type of effect?

A

mild or vasomotor effect

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4
Q

Anaphylactic reactions are also known as what type of effects?

A

moderate effects

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5
Q

The kidneys and ureters are located in what space?

A

retroperitoneal space

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6
Q

Which structures create a 20* angle between the upper pole and lower pole of the kidney?

A

the psoas muscles

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7
Q

List the routine 5 step imaging sequence for a routine IVU.

A
  1. 1 minute nephrogram
  2. 5 minute KUB
  3. 10 minute KUB
  4. 15 minute RPO & LPO
  5. Postvoid
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8
Q

How many tomograms are usually produced during a routine IVU?

A

3

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9
Q

How much obliquity is required for the LPO/RPO during cystograms?

A

30*

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10
Q

A true allergic reaction is what type of effect?

A

moderate or anaphylactic effect

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11
Q

How far above the site do you place a tourniquet?

A

3-4 inches

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12
Q

What are the 3 purposes of an IVU?

A
  1. Visualize the collecting portion of the urinary system
  2. asses the functional ability of the kidneys
  3. evaluate the system for any abnormalities
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13
Q

What degree of rotation from supine is required to place the kidneys parallel to the film/IR?

A

30*

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14
Q

Which two landmarks can be palpated to locate the kidneys?

A

Xiphoid tip and iliac crest

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15
Q

What specific anatomy is examined during a retrograde ureterogram?

A

primarily the ureters

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16
Q

Vasovagal reactions are also known as?

A

Severe reactions

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17
Q

What are the 3 functions of the urinary system?

A
  1. remove nitrogenous wastes
  2. regulate water levels in the body
  3. regulate acid-base balance and electrolyte levels of the body
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18
Q

At what stage of an IVU is the true renal parenchyma best seen?

A

within one minute of the injection

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19
Q

What are the 2 types of contrast used in urology?

A

ionic and non-ionic

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20
Q

What drug is given to diabetics that won’t mix well with the contrast?

A

metaformin or glucophage

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21
Q

What is a bolus infusion?

A

Its in a syringe and you push it in

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22
Q

How many times do you read the contrast label?

A

3

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23
Q

Vasomotor effects are also known as?

A

Mild effects

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24
Q

Where/when is retrograde urography done?

A

in surgery/operating room

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25
Q

What is the difference between routine IVU and hypertensive IVU?

A

Shorter times between the first 3 kidney films

ex. 1,2,&3 minute films vs. 1,3, & 5 minutes

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26
Q

Which kidney does an LPO demonstrate?

A

Right (upside)

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27
Q

Patient must be NPO for how long before an IVU?

A

NPO after midnight (8 hrs)

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28
Q

What two ways can contrast media be introduced?

A
  1. intravenous injection (needle)

2. catheterization

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29
Q

Which contrast media has higher osmolality and a greater chance of an allergic reaction?

A

Ionic contrast

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30
Q

What are 2 common side effects to the contrast media?

A

temporary hot flash and metallic taste in mouth

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31
Q

Normal BUN levels for an adult should range between?

A

8-25 mg/100mL

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32
Q

What gauge needle is used for venipuncture of adults?

A

18-22 gauge

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33
Q

What is the most common vein for venipuncture?

A

median cubital

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34
Q

What are the 3 most common veins in venipuncture?

A
  1. median cubital
  2. basilic
  3. cephalic
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35
Q

What is the most common emergency drug for reactions?

A

epinephrine

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36
Q

Which ureter does an LPO demonstrate?

A

Left (downside)

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37
Q

Severe or vasovagal reactions include?

A
  • very low blood pressure
  • cardiac arrest
  • loss of consciousness
  • convulsions
  • laryngeal edema
  • cyanosis (blue skin)
  • difficulty breathing
  • profound shock
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38
Q

Moderate or anaphylactic reactions include?

A
  • excessive hives (urticaria)
  • tachycardia (increased heart rate)
  • giant hives
  • excessive vomiting
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39
Q

What is the brim of the pelvis?

A

Where the iliac blood vessels pass by the ureters

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40
Q

What is the ureterovesical junction?

A

Where the ureter joins the bladder

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41
Q

What is the ureteropelvic junction?

A

Where the renal pelvis funnels into the ureter

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42
Q

What are the three constricted points of the ureter?

A
  1. ureteropelvic junction
  2. brim of pelvis
  3. ureterovesical junction
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43
Q

Mild or vasomotor reactions include?

A
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • hives
  • itching
  • sneezing
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44
Q

The adrenal glands hold what two important substances?

A

epinephrine and cortical hormones

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45
Q

What drug(s) are given to some patients before they are given contrast media to help reduce the risk of a reaction occurring?

A

Benadryl and predinsone

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46
Q

The average urine output per day is?

A

1.5 liters or 1500 mL

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47
Q

The total capacity for the average adult bladder is?

A

350-500mL

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48
Q

What is the name for the mass of fat that surrounds each kidney?

A

adipose capsule

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49
Q

What is the name of the junction found between the distal ureters and the bladder?

A

ureterovesical junction

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50
Q

What is the name of the inner posterior region of the bladder formed by the two ureters entering and the urethra exiting?

A

trigone

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51
Q

The normal creatine level for adults should range between?

A

.6-1.5 mL

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52
Q

The leakage of contrast from a vessel into the surrounding soft tissue is called?

A

extravisation

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53
Q

What gauge needle is used for venipuncture in children?

A

23-25 gauge

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54
Q

The longitudinal fissure found along the central medial border of the kidney is called?

A

the hilum

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55
Q

The peripheral or outer portion of the kidney is called?

A

the cortex

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56
Q

The term that describes the total functioning portion of the kidney is?

A

renal parenchyma

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57
Q

The microscopic functional and structural unit of the kidney is the?

A

nephron

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58
Q

Which structure of the medulla is made up of a collection of tubules that drain into the minor calyces?

A

the renal pyramids

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59
Q

When you puncture, the needle should be at what angle?

A

20-45 angle, bevel up

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60
Q

If a patient is taking glucophage/metaformin and is given an iodinated contrast, what could happen?

A

acute renal failure

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61
Q

Ureters lie on what muscles?

A

psoas muscles

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62
Q

What is the length of the female urethra?

A

1 1/2 inches

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63
Q

What percent of blood from each heart beat is pumped to the kidneys?

A

about 25%

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64
Q

What is the length of the ureters?

A

10-12 inches

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65
Q

Which kidney is generally lower than the other and why?

A

right, due to the liver

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66
Q

What is the length of the male urethra?

A

7-8 inches

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67
Q

The urinary system consists of?

A

2 kidneys
2 ureters
1 urethra
1 urinary bladder

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68
Q

A life threatening condition/reaction is what type of effect?

A

severe or vasovagal

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69
Q

Intraarticular fx of the posterior lip of the distal radius is called?

A

Barton’s fx

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70
Q

Complete fx that is at a near right angle to the long axis of the bone is called?

A

Transverse fx

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71
Q

Complete fx that passes through the bone at an oblique angle is called?

A

Oblique fx

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72
Q

Complete fx in which the bone has been twisted apart and the fx spirals around the long axis of the bone is called?

A

Spiral fx

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73
Q

Incomplete fx with broken cortex on one side of the bone only is called?

A

Greenstick fx

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74
Q

Fx resulting in multiple (two or more) fragments is called?

A

Comminuted fx

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75
Q

Fx of the proximal half of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head is called?

A

Monteggia fx

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76
Q

Fx of the distal fifth metacarpal is called?

A

Boxer’s fx

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77
Q

Fx of the distal radius with anterior displacement is called?

A

Smith’s fx

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78
Q

Intraarticular fx of the radial styloid process is called?

A

Hutchinson’s fx

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79
Q

Fx of the base of the first metacarpal is called?

A

Bennett’s fx

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80
Q

Fx due to a severe stress to a tendon is called?

A

Avulsion fx

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81
Q

Fx where one bone fragment is firmly driven into the other is called?

A

Impacted fx

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82
Q

Indented fx of the skull is called?

A

Depressed fx

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83
Q

Fx with fx lines radiating from a center point is called?

A

Stellate fx

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84
Q

Fx of the lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, and distal posterior tip of the tibia is called?

A

Trimalleolar fx

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85
Q

Fx producing a height of the anterior vertebral body is called?

A

Compression fx

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86
Q

Complete fx of the distal fibula, frequently with fx of the medial malleolus as well is called?

A

Pott’s fx

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87
Q

Fx of the distal radius with posterior displacement is called?

A

Colles’ fx

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88
Q

Fx of pedicles of C2 is called?

A

Hangman’s fx

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89
Q

Fx of the distal phalanx caused by a ball striking the end of an extended finger is called?

A

Mallet (baseball) fx

90
Q

Fx resulting from a direct blow to the orbit is called?

A

Blowout fx or tripod fx

91
Q

Fx that involves an isolated bone fragment is called?

A

Chip fx

92
Q

Comminuted fx of distal phalanx, possibly caused by a crushing blow, is called?

A

Tuft of burst fx

93
Q

Fx resulting from repeated stress on a bone is called?

A

Stress fx

94
Q

Fx due to a disease process within the bone is called?

A

Pathologic fx

95
Q

Fx where the bone does not break through the skin is called?

A

simple or closed fx

96
Q

Fx where part of the bone protrudes through the skin is called?

A

compound or open fx

97
Q

What is the inability to void called?

A

Retention

98
Q

What is the passage of large volume of urine called?

A

Polyuria

99
Q

What is the act of voiding called?

A

Micturition

100
Q

Complete cessation of urinary secretion called?

A

Anuria

101
Q

Excess urea and creatine in the blood is called?

A

Uremia

102
Q

The backward return flow of urine is called?

A

Urinary reflux

103
Q

The presence of gas in the urine is called?

A

Pneumoria

104
Q

The diminished amount of urine being excreted is called?

A

Oliguria

105
Q

The presence of glucose in the urine is called?

A

Glucosuria

106
Q

The constant or frequent involuntary passage of urine is called?

A

Urinary incontinence

107
Q

The absence of a functioning kidney is called?

A

Renal agenesis

108
Q

What is indicated by presence of uremia, oliguria, or anuria?

A

Acute renal failure

109
Q

The enlargement of the prostate gland is called?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

110
Q

The fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys during the development of the fetus is called?

A

Horseshoe kidney

111
Q

The inflammation of the capillary loops of the glomeruli of the kidneys is called?

A

Glomerulonephritis

112
Q

The artificial opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestine is called?

A

Vesicorectal fistula

113
Q

A large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis is called?

A

Staghorn calculus

114
Q

Increased blood pressure to the kidneys due to atherosclerosis is called?

A

Renal hypertension

115
Q

A normal kidney that fails to go into the abdomen but remains in the pelvis is called?

A

Ectopic kidney

116
Q

A rare tumor of the kidney is called?

A

Pheochromocytoma

117
Q

Multiple cysts in one or both kidneys is called?

A

Polycystic kidney disease

118
Q

What term describes an abnormal drop of the kidney when the patient is placed erect?

A

Nephroptosis

119
Q

A buildup of nitrogenous waste in the blood is called what?

A

Uremia

120
Q

Cholecystitis

A

inflammation of the gallbladder

121
Q

Neoplasm

A

benign or malignant tumors

122
Q

Biliary stenosis

A

narrowing of the biliary ducts

123
Q

What are the 3 primary functions of the digestive system?

A
  1. intake and digestion
  2. absorption
  3. elimination
124
Q

What are the 4 accessory organs of digestion?

A
  1. salivary glands
  2. pancreas
  3. liver
  4. gallbladder
125
Q

What are the 3 salivary glands?

A
  1. parotid
  2. sublingual
  3. submandibular
126
Q

What is the largest solid organ in the body?

A

Liver

127
Q

How much bile does the liver produce daily?

A

1 quart (800-1000mL)

128
Q

The act of swallowing is termed?

A

Deglutition

129
Q

What are the 3 primary functions of the gallbladder?

A
  1. store bile
  2. concentrate bile
  3. contract when stimulated
130
Q

Chewing movements are termed?

A

Mastication

131
Q

How much saliva do the salivary glands secrete daily?

A

1000-1500mL

132
Q

Where is the pharynx located?

A

posterior to the oral cavity, nasal cavity, and larynx

133
Q

What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?

A
  1. nasopharynx
  2. oropharynx
  3. laryngopharynx
134
Q

What two things occur when swallowing?

A
  1. the soft palate closes off the nasopharynx

2. the epiglottis closes off the laryngeal opening

135
Q

Where are the two indentations of the esophagus?

A
  1. the aortic arch

2. left primary bronchus

136
Q

The segment of the esophagus just below the diaphragm and just before the stomach is called what?

A

the cardiac antrum

137
Q

The opening between the esophagus and stomach is called?

A

cardiac orifice or esophagogastric junction

138
Q

Which quadrant is the gallbladder in?

A

right upper quadrant

139
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the stomach?

A
  1. fundus
  2. body
  3. pylorus
140
Q

The folds in the body of the stomach are called what?

A

rugae

141
Q

What are the 3 sections of the small intestine?

A
  1. duodenum
  2. jejunum
  3. ileum
142
Q

Where does the small intestine join the large intestine?

A

the ileocecal valve

143
Q

What are the 4 sections of the duodenum?

A
  1. superior (first)
  2. descending (second)
  3. horizontal (third)
  4. ascending (fourth)
144
Q

Where does the ileum meet the large intestine?

A

the duodenojejunal flexure

145
Q

Which part of the small intestine is the longest?

A

ileum

146
Q

Which part of the small intestine is the shortest?

A

duodenum

147
Q

Choledocholithiasis

A

enlargement or narrowing of the biliary ducts because of the presence of stones

148
Q

Which part of the small intestine is the widest?

A

duodenum

149
Q

Which part of the small intestine is the most fixed?

A

duodenum

150
Q

What are the 7 major components of the alimentary canal?

A
  1. oral cavity
  2. pharynx
  3. esophagus
  4. stomach
  5. small intestine
  6. large intestine
  7. anus
151
Q

What are the 3 structures that pass through the diaphragm?

A
  1. esophagus
  2. aorta
  3. inferior vena cava
152
Q

What part of the upper GI tract is a common site for ulcer disease?

A

duodenal bulb

153
Q

Colelithiasis

A

condition of having gallstones

154
Q

cholecystectomy

A

surgical removal of the gallbladder

155
Q

How many functions does the liver perform?

A

over 100

156
Q

What is a common site for lodging of gallstones?

A

duodenal papilla

157
Q

What is the average male life expectancy?

A

73 years

158
Q

What is the average female life expectancy?

A

80 years

159
Q

Which group have a higher incidence of obesity and late onset of diabetes?

A

elderly minorities

160
Q

The deterioration of intellectual ability accompanied by emotional disturbances is called what?

A

Dementia

161
Q

The highest suicide rate is in?

A

Older adults (primarily white males who live alone)

162
Q

The top 5 causes of death in older adults are?

A
  1. cardiovascular disease
  2. cancer
  3. cerebrovascular disease (strokes)
  4. pneumonia/flu
  5. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
163
Q

80% of deaths in people over 65 are from what 3 causes?

A
  1. heart disease
  2. cancer
  3. stroke
164
Q

The leading cause of death for people 65 and over is?

A

cardiovascular disease

165
Q

The most common procedure done in US hospitals, especially on elderly patients is?

A

arthroplastic surgery (total joint replacements)

166
Q

Which joints are the most common for a total joint replacement?

A

the knee and hip

167
Q

Osteoarthritis and osteoporosis require an increase or decrease in technique?

A

decrease

168
Q

What view best demonstrates a compression fx?

A

lateral

169
Q

Degeneration of joints is called?

A

osteoarthritis

170
Q

Loss of bone mass is called?

A

osteoporosis

171
Q

Emphysema requires an increase or decrease in technical factors?

A

decrease

172
Q

What is the inflammation of the lungs resulting in accumulation of fluids called?

A

pneumonia

173
Q

Pneumonia requires an increase or decrease in technical factors?

A

slight increase

174
Q

The condition of excess fluid within the lung, commonly seen in congestive heart failure is called?

A

pulmonary edema

175
Q

Pulmonary edema requires an increase or decrease in technical factors?

A

Increase

176
Q

The 5 routes of transmission are?

A
  1. contact
  2. droplet
  3. airborne
  4. common vehicle
  5. vector borne
177
Q

What are the two types of contact transmission?

A

Direct and indirect

178
Q

The 4 main vital signs are what?

A
  1. temperature
  2. pulse
  3. respiration
  4. blood pressure
179
Q

What is the average adult oral temperature?

A

98.6 F or 37 C

180
Q

What is the average adult axillary temperature?

A

97.6 F or 36.4 C

181
Q

What is the average adult rectal temperature?

A

99.6 F or 37.2 C

182
Q

What is the average child ( 5yr-13yr) temperature?

A

97.8F (36.7C) to 98.6F (37C)

183
Q

What is the average infant ( 3 months - 3 yrs) temperature?

A

99 F or 37.2 C

184
Q

Symptoms of fever include?

A
  • increased pulse and respiratory rate
  • discomfort/aching
  • flushed, dry skin
  • chills
  • loss of appetite
185
Q

A patient who has an elevated temperature above normal limits is said to have?

A

a fever or pyrexia

186
Q

A patient who has a decreased temperature below normal limits (96.8F) is said to have?

A

hypothermia

187
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for an adult?

A

60-90 beats per minute

188
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for a child?

A

90-100 beats per minute

189
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for an infant?

A

120 beats per minute

190
Q

9 common place for finding a pulse are?

A
  1. apical
  2. raidal
  3. carotid
  4. femoral
  5. popliteal
  6. temporal
  7. dorsalis pedis
  8. posterior tibial
  9. brachial
191
Q

The most common site used for taking a pulse is where?

A

Radial (radial artery in the wrist, base of thumb)

192
Q

Tachycardia means?

A

increased heart rate (over 100 beats per minute)

193
Q

Brachycardia means?

A

decreased heart rate ( below 60 beats per minute)

194
Q

What is the average adult respiration rate?

A

15-20 breaths per minute

195
Q

What is the average infant respiration rate?

A

30-60 breaths per minute

196
Q

Cystolic

A

the amount of blood flow ejected from the left ventricle of the heart

197
Q

Diastolic

A

the amount of resistance the blood meets due to the systemic vascular resistance

198
Q

Blood pressure is measured in?

A

mm Hg (mm of mercury)

199
Q

Most patients have a pulse oxygen (O2) level of what?

A

95%

200
Q

A pulse oxygen (O2) level of what percentage indicates that the tissues are not receiving adequate oxygen?

A

85% or lower

201
Q

Nasogastric Tubes (NG tubes) are made of what?

A

silicone or rubber

202
Q

NG tubes are inserted where?

A

into the stomach, duodenum, and jejunum

203
Q

NG tubes are used for what?

A

to help keep the stomach free of gastric contents and air

204
Q

Nasoenteric Tubes ( NE tubes) are allowed to pass into the small intestine how?

A

via peristalsis

205
Q

NE tubes are used for what?

A

to diagnose and treat

206
Q

What are gastronomy tubes?

A

a surgical opening in the stomach with a tube attached to the wall

207
Q

What are gastronomy tubes used for?

A

the purpose of feeding

208
Q

What are the two most common types of central venous catheters?

A
  1. Hickmann

2. Broviac

209
Q

Central venous catheters are also called what?

A

PIC lines

210
Q

PIC lines are used for what?

A

long-term medication or transfusion on patients with long-term illnesses

211
Q

PIC lines are planted/inserted where?

A

the upper right side of the chest

212
Q

Emergency suctioning is used for what?

A

to remove/clear drainage from the moth or nose

213
Q

What is a tracheostomy?

A

a surgical opening into the trachea to relieve respiratory distress

214
Q

What is the purpose of mechanical ventilators?

A

they are life support, aids in breathing

215
Q

Where are endotracheal tubes inserted?

A

through the mouth into the trachea

216
Q

What are issues that could come from an improperly placed endotracheal tube?

A

tube too high can push air into the stomach, too low can cause a lung to collapse

217
Q

When are chest tubes needed?

A

when there is a pneumothorax (collapsed lung) or when there is hemothorax (blood or fluids accumulating in the lung)

218
Q

What are the three most common types of tissue drains?

A
  1. Hemovac
  2. Jackson-Pratt
  3. Penrose
219
Q

What are tissue drains used for?

A

placed near or at wound sites when large amounts of drainage are expected

220
Q

What is shock?

A

the failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to oxygenate tissues are remove by-products of metabolism

RADI (4 decks)

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