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LOOK AT THIS Flashcards

1
Q

what are the grooves on a Y type mandibular premolar

A

central and lingual grooves

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2
Q

most superior of these structures?

  • aryepiglottic fold
  • true vocal folds
  • arytenoid cartilage
  • vestibular folds
A

aryepiglottic fold

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3
Q

two visceral arteries from the abdominal aorta

A

celiac and inferior mesenteric artery

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4
Q

what muscle does supination of the radioulnar joint

A

biceps brachialis

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5
Q

what doesnt happen until after collagen has been made by mitochondria?

A

association between molecules/intermolecular bonding

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6
Q

what structures go through the parotid gland

A

facial nerve, ECA, auriculotemporal nerve, retromandibular vein

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7
Q

whats the male version of granular cells?

A

sertoli cells

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8
Q

what causes directly chondrogenesis and osteogenesis

A

calcium

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9
Q

what gland isnt important in humans

A

adrenal medulla

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10
Q

what sugar and enzyme do bacteria use to make caries

A

sucrose, glucosyltransferase

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11
Q

what does fumarate link the urea cycle to

A

tca cycle

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12
Q

what does the vertebral artery go thorugh to get to the skull

A

foramen magnum

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13
Q

which of these doesn’t go through the foramen magnum

A

hypoglossal nerve

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14
Q

whats not normally in plasma

A

thrombin

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15
Q

infection from maxillary molar goes into what space

A

infratemporal fossa

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16
Q

during clenching what fibers attach to the articular disc to stabilize it

A

superior head of the lateral pterygoid

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17
Q

what does the TMJ ligament attach to

A

zygomatic process of the temporal bone

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18
Q

what phase is the cell committed to division

A

G1

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19
Q

paralysis of the face below the zygoma

A

contralateral cerebral hemisphere damage (UMN)

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20
Q

how many mm can a patient who cant translate condyle open

A

30mm

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21
Q

what is similar between the pancreas and parotid gland

A

serous gland

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22
Q

excessive ACTH causes

A

weight gain and hyperglycemia

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23
Q

which virus gives chronic infection?

  • HCV
  • HBV
  • HAV
  • HDV
A

HCV and HBV

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24
Q

what does the endosteum line?

A

medullary cavity

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25
Q

what implants in the endometrium

A

blastocyst

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26
Q

what type of epithelium lines the trachea

A

pseudostratitifed ciliated columnar

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27
Q

what has ATPase activity in smooth muscle

A

myosin

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28
Q

what is the visceral layer of bowmans capsule made up of

A

podocytes

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29
Q

what virus has a latency period where it can be found in the saliva

A

mumps

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30
Q

what else does the virus causing chicken pox cause

A

herpes zoster infection

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31
Q

which anterior tooth root will be bifurcated

A

mandibular canine

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32
Q

liver failure will cause

A

hypoalbuminemia

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33
Q

what is happening during absolute refracotry period

A

Na channels are blocked

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34
Q

which of these is not superficial to the hyoglossus muscle

A

lingual artery (deep to)

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35
Q

what will the PAH determine

A

renal plasma flow

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36
Q

what part of the nephron uses the most ATP

A

proximal tubule

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37
Q

what muscle hooks on the hamulus

A

tensor veli palatini

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38
Q

what attaches to the lingula

A

sphenomandibular ligament

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39
Q

achalasia is related to what

A

esophagus

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40
Q

what is true of Na and water transport in the proximal tubule

A

gives rise to dilute tubular flow in the kidney

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41
Q

which of these do not take parasympathetic impulses directly from the brain

A

trigeminal

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42
Q

how do you get to the parotid gland from the otic ganglion

A

auriculotemporal nerve

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43
Q

pain from your right teeth goes where

A

left parietal lobe

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44
Q

what separates the diencephalon

A

3rd ventricle

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45
Q

what gives you a systemic infection

A

histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, blastomycosis

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46
Q

alfatoxin is produced by

A

aspergillus

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47
Q

what triangle is bounded by the anteiror border of the SCM, superior belly of the omohyoid, and posterior belly of the digastric

A

carotid triangle

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48
Q

portal drainage comes from where

A

small and large intestines

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49
Q

what nerve runs in the very middle of the anterior wrist

A

median nerve

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50
Q

what is the function of calcitonin

A

inhibit bone resorption

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51
Q

what does the stratum granulosum contain

A

keratohyalin granules

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52
Q

what is the inactive wrapped form of DNA called

A

heterochromatin

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53
Q

myasthenia gravis results from dysfunction of what

A

myoneural junction

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54
Q

what does the epithelial rests of malassez come from

A

HERS

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55
Q

ridge is formed in madibular first molar from which cusps

A

facial and lingual cusps

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56
Q

which cusp has a transverse ridge and oblique ridge on the maxillary 1st molar

A

ML

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57
Q

what is the smallest cusp on a mandibular first molar

A

distal

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58
Q

if you extract a canine from mutually protected occlusion what do you get

A

mutually guided occlusion

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59
Q

over contouring the linguoincisal edge of maxillary anterior teeth will cause what

A

decrease in overjet

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60
Q

which tooth is most likely going to be trifurcated

A

maxillary 1st pm

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61
Q

which of these is shorter IG than MD

A

primary maxillary CI

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62
Q

how many pulp horns are there in a mandibular 1st molar

A

5

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63
Q

cellular immunity is most important to detect what

A

intracellular parasites

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64
Q

what releases IL-1 and TGF

A

activated macrophages

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65
Q

what structure does the external auditory meatus come from

A

1st pharyngeal cleft

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66
Q

what type of cells are major in palatal glands

A

mucous

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67
Q

when is the shape of the tooth determined

A

bell stage

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68
Q

what is a chlamydia infection to the conjunctiva and pharynx

A

trachoma

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69
Q

what comes through the upper and middle constricotr muscles

A

stylopharyngeus

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70
Q

where is the lingual nerve compared to the IAN near the infratemporal fossa

A

anterior and medial

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71
Q

what is most similar to the basal body in the cilia

A

centriole

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72
Q

cilia move the cerebral fluid from the subarachniod space so what structure

A

veins

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73
Q

which of these functions is not mediated by sympathetic impulses

A

pupil contraction

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74
Q

how do you reach the submandibular gland

A

through the mucous membrane only

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75
Q

an infection at the corner of the lips will spread where

A

submandibular lymph nodes

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76
Q

from what structure do the glossopharyneal nerve and greater horn of the hyoid bone arise

A

3rd pharyngeal arch

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77
Q

when a graft is rejected, what hypersensitivity is it

A

type 4

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78
Q

what is a xenograft

A

person getting a pig kidney

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79
Q

the MMR is greater than the DMR in

A

maxillary 1st pm

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80
Q

what is not found in compact bone

A

trabeculae

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81
Q

if a man has high levels of alkaline phosphatase what should he be worried about

A

carcinoma of the prostate

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82
Q

what muscles does the ansa cervicalis innervate

A

infrahyoid

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83
Q

stretch receptors in the lung send signals to the respiratory center through which nerve

A

vagus

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84
Q

what type of epithelium lines the stomach

A

simple columnar

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85
Q

activation of an insulin receptor includes what

A

tyrosine phosphorylation

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86
Q

enzyme activation includes what

A

phosphorylation of serine residues

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87
Q

if you have an autosomal dominant trait that has 50% penetrance what will the offspring have

A

25%

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88
Q

if the pH is 1, what will the charge of glutamate be

A

+1

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89
Q

what agar do you use for fungal

A

sabouraud agar

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90
Q

what is the difference between rickettsia and a true virus

A

rickettsia does binary fission

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91
Q

what sinus will a maxillary sinus spread to first

A

ethmoid sinus

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92
Q

what is oxidative decarboxylation done by

A

ornithine decarboxylase

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93
Q

what is not true of cytochrome p450

A

cofactor is cobalt

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94
Q

what is the weil-felix test used for

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

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95
Q

what is true of a MD bisection of a maxillary canine pulp chamber

A

it is pointed at the most incisal point

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96
Q

what structure produces secretin

A

s-cells/mucous of duodenum

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97
Q

what is the bond between DNA units called

A

phosphodiester bond

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98
Q

all of the following cause muscle atrophy except…

A

excessive hormone secretion

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99
Q

mechanoreceptors in the PDL send signals that are

A

all or none (proprioception)

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100
Q

maxillary incisors will erupt incisal and

A

facially

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101
Q

gamma fibers will measure what

A

muscle tone

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102
Q

what has the most similar function as the mandibular 1st pm

A

mandibular canine

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103
Q

h2 receptor for histamine release

A

HCl

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104
Q

Ig present in gingival disease

A

IgG

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105
Q

what does interferon do

A

inhibits replication

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106
Q

what does dystrophic calcification do compared to metastatic

A

in necrotizing tissues

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107
Q

what step regulates glycolysis

A

PFK

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108
Q

what is the last step of gluconeogenesis in the liver

A

glucose 6 phosphatase

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109
Q

what is secreted in saliva

A

polymeric IgA (monomeric = serum)

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110
Q

nitrogen source in the urea cycle

A

carbonyl phosphate and aspartate

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111
Q

what happens when you hyperventilate

A

respiratory alkalosis

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112
Q

what happens when you have uncontrolled diarrhea

A

metabolic acidosis

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113
Q

what spreads the most DNA

A

conjugation

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114
Q

nissl bodies are what

A

RER

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115
Q

clindamycin inhibits which subunit

A

50s

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116
Q

what is important in clot formation

A

Ca

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117
Q

what dont you need in PCR

A

bacteria to take up a plasmid

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118
Q

when a protein takes a substrate and makes a product, and that product forever inhibits it. what is it called

A

suicide inhibition

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119
Q

what allows penicillin resistance

A

beta lactamase activitiy

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120
Q

what does aminoglycoside inhibit

A

translation

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121
Q

what type of lipid hormone gives long term effect

A

estrogen

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122
Q

what is perforated in an IAN block

A

buccinator muscle

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123
Q

which of the following is aciduric

A

lactobacillus

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124
Q

which of the following is not in streptococcus

A

LPS/endotoxin

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125
Q

what is a frequent virulence factor

A

capsule

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126
Q

bone and cartilage share the following except

A

they are highly vascularized

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127
Q

the lingual HOC on the canine is

A

related to the cingulum

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128
Q

which of the following cervical lines is the same as the mesial of whater

A

the adjacent ones are the same

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129
Q

what ist he function of the contact points

A

make a stable dental arch and protect gingival papilla

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130
Q

someone has all healthy teeth except restorations on the 2 lateral maxillary incisors. why

A

lingual pit

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131
Q

what is the mesial contact point for the maxillary canine

A

junction of middle and incisal thirds

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132
Q

what does the second premolar replace

A

primary second molar

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133
Q

the maxillary CI’s cervical line on the lingual is

A

offset to the distal

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134
Q

if you cut a maxillary central incisor, what will the shape of the pulp chamber be

A

triangular

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135
Q

what is the normal root canal formation for maxillary 1st molars

A

2 MB, 1 palatal, 1 DB

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136
Q

what is true of the mesial side of the mandibular canine

A

straight all the way down

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137
Q

what do cusp ridges and marginal ridges border

A

triangular fossa

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138
Q

all of the following describe neoplasm except…

A

aplasia

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139
Q

if you have squamous cells in the lungs what does that mean happened

A

metaplasia

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140
Q

a benign tumor has what

A

well differentiated cells

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141
Q

what position is dictated by the musculature

A

rest position

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142
Q

what muscle is for protrusion

A

lateral pterygoid

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143
Q

what do the digastrics have true about them

A

responsible for mandible depression

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144
Q

left movement means what

A

right lateral ptergyoid contraction

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145
Q

translation is mediated by what part of the TMJ

A

superior compartment

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146
Q

which are the articular surfaces of the condyle

A

superior and anterior

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147
Q

leukocytes leave vessels where

A

venules

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148
Q

which cells secrete HCl

A

parietal cells

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149
Q

which of the following is incorrect

A

alcoholism causes gammatous necrosis

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150
Q

which of the following is not necessary for collagen formation

A

vitamin k

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151
Q

which tooth has the biggest tilt compared to the occlusal plane

A

maxillary molar

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152
Q

which is most related to megaloblastic anemia

A

folic acid deficiency

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153
Q

group a strep causes what

A

scarlet fever

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154
Q

which is an inactive vaccine

A

salk

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155
Q

which of the following is irreversible

A

karyolysis of the myocardium

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156
Q

which forms bonds in their side chains to make tertiary structure

A

cysteine

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157
Q

in the fetus, what is the connection between the atria

A

foramen ovale

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158
Q

if you have pain in the upper lip, what nerve is it through

A

infraorbital nerve

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159
Q

what is the inferior border of the TMJ

A

condyle

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160
Q

where are phagocytes most likely in the TMJ

A

synovial membrane

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161
Q

fractured neck of condyle, the patient can open up to

A

30mm

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162
Q

someone has malformed circle in mid point of first molars, and cervical 3rd of incisors. what happened

A

scarlet fever at age 2

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163
Q

what worsens periodontal disease outcomes

A

aggressive periodontitis

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164
Q

what is not found in the PDL

A

osteoblast

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165
Q

calcification begins where

A

incisal edge

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166
Q

what gives the pitch of sound

A

frequency

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167
Q

triglycerides are transported in the liver how

A

chylomicron

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168
Q

which of the following does not occur because of shock

A

edema

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169
Q

which is NADPH not needed for

A

glycolysis

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170
Q

why do capillaries have the slowest flow rate

A

largest cross sectional area

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171
Q

what gives vital capacity

A

TV + REV + RIV

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172
Q

if bacteria gets into the blood, the condition is called

A

bacteremia

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173
Q

what does digoxin do

A

inhibit extrusion of Na

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174
Q

you replace a bit of a dogs aorta abdominal with tubing and it doesn’t change the mean arterial pressure. what does it do to the tubular pressure

A

high systolic, lower diastolic, increase pulse pressure

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175
Q

what do you need to form prostaglandin

A

polyunsaturated FAs

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176
Q

which is not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve

A

palatglossus

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177
Q

a baby has phenylketonuria, what is wrong with their metabolism

A

phenylalanine hydroxylase

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178
Q

what cause metastatic calcification

A

hyperparathyroidism

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179
Q

what is bacillary dysentry

A

shigella

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180
Q

what is true of myoglobin

A

O2 saturation curve if hyperbolic

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181
Q

what is the general sense to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

lingual nerve

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182
Q

hydrolysis of which of the following wont yield glucose

A

mannose

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183
Q

heat sensitive instruments can be sterilized with what

A

ethylene oxide

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184
Q

which is an abnormal relationship between a crown and root

A

dilaceration

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185
Q

how do you decrease resistance

A

increase diameter

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186
Q

which of the following gives sense to the TMJ

A

V3 auriculotemporal

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187
Q

what acts on the distal tubule and collecting duct

A

ADH

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188
Q

what causes milk ejection post birth

A

oxytocin

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189
Q

all of the following are normal flora except for

A

bordetella pertussis

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190
Q

after metabolic acidosis what do you get

A

hyperkalemia

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191
Q

what is the final electron acceptor in the ETC

A

oxygen

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192
Q

what is the least common cell in inflammation

A

basophils

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193
Q

which describes apoptosis

A

hormone dependent physiologic/pathologic involution

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194
Q

what is the motion in small intestine

A

segmentation

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195
Q

what does a baby have on their articular surfaces in the TMJ

A

dense fibrous connective tissue

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196
Q

if you break a cusp what is the likely movement you were doing

A

mediotrusive

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197
Q

what cells secrete intrinsic factor

A

parietal cells

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198
Q

burning side of buccal gingiva/lip, what nerve is this

A

mental nerve

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199
Q

if you have taller posterior cusps, what will happen to your anteriors

A

increased overbite

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200
Q

where does the mylohyoid line lie on the mandible

A

medial of ramus of the mandible

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201
Q

woman has bad taste in her mouth and a papule on the buccal mucosa next to tooth 3:

which of these tastes will be strongest with a small amount

  • unami
  • bitter
  • salt
  • sweet
  • sour
A

bitter

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202
Q

woman has bad taste in her mouth and a papule on the buccal mucosa next to tooth 3:

what nerve carries special sensory for the taste buds medial to her clinical area of interest? what type of receptor does the special sense go through?

A

CN 7, GPCR

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203
Q

woman has sharp pain when you press the inside of her vestibule superiorly that goes away really fast:

what bone are you pushing? what nerve is transmitting the pain?
what fibers are transmitting the pain?

A

zygomatic bone

long buccal nerve

a-delta

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204
Q

about a women with diabetes

- what should she be carefu of having in her diet

A

carbohydrates, fats, total calories

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205
Q

leukoplakia, what caused the thickening of the membrane

A

hyperplasia

206
Q

leukoplakia, what type of eptihelim is next to it (palate)

A

orthokeratinized

207
Q

leukoplakia, what is not in the submucosa next to the biopsy (palate)

A

minor salivary glands

208
Q

an old patient had a cerebrovascular injury and is paralyzed in the face. what artery was involved

A

middle meningeal artery

209
Q

person gets pale, sweaty, and non responsive. what is happening

A

syncope

210
Q

which maxillary 1st molar root is not innervated by the superior posterior nerve

A

MB

211
Q

how can you fix GERD while not medicating someone

A

cut the vagus nerve

212
Q

what do parkinsons, something else, and alzheimers have in common

A

dementia

213
Q

the womens problem persists and you do surgery and take out a sac with epithelial walls, what is it

A

cyst

214
Q

what is not a function of viagra

A

increase BP

215
Q

warfarin activity will be tested through what

A

prothrombin time

216
Q

what inhibits prostaglandins

A

aspirin

217
Q

urticaria in penicillin allergy

A

type 1

218
Q

which doesnt indicate PPD positive

A

mycobacteria leprae

219
Q

which tooth is likely to be missing (not maxillary lateral or 3rd molar)

A

second mandibular premolar

220
Q

which anterior tooth is likely to be malformed

A

maxillary lateral incisor

221
Q

a women has a femoral fracture and comes in after a month. what type of bone predominates

A

woven bone

222
Q

what is the cause of the womens mottled brown/white enamel

A

fluorosis

223
Q

crepitus of the TMJ is caused by

A

oesteoarthritis

224
Q

what does diuretic medication do

A

inhibits ADH

225
Q

what gives you athletes foot

A

trichophyton

226
Q

what gets removed along with the hydrogen from NADH

A

electrons

227
Q

all of the following increase the risk of breast cancer EXCEPT

A

breast feeding

228
Q

bond between protein and sugar

A

N-glycocidic

229
Q

vitamin K acts to transform

A

prothrombin to thrombin

230
Q

women with early symptoms of alzheimers – 2 statements:

  • the disease is one of the most common forms of dementia in US
  • most signs of dementia before age 50
A

first statement is true, second statement is false

231
Q

after phospholipid the most common in cell membrane is

A

cholesterol

232
Q

patient with penicillin allergy– prescribing her with penicillin would fall under

A

non-maleficence

233
Q

how is glucose and fructose associated with caries

A

dextrans and levans

234
Q

what causes pitting edema

A

low albumin

235
Q

what is not a result of HTN

A

general edema

236
Q

what is not part of innate immunity

A

antibodies

237
Q

what is the biggest determinant of resting potential

A

potassium

238
Q

which permanent premolar has a lingual cusp that leans mesially

A

maxillary 1st pm

239
Q

which premolar has both lingual and facial cusps about equal in length

A

maxillary 2nd pm

240
Q

in a class 3 malocclusion, when the patient retrudes the mandible which teeth will the maxillary LI contact

A

mand lateral and mand canine

241
Q

posterior superior alveolar nerve block will possibly not anesthetize which roots of the maxillary 1st molar

A

MB

242
Q

a patient has stomach pain (that eases when he drinks milk) and then takes antibiotics for extraction and the pain stops. why?

A

the antibiotics killed the pathogens causing the stomach pain

243
Q

what is the mechanism of statin

A

inhibit/mimic HMG CoA by binding to HMGCR enzyme

244
Q

which stomach cell does a drug for gastroesophageal effect

A

parietal cells

245
Q

how many lingual fossa does the mandibular canine have

A

2

246
Q

what is a strong sign of colon cancer

A

villous adenoma or puetz jegher

247
Q

which disease is mediated by a defective ability to breakdown sphingolipids

A

tay sachs disease

248
Q

crown of maxillary 1st molar bears the closest resemblance to the crown of:

A

maxillary 2nd premolar

249
Q

breast lump for which women seek evaluation turn out to be:

A

fibrocystic disease

250
Q

which enzyme is associated with phosphorylation of ADP at the substrate level

A

pyruvate kinase

251
Q

a generator potential acts to:

A

increase action potential frequency in response to increased stimulus intensity

252
Q

if a foreign antigen enters the body through the skin, which portion is the antigen most likely to reach first

A

lymph nodes

253
Q

if inhibit ACE what will the effect be

A

decrease aldosterone

254
Q

metastatic tumor within supraclavicular virchow nodes most likely indicates cancer of

A

stomach

255
Q

which describes how veins of the hepatic portal system differ from veins which drain into the inferior vena cava

A

absence of valves

256
Q

all of the following are secreted by the adrenal gland except

A

glucaon

257
Q

man with a mole rapidly growing lateral to nose, what is it?

A

melanoma

258
Q

women with oral lesions - what is the cause

A

HSV 1

259
Q

women comes back to follow up and complains of severe pain in the face and everything else is normal

A

trigeminal neuralgia

260
Q

women with trigeminal neuralgia wants you to remove all her teeth and make dentures. you say lets treat it and do a follow up in 3 months. what 2 principles?

A

first = autonomy

second = beneficence

261
Q

tumor associated with myasthenia gravis

A

thymoma

262
Q

pons and medulla are from

A

rhomboencephalon

263
Q

which is the longest incubation

A

Hep B

264
Q

chronic bleeding peptic ulcer - what is a sign/symptom

A

fecal occults (blood in stool)

265
Q

which one is NOT associated with cavernous sinus

A

optic nerve

266
Q

what is the keratinization for palate? gingiva? what is it for both after an ulcer heals?

A

palate = ortho
gingiva = para
both para after ulcer heals until palate becomes ortho again

267
Q

which neurotransmitter is used to transmit pain

A

substance P

268
Q

DB of #3 in right movement will pas through

A

MB of #19

269
Q

which nerve does NOT transmit taste fibers from the tongue

A

CN V

270
Q

CN 7 and 8 go through

A

internal acoustic meatus

271
Q

where does maxillary sinus drain

A

middle meatus

272
Q

where does maxillary sinus drain

A

middle meatus

273
Q

3 year old boy has articular capsule of TMJ covered by

A

fibrous connective tissue

274
Q

what ganglion does the postganglionic sympathetic for the submandibular ganglion

A

superior cervical ganglion

275
Q

ADH incerases water permeability/resorption at DCT by

A

inserting aquaporin channels

276
Q

17 year old girl with TB, what does rifampin do

A

RNA synthesis inhibitor

277
Q

all of the following are transferred in transduction, except

A

mRNA

278
Q

what is the epithelium of striated ducts of salivary ducts

A

simple columnar epithelium

279
Q

all the ions are in saliva except

A

fluoride

280
Q

what is the mechanism of action of cAMP in glucagon

A

activate protein kinase

281
Q

pressure on a mountain is 250mmHg. what is the partial pressure of oxygen

A

50mmHg

282
Q

blood type: anti-a and anti-b both agglutinate. what is the blood type

A

AB

283
Q

Na/K pump is an example of

A

primary active transport

284
Q

inferior parathyroid is an example of

A

3rd pharyngeal pouch

285
Q

which one is NOT an autoimmune disease

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

286
Q

guy swollen on lower right – which triangle

A

submandibular

287
Q

intraoral biopsy result of patient above shows

A

hyperplasia

288
Q

most likely diagnosis for patients oral pain would be

A

infection of submandibular gland

289
Q

most likely cause of patients chief complaint of dry mouth

A

medications

290
Q

centric relation

A

condyles

291
Q

which one is not a glycoprotein hormone

A

GH = peptide hormone

292
Q

what is the best method to sterilize instruments without corrosion

A

dry heat (NOT autoclave)

293
Q

which structure has both afferent and efferent vessels

A

lymph nodes

294
Q

what is true about primary teeth compred to adult teeth

A

lighter in color

295
Q

which primary tooth has a crown similar to a premolar and roots similar to a molar

A

primary maxillary 1st molar

296
Q

tallest cusp of mandibular 2nd molar

A

ML

297
Q

patient with resorption:

  • what cells will you most likely see?
  • what is most likely due to?
A
  • osteoclasts

- osteonecrosis

298
Q

what is made of mesenchyme

A

dermal papilla

299
Q

what is a characteristic of the BBB

A

continous with tight junctions

300
Q

splanchnic to celiac trunk has what fibers

A

pre ganglionic parasympathetic

301
Q

which microorganism has exotoxin with PA, LF, EF

A

bacillus anthrax

302
Q

what occurs first

A

formation of IEE

303
Q

similarities between first and 2nd maxillary premolars

A

both have lingual cusp offset to mesial

304
Q

what do glucagon and epinephrine have in common

A

glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

305
Q

what is the relay center of the brain

A

thalamus

306
Q

dextran

A

alpha 1-6 linkage

307
Q

what increases condylar guidance

A

mouth breathing

308
Q

iron is transported in. the body as

A

transerrfin

309
Q

mesial view of incisal edge of mandibular CI

A

incisal edge is lingual to long axis

310
Q

cervical cancer is related to

A

HPV

311
Q

17 year old patient with mammelons – what is the cause

A

malocclusion

312
Q

which fungal infection leads to superficial skin disease

A

trichophyton

313
Q

what one can be seen as an intracellular organism

A

histoplasmosis

314
Q

what one can be seen as an intracellular organism

A

histoplasmosis

315
Q

what is dimorphism in fungus

A

mycelium (mold) or as yeast

316
Q

most common ause of fungal meningitis

A

cryptococcosis

317
Q

what action does pili do in an organisms pathogenicity

A

attachment and adherence to host cells

318
Q

rash for scarlett fever

A

erythrogenic toxin

319
Q

what enzyme do oral bacteria use to create dextran and participate in bacterial aggregation on teeth

A

glucosyltransferase

320
Q

lipid a with a polyaccharide core is in which organisms

A

gram negative bacteria

321
Q

rickettisa is a

A

typhus

322
Q

which one needs arthropod vector (insects) or fleas

A

rickettsia except cox burn

323
Q

clostridium tetani are all of the following except:

  • gram positive
  • anaerobic
  • spores
  • rod shaped
A

?

324
Q

MOA of the tetanus toxin

A

inhibition of neurotransmitter release (prevent release of GABA and glycine)

325
Q

what ion is related to bacteria in a spore state over one in a vegetative state

A

calcium

326
Q

which virus doesnt have a latent phase

A

rhinovirus

327
Q

EBV is related to

A

burkitts lymphoma

328
Q

measles (rubeola) and mumps belong to which group of virus

A

paramyxovirus

329
Q

which virus is an RNA virus

A

hepatitis C

330
Q

which one is the mechanism of action of fluorouracil

A

suicide inhibitor of thymidylate synthase

331
Q

sulfonamides compete with which molecule in their mechanism of action

A

PABA to inhibit folic acid synthesis

332
Q

rifampin works as

A

RNA synthesis inhibitor TX of TB

333
Q

what nerve innervates the salivary glands of the palate

A

CN 7

334
Q

what is not derived from neural crest

A

enamel

335
Q

what is intracellular element of glucagon

A

cAMP

336
Q

which enzme in the liver would help with breaking down glucose

A

glucokinase

337
Q

which enzyme seuqesters glucose

A

hexokinase

338
Q

phosphoenolpyruvate is found in

A

liver

339
Q

in which can we see more sequamous epithelial metaplasia

A

bronchus

340
Q

stretch receptors in. the lung are carried by

A

vagus nerve

341
Q

after metabolic or respiratory acidosis, which abnormality of electrolytes is more likely

A

hyperkalemia

342
Q

what kind of epithelium is found in the nasopharynx region

A

ciliated pseudostratified columnar

343
Q

what describes oxygen transport

A

bohr effect

344
Q

carotid body measures

A

partial pressure of O2

345
Q

what carries iron in the plasma

A

transferrin

346
Q

what is the substrate of thrombin

A

fibrinogen

347
Q

if we put RBC in hypotonic solution

A

hemolyze

348
Q

N- glycosylation occurs in where

A

rough ER

349
Q

what is true regarding hapten

A

elicits an immune response when bound to carrier portein

350
Q

what is the main AA in the teritary structure of protein

A

cystein (disulfide bond)

351
Q

what kind of force holds proteins in the lipid bilayer

A

hydrophobic interaction

352
Q

which one plays an important role in detecting the starting codon (initiation) for RNA transcription

A

sigma part

353
Q

what amino acid is associated with taste sensation of umami

A

L-glutamate

354
Q

apoptosis

A

hormone dependent physiologic involution

355
Q

which tract is associated with transmitting pain signals

A

spinhothalamic tract

356
Q

what type of neurotransmitter is NE

A

post synaptic sympathetic

357
Q

what is the connective tissue that surrounds each myelin sheath

A

endoneurium

358
Q

what is the connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fibril

A

endomysium

359
Q

which vitamin is necessary for hydroxylation during collagen synthesis

A

vitamin c

360
Q

what is not in the periosteum

A

osteocytes

361
Q

when there is a low serum level of vitamin D in adults, that means

A

osteomalacia

362
Q

what innervates the thumb and wrist

A

median nerve

363
Q

what brachial nerve is responsible for circumduction of the arm

A

axillary

364
Q

which one does not contribute to the posterior wall of the axilla

A

serratus anterior

365
Q

the thoracic duct is located posterior to

A

esophagus

366
Q

the esophagus is located

A

thw lower border of the cricoid cartilage

367
Q

hich receptor is responsible for fine/light touch

A

meissner corpuscle

368
Q

whats the most abundant papilla

A

filiform

369
Q

when the tongue deviates to the left, which nerve is damaged

A

left CN XII nerve

370
Q

what bilateral contraction protrudes the mandible

A

inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid muscle

371
Q

what protrudes the hyoid bond

A

geniohyoid

372
Q

all of the following muscles elevate the larynx except

A

sternothyroid

373
Q

what muscles constrict to produce sound

A

lateral and transverse cricoarytenoids

374
Q

terminal branches of the ECA

A

superficial temporal and maxillary artery

375
Q

in the carotid triangle, what branch of the ECA wouldnt you see

A

superficial temporal artery

376
Q

which one is not a function of the spleen

A

produce plasma cell

377
Q

liver cirrhosis causes

A

portal hypertension

378
Q

esophgeal varices causes

A

portal hypertension

379
Q

most frequent form of varicosities/varicose veins

A

superifial veins in the legs

380
Q

big muscular arteries have

A

thick tunica media

381
Q

which one is the end organ of the sympathetic system

A

adrenal medulla

382
Q

an asthma inhaler stimulates which receptors

A

beta 2

383
Q

female that is secreting her endometrium is in this cycle

A

luteal

384
Q

what is not in the seminiferous tubules

A

leydig cells

385
Q

the irreversible condensation of the chromatin in the nucleus of the cell is called

A

pyknosis

386
Q

what stage is DNA synthesis in the cell

A

S

387
Q

hepatocytes originate from which embryonic tissue

A

endoderm

388
Q

which one of these does the fetus have that the mother doesnt have

A

ductus venosus

389
Q

the crista terminalis is lcoated where

A

right atrium

390
Q

anomalous development of external acoustic meatus

A

problem with 1st pharyngeal cleft

391
Q

where does the inferior parathyroid originate from

A

3rd pouch

392
Q

origin of the pons and medulla

A

rhomboencephalon

393
Q

loss of normal tissue arrangement

A

dyplasia

394
Q

which term describes a lack of differentiation

A

anaplasia

395
Q

when eptihelium switches from pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium, its called

A

metaplasia

396
Q

cancer in the bone marrow

A

multiple myeloma

397
Q

if someone has increased serum acid phosphatase and PSA, they have what

A

prostate cancer

398
Q

patient has ulcers in the gingiva. lab values are 1200 WBC, 98% lymphocyte, normal platelet/RBC. what does the patient have?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

399
Q

what do you find in the sweat of a person with cystic fibrosis

A

increased Na and chloride

400
Q

what is not a characteristic of sphingophospholipid

A

responsible for RBC recognition

401
Q

what occurs in a MI

A

coagulative necrosis

402
Q

which one is autosomal dominant

A

gardners syndrome

403
Q

the tumor that is associated with myasthenia gravis occurs where

A

thymus

404
Q

GI carcinoma is caused by.

A

villous adenoma

405
Q

which one is not an autoimmune disease

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

406
Q

pernicious anemia results from

A

lack of vitamin B12

407
Q

most common type of anemia

A

iron deficiency anemia

408
Q

patient had. dysphonia, dysphagia, weight loss, long term heavy smoker

A

laryngeal carcinoma

409
Q

with HTN, the heart shows

A

left ventricular hypertrophy

410
Q

a girl from africa had TB, what would not be a cause of a positive PPD

A

eprosy

411
Q

if hypophysis isnt working

A

hypogonadotrophy

412
Q

hypothyroidism causes

A

positive nitrogen balance

413
Q

adenosine deaminase deficiency causes what disease

A

severe combined immune deficiency (SCID)

414
Q

what is the likely cause of a pulmonary embolism

A

thrombophlebitis

415
Q

abnormalities in cell growth that causes smaller than normal cells and tissues are called

A

atrophy and hypoplasia

416
Q

what nerve innervates the skin above the upper lip

A

infraorbital nerve

417
Q

what innervates the buccal mucosa of the posterior hard palate

A

greater palatine nerve

418
Q

gag reflex – sensory limb (afferent) mediated by

A

CN 9

419
Q

what is the primary sensory relay station of the brain (conduit)

A

thalamus

420
Q

sectioning of infundibular stalk of hypothalamus with normal hypophyseal tract leads to. a decrease in. what hormones

A

vasopressin (ADH)

421
Q

argest paranasal sinus

A

maxillary sinus

422
Q

anterior cerebral artery supplies what lobes

A

frontal and parietal lobes

423
Q

increases in CSF pressure causes what

A

brain herniation

424
Q

where is synovial fluid produced

A

internal synovial layer of the fibrous capsule (joint capsule)

425
Q

what cells line the visceral layer of bowmans capsules

A

podocytes

426
Q

where is the highest osmolality

A

loop of henle in the medulla

427
Q

which one is the best for GFR

A

inulin

428
Q

in the urea cycle, where does the nitrogen come from

A

ammonia and aspartate

429
Q

rate limiting step of cholesterol biosynthesis

A

HMG CoA reductase

430
Q

all of these secrete bicarbonates excepts

A

chief cells of the stomach

431
Q

crypts of lieberkithn (intestinal glands) of the small intestine were located in which layer

A

lamina propria

432
Q

main movement in. the small intestine is through

A

segmentaiton

433
Q

which is innervated by vagus nerve

A

ascending and 2/3 transverse colon

434
Q

centroacinar cell are found in what organ

A

pancrreas

435
Q

preventing Ca from binding in smooth muscle to what caused the inhibition

A

myosin

436
Q

which one is not a glycoprotein hormone

A

GH

437
Q

lumbar puncture occurs where

A

L3/L4

438
Q

in unable to use heat, what method should be used to sterilize insturments

A

ethylene oxide

439
Q

whats a. way to measure human basal energy

A

temperature

440
Q

DNA fingerprinting originated

A

restriction site polymorphism

441
Q

what is not needed for the PCR process

A

taking up the plasmid

442
Q

graves disease has

A

high t3/t4, low TSH

443
Q

what nerve brings preganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers to the otic ganglion

A

lesser petrosal nerve

444
Q

at what age do all premolars begin calcification

A

2 years old

445
Q

which primary tooth has a crown similar to. a premolar and roots similar to a molar

A

primary maxillary 1st molar

446
Q

primary maxillary and mandibular 1st molar have what distinguishing feature

A

prominent cervical ridge

447
Q

which cusp is the tallest cusp of the primary mandibular 1st molar

A

mesial lingual

448
Q

maxillary centrial incisor is cut at CEJ. what shape is the tooth outline

A

triangualr

449
Q

in one quadrant, the tooth is peg lateral. in the contralalateral quadrant this tooth is congenitally missing. which tooth is this

A

maxillary lateral

450
Q

in which tooth is the lingual dimension greater than bucaal dimension

A

maxillary 1st molar

451
Q

what is the differnece between a mandibular lateral and central incisor

A

the lateral incisor is twisted on its root

452
Q

y-shaped mandibular 2nd PM is made by. a combination of what grooves

A

central and lingual grooves

453
Q

which of the following cusps is not a primary developmental cusp of the maxillary 1st molar

A

DL

454
Q

patient had brown and grey tooth discoloration on premolar, canine, and 2nd molars but the anterior were spared. when was the patient given tetracycline

A

before the age of 2

455
Q

purulent discharge after extraction and has sulfur granules

A

actinomyces

456
Q

immunoglobulin associated with periodontal disease

A

IgG

457
Q

origin and insertion of sphenomandibular ligament

A

spine of the sphenoid and lingula of the mandible

458
Q

which premolar has a. crescent shaped central groove

A

mandibular 2nd pm

459
Q

origin and insertion of the pterygomandibular raphe

A

hamulus of the pterygoid plate and mylohyoid line

460
Q

what covers the articulating surface of the TMJ of a three year old

A

dense fibrous connective tissue

461
Q

where is the phagocyte located in the TMJ

A

synovial membrane

462
Q

on your articulator, alerting horizontal condylar guidance will affect all of the following except

A

laterotrusive

463
Q

during regular swallowing, what position should the teeth be in

A

intercuspal position

464
Q

space between teeth in the rest position is

A

2-4mm

465
Q

which of these muscle retracts the mandible

A

the horizontal (posterior) fibers of the temporalis muscle

466
Q

failure of the left lateral pterygoid muscle causes the mandible to deviate to

A

the left

467
Q

rashkovs plexus are next to

A

odontoblastic proesses

468
Q

you bite on something hard, what tells you to stop

A

peridontal mechanoreeptors

469
Q

tooth # 3 is innervated by

A

middle superior alveolar and posterior superior alveolar nerve

470
Q

what is the cause of half facial paralysis after INAB

A

injection into parotid gland

471
Q

17 year old patient has 2. molars, permanent PM, and primary molars on in the right mandibular quadrant, what tooth is likely missing

A

permanent mandibular 2nd pm

472
Q

patient comes in 1 day after extraction of maxillary 3rd molar with a hematoma. what is the. cause

A

needle has. violted in pterygoid plexus of veins

473
Q

during extraction you break the adjacent marginal ridge of an amalgam treated tooth aof an alzheimers patient

A

stop everything and notify the patients guardian

474
Q

the posterior mandibular teeth face which direction in comparison to its. maxillary counterparts

A

lingually

475
Q

in comparison to a maxillary canine, which aspect of the. mandibular canine is bigger

A

larger crown

476
Q

how many pulp horns does. a mandibular first molar have

A

5

477
Q

which is true regarding a mandibular first premolar

A

the tooth erupts while the root has only half completed its formation

478
Q

where is the mesial furcation on tooth #14

A

2/3 toward the lingual

479
Q

what would you see in a cross section of a. mandibular central incisor root

A

the shape would be nearly round

480
Q

which is not part of innate immunity

A

antibody

481
Q

how many lingual fossa does the mandibular canine have

A

2

482
Q

what type of bacteria is dominant in root caries

A

actinomyces

483
Q

the maxillary canine in normal intercuspal position should occlude with

A

the mandibular canine and first premolar

484
Q

which of the following is used to phagocytize bacteria

A

gamma Fc receptor and C3b

485
Q

which of the following are for a delayed hypersensitivity infection

A

t cells and macrophages

486
Q

t cell receptors are similar to which one

A

Fab

487
Q

the predominant cell in an inflammatory response

A

neutrophil

488
Q

what secretes TNF alpha and IL 1

A

activated macrophages

489
Q

what secretes TNF alpha and IL 1

A

activated macrophages

490
Q

what does interferon do

A

it prevents the replication of viruses

491
Q

cervical cancer is related to

A

papilloma virus

492
Q

which tooth will erupt right before a maxillary 2nd molar

A

the mandibular second molar

493
Q

which one is not an organelle

A

lipid droplet

494
Q

trauma victim with broken bone and evidence of “woven bone repair”
- how long has it been since the trauma?

A

woven bone = few days, 3 weeks

495
Q

what facial bone did she break if it was adjacent to the canthus

A

zygomatic bone

496
Q

penetration at lower left (stab), which organ was most likely hurt

A

kidney

497
Q

dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- what is the age of this girl

A

9-10 years

(max canine = 11-12 years)

498
Q

dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- which bone of the orbit is probably broken

A

zygomatic

499
Q

dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- on the x-ray there is. a line of radiolucency on the left orbital lateral margin

A

normal suture

500
Q

dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- what would the coup countercoup injury be (opposite sde of impact)

A

right sphenoid

501
Q

dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- what nerve is most. prone to injury in the forearm

A

radial nerve

502
Q

female. left backstab at L1-L2, adjacent to vertebrae. 12 cm deep. has malory weis tear on her esopahgus and multiple mass on her uterus:
- what is the cause of the malory weis tear

A

alcoholism

503
Q

female. left backstab at L1-L2, adjacent to vertebrae. 12 cm deep. has malory weis tear on her esopahgus and multiple mass on her uterus:
- what is the multiple mass on her uterus

A

leiomyoma (benign neoplasm of uterus)

504
Q

female. left backstab at L1-L2, adjacent to vertebrae. 12 cm deep. has malory weis tear on her esopahgus and multiple mass on her uterus:
- which organ is most likely damaged/hit

A

kidney

505
Q

female. left backstab at L1-L2, adjacent to vertebrae. 12 cm deep. has malory weis tear on her esopahgus and multiple mass on her uterus:
- the victim had dried up blood in her nose. what is the likely cause

A

epitaxis

506
Q

6 weeks pregnant women taking tetracycline for rosacea

- what does not occur during 6 weeks of fetus

A

palatal shelves fusion (7 weeks)

507
Q

which one is seen in the fetus but not the mother

A

ductus venosus

508
Q

6 weeks pregnant women taking tetracycline for rosacea

- what is the problem with using tetracycline for the fetus

A

changes the color of the teeth/discoloraiton

509
Q

6 weeks pregnant women taking tetracycline for rosacea

- at what time is best for elective dental treatments as it would alfter organogenesis of the fetus

A

after 12 weeks

510
Q

what antiboitic is most frequently used in treamtnet of TB

A

rifampin = inhibits RNA synthesis (transcription), used for 6-9 months

511
Q

patient with RCT #3 and the radiolucency did not resolve. the histological section showed non keratinized epithelium.
- what is the radiolucency

A

cyst

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