LOOK AT THIS Flashcards
1
Q
what are the grooves on a Y type mandibular premolar
A
central and lingual grooves
2
Q
most superior of these structures?
- aryepiglottic fold
- true vocal folds
- arytenoid cartilage
- vestibular folds
A
aryepiglottic fold
3
Q
two visceral arteries from the abdominal aorta
A
celiac and inferior mesenteric artery
4
Q
what muscle does supination of the radioulnar joint
A
biceps brachialis
5
Q
what doesnt happen until after collagen has been made by mitochondria?
A
association between molecules/intermolecular bonding
6
Q
what structures go through the parotid gland
A
facial nerve, ECA, auriculotemporal nerve, retromandibular vein
7
Q
whats the male version of granular cells?
A
sertoli cells
8
Q
what causes directly chondrogenesis and osteogenesis
A
calcium
9
Q
what gland isnt important in humans
A
adrenal medulla
10
Q
what sugar and enzyme do bacteria use to make caries
A
sucrose, glucosyltransferase
11
Q
what does fumarate link the urea cycle to
A
tca cycle
12
Q
what does the vertebral artery go thorugh to get to the skull
A
foramen magnum
13
Q
which of these doesn’t go through the foramen magnum
A
hypoglossal nerve
14
Q
whats not normally in plasma
A
thrombin
15
Q
infection from maxillary molar goes into what space
A
infratemporal fossa
16
Q
during clenching what fibers attach to the articular disc to stabilize it
A
superior head of the lateral pterygoid
17
Q
what does the TMJ ligament attach to
A
zygomatic process of the temporal bone
18
Q
what phase is the cell committed to division
A
G1
19
Q
paralysis of the face below the zygoma
A
contralateral cerebral hemisphere damage (UMN)
20
Q
how many mm can a patient who cant translate condyle open
A
30mm
21
Q
what is similar between the pancreas and parotid gland
A
serous gland
22
Q
excessive ACTH causes
A
weight gain and hyperglycemia
23
Q
which virus gives chronic infection?
- HCV
- HBV
- HAV
- HDV
A
HCV and HBV
24
Q
what does the endosteum line?
A
medullary cavity
25
what implants in the endometrium
blastocyst
26
what type of epithelium lines the trachea
pseudostratitifed ciliated columnar
27
what has ATPase activity in smooth muscle
myosin
28
what is the visceral layer of bowmans capsule made up of
podocytes
29
what virus has a latency period where it can be found in the saliva
mumps
30
what else does the virus causing chicken pox cause
herpes zoster infection
31
which anterior tooth root will be bifurcated
mandibular canine
32
liver failure will cause
hypoalbuminemia
33
what is happening during absolute refracotry period
Na channels are blocked
34
which of these is not superficial to the hyoglossus muscle
lingual artery (deep to)
35
what will the PAH determine
renal plasma flow
36
what part of the nephron uses the most ATP
proximal tubule
37
what muscle hooks on the hamulus
tensor veli palatini
38
what attaches to the lingula
sphenomandibular ligament
39
achalasia is related to what
esophagus
40
what is true of Na and water transport in the proximal tubule
gives rise to dilute tubular flow in the kidney
41
which of these do not take parasympathetic impulses directly from the brain
trigeminal
42
how do you get to the parotid gland from the otic ganglion
auriculotemporal nerve
43
pain from your right teeth goes where
left parietal lobe
44
what separates the diencephalon
3rd ventricle
45
what gives you a systemic infection
histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, blastomycosis
46
alfatoxin is produced by
aspergillus
47
what triangle is bounded by the anteiror border of the SCM, superior belly of the omohyoid, and posterior belly of the digastric
carotid triangle
48
portal drainage comes from where
small and large intestines
49
what nerve runs in the very middle of the anterior wrist
median nerve
50
what is the function of calcitonin
inhibit bone resorption
51
what does the stratum granulosum contain
keratohyalin granules
52
what is the inactive wrapped form of DNA called
heterochromatin
53
myasthenia gravis results from dysfunction of what
myoneural junction
54
what does the epithelial rests of malassez come from
HERS
55
ridge is formed in madibular first molar from which cusps
facial and lingual cusps
56
which cusp has a transverse ridge and oblique ridge on the maxillary 1st molar
ML
57
what is the smallest cusp on a mandibular first molar
distal
58
if you extract a canine from mutually protected occlusion what do you get
mutually guided occlusion
59
over contouring the linguoincisal edge of maxillary anterior teeth will cause what
decrease in overjet
60
which tooth is most likely going to be trifurcated
maxillary 1st pm
61
which of these is shorter IG than MD
primary maxillary CI
62
how many pulp horns are there in a mandibular 1st molar
5
63
cellular immunity is most important to detect what
intracellular parasites
64
what releases IL-1 and TGF
activated macrophages
65
what structure does the external auditory meatus come from
1st pharyngeal cleft
66
what type of cells are major in palatal glands
mucous
67
when is the shape of the tooth determined
bell stage
68
what is a chlamydia infection to the conjunctiva and pharynx
trachoma
69
what comes through the upper and middle constricotr muscles
stylopharyngeus
70
where is the lingual nerve compared to the IAN near the infratemporal fossa
anterior and medial
71
what is most similar to the basal body in the cilia
centriole
72
cilia move the cerebral fluid from the subarachniod space so what structure
veins
73
which of these functions is not mediated by sympathetic impulses
pupil contraction
74
how do you reach the submandibular gland
through the mucous membrane only
75
an infection at the corner of the lips will spread where
submandibular lymph nodes
76
from what structure do the glossopharyneal nerve and greater horn of the hyoid bone arise
3rd pharyngeal arch
77
when a graft is rejected, what hypersensitivity is it
type 4
78
what is a xenograft
person getting a pig kidney
79
the MMR is greater than the DMR in
maxillary 1st pm
80
what is not found in compact bone
trabeculae
81
if a man has high levels of alkaline phosphatase what should he be worried about
carcinoma of the prostate
82
what muscles does the ansa cervicalis innervate
infrahyoid
83
stretch receptors in the lung send signals to the respiratory center through which nerve
vagus
84
what type of epithelium lines the stomach
simple columnar
85
activation of an insulin receptor includes what
tyrosine phosphorylation
86
enzyme activation includes what
phosphorylation of serine residues
87
if you have an autosomal dominant trait that has 50% penetrance what will the offspring have
25%
88
if the pH is 1, what will the charge of glutamate be
+1
89
what agar do you use for fungal
sabouraud agar
90
what is the difference between rickettsia and a true virus
rickettsia does binary fission
91
what sinus will a maxillary sinus spread to first
ethmoid sinus
92
what is oxidative decarboxylation done by
ornithine decarboxylase
93
what is not true of cytochrome p450
cofactor is cobalt
94
what is the weil-felix test used for
rocky mountain spotted fever
95
what is true of a MD bisection of a maxillary canine pulp chamber
it is pointed at the most incisal point
96
what structure produces secretin
s-cells/mucous of duodenum
97
what is the bond between DNA units called
phosphodiester bond
98
all of the following cause muscle atrophy except...
excessive hormone secretion
99
mechanoreceptors in the PDL send signals that are
all or none (proprioception)
100
maxillary incisors will erupt incisal and
facially
101
gamma fibers will measure what
muscle tone
102
what has the most similar function as the mandibular 1st pm
mandibular canine
103
h2 receptor for histamine release
HCl
104
Ig present in gingival disease
IgG
105
what does interferon do
inhibits replication
106
what does dystrophic calcification do compared to metastatic
in necrotizing tissues
107
what step regulates glycolysis
PFK
108
what is the last step of gluconeogenesis in the liver
glucose 6 phosphatase
109
what is secreted in saliva
polymeric IgA (monomeric = serum)
110
nitrogen source in the urea cycle
carbonyl phosphate and aspartate
111
what happens when you hyperventilate
respiratory alkalosis
112
what happens when you have uncontrolled diarrhea
metabolic acidosis
113
what spreads the most DNA
conjugation
114
nissl bodies are what
RER
115
clindamycin inhibits which subunit
50s
116
what is important in clot formation
Ca
117
what dont you need in PCR
bacteria to take up a plasmid
118
when a protein takes a substrate and makes a product, and that product forever inhibits it. what is it called
suicide inhibition
119
what allows penicillin resistance
beta lactamase activitiy
120
what does aminoglycoside inhibit
translation
121
what type of lipid hormone gives long term effect
estrogen
122
what is perforated in an IAN block
buccinator muscle
123
which of the following is aciduric
lactobacillus
124
which of the following is not in streptococcus
LPS/endotoxin
125
what is a frequent virulence factor
capsule
126
bone and cartilage share the following except
they are highly vascularized
127
the lingual HOC on the canine is
related to the cingulum
128
which of the following cervical lines is the same as the mesial of whater
the adjacent ones are the same
129
what ist he function of the contact points
make a stable dental arch and protect gingival papilla
130
someone has all healthy teeth except restorations on the 2 lateral maxillary incisors. why
lingual pit
131
what is the mesial contact point for the maxillary canine
junction of middle and incisal thirds
132
what does the second premolar replace
primary second molar
133
the maxillary CI's cervical line on the lingual is
offset to the distal
134
if you cut a maxillary central incisor, what will the shape of the pulp chamber be
triangular
135
what is the normal root canal formation for maxillary 1st molars
2 MB, 1 palatal, 1 DB
136
what is true of the mesial side of the mandibular canine
straight all the way down
137
what do cusp ridges and marginal ridges border
triangular fossa
138
all of the following describe neoplasm except...
aplasia
139
if you have squamous cells in the lungs what does that mean happened
metaplasia
140
a benign tumor has what
well differentiated cells
141
what position is dictated by the musculature
rest position
142
what muscle is for protrusion
lateral pterygoid
143
what do the digastrics have true about them
responsible for mandible depression
144
left movement means what
right lateral ptergyoid contraction
145
translation is mediated by what part of the TMJ
superior compartment
146
which are the articular surfaces of the condyle
superior and anterior
147
leukocytes leave vessels where
venules
148
which cells secrete HCl
parietal cells
149
which of the following is incorrect
alcoholism causes gammatous necrosis
150
which of the following is not necessary for collagen formation
vitamin k
151
which tooth has the biggest tilt compared to the occlusal plane
maxillary molar
152
which is most related to megaloblastic anemia
folic acid deficiency
153
group a strep causes what
scarlet fever
154
which is an inactive vaccine
salk
155
which of the following is irreversible
karyolysis of the myocardium
156
which forms bonds in their side chains to make tertiary structure
cysteine
157
in the fetus, what is the connection between the atria
foramen ovale
158
if you have pain in the upper lip, what nerve is it through
infraorbital nerve
159
what is the inferior border of the TMJ
condyle
160
where are phagocytes most likely in the TMJ
synovial membrane
161
fractured neck of condyle, the patient can open up to
30mm
162
someone has malformed circle in mid point of first molars, and cervical 3rd of incisors. what happened
scarlet fever at age 2
163
what worsens periodontal disease outcomes
aggressive periodontitis
164
what is not found in the PDL
osteoblast
165
calcification begins where
incisal edge
166
what gives the pitch of sound
frequency
167
triglycerides are transported in the liver how
chylomicron
168
which of the following does not occur because of shock
edema
169
which is NADPH not needed for
glycolysis
170
why do capillaries have the slowest flow rate
largest cross sectional area
171
what gives vital capacity
TV + REV + RIV
172
if bacteria gets into the blood, the condition is called
bacteremia
173
what does digoxin do
inhibit extrusion of Na
174
you replace a bit of a dogs aorta abdominal with tubing and it doesn't change the mean arterial pressure. what does it do to the tubular pressure
high systolic, lower diastolic, increase pulse pressure
175
what do you need to form prostaglandin
polyunsaturated FAs
176
which is not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve
palatglossus
177
a baby has phenylketonuria, what is wrong with their metabolism
phenylalanine hydroxylase
178
what cause metastatic calcification
hyperparathyroidism
179
what is bacillary dysentry
shigella
180
what is true of myoglobin
O2 saturation curve if hyperbolic
181
what is the general sense to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
lingual nerve
182
hydrolysis of which of the following wont yield glucose
mannose
183
heat sensitive instruments can be sterilized with what
ethylene oxide
184
which is an abnormal relationship between a crown and root
dilaceration
185
how do you decrease resistance
increase diameter
186
which of the following gives sense to the TMJ
V3 auriculotemporal
187
what acts on the distal tubule and collecting duct
ADH
188
what causes milk ejection post birth
oxytocin
189
all of the following are normal flora except for
bordetella pertussis
190
after metabolic acidosis what do you get
hyperkalemia
191
what is the final electron acceptor in the ETC
oxygen
192
what is the least common cell in inflammation
basophils
193
which describes apoptosis
hormone dependent physiologic/pathologic involution
194
what is the motion in small intestine
segmentation
195
what does a baby have on their articular surfaces in the TMJ
dense fibrous connective tissue
196
if you break a cusp what is the likely movement you were doing
mediotrusive
197
what cells secrete intrinsic factor
parietal cells
198
burning side of buccal gingiva/lip, what nerve is this
mental nerve
199
if you have taller posterior cusps, what will happen to your anteriors
increased overbite
200
where does the mylohyoid line lie on the mandible
medial of ramus of the mandible
201
woman has bad taste in her mouth and a papule on the buccal mucosa next to tooth 3:
which of these tastes will be strongest with a small amount
- unami
- bitter
- salt
- sweet
- sour
bitter
202
woman has bad taste in her mouth and a papule on the buccal mucosa next to tooth 3:
what nerve carries special sensory for the taste buds medial to her clinical area of interest? what type of receptor does the special sense go through?
CN 7, GPCR
203
woman has sharp pain when you press the inside of her vestibule superiorly that goes away really fast:
what bone are you pushing? what nerve is transmitting the pain?
what fibers are transmitting the pain?
zygomatic bone
long buccal nerve
a-delta
204
about a women with diabetes
| - what should she be carefu of having in her diet
carbohydrates, fats, total calories
205
leukoplakia, what caused the thickening of the membrane
hyperplasia
206
leukoplakia, what type of eptihelim is next to it (palate)
orthokeratinized
207
leukoplakia, what is not in the submucosa next to the biopsy (palate)
minor salivary glands
208
an old patient had a cerebrovascular injury and is paralyzed in the face. what artery was involved
middle meningeal artery
209
person gets pale, sweaty, and non responsive. what is happening
syncope
210
which maxillary 1st molar root is not innervated by the superior posterior nerve
MB
211
how can you fix GERD while not medicating someone
cut the vagus nerve
212
what do parkinsons, something else, and alzheimers have in common
dementia
213
the womens problem persists and you do surgery and take out a sac with epithelial walls, what is it
cyst
214
what is not a function of viagra
increase BP
215
warfarin activity will be tested through what
prothrombin time
216
what inhibits prostaglandins
aspirin
217
urticaria in penicillin allergy
type 1
218
which doesnt indicate PPD positive
mycobacteria leprae
219
which tooth is likely to be missing (not maxillary lateral or 3rd molar)
second mandibular premolar
220
which anterior tooth is likely to be malformed
maxillary lateral incisor
221
a women has a femoral fracture and comes in after a month. what type of bone predominates
woven bone
222
what is the cause of the womens mottled brown/white enamel
fluorosis
223
crepitus of the TMJ is caused by
oesteoarthritis
224
what does diuretic medication do
inhibits ADH
225
what gives you athletes foot
trichophyton
226
what gets removed along with the hydrogen from NADH
electrons
227
all of the following increase the risk of breast cancer EXCEPT
breast feeding
228
bond between protein and sugar
N-glycocidic
229
vitamin K acts to transform
prothrombin to thrombin
230
women with early symptoms of alzheimers -- 2 statements:
- the disease is one of the most common forms of dementia in US
- most signs of dementia before age 50
first statement is true, second statement is false
231
after phospholipid the most common in cell membrane is
cholesterol
232
patient with penicillin allergy-- prescribing her with penicillin would fall under
non-maleficence
233
how is glucose and fructose associated with caries
dextrans and levans
234
what causes pitting edema
low albumin
235
what is not a result of HTN
general edema
236
what is not part of innate immunity
antibodies
237
what is the biggest determinant of resting potential
potassium
238
which permanent premolar has a lingual cusp that leans mesially
maxillary 1st pm
239
which premolar has both lingual and facial cusps about equal in length
maxillary 2nd pm
240
in a class 3 malocclusion, when the patient retrudes the mandible which teeth will the maxillary LI contact
mand lateral and mand canine
241
posterior superior alveolar nerve block will possibly not anesthetize which roots of the maxillary 1st molar
MB
242
a patient has stomach pain (that eases when he drinks milk) and then takes antibiotics for extraction and the pain stops. why?
the antibiotics killed the pathogens causing the stomach pain
243
what is the mechanism of statin
inhibit/mimic HMG CoA by binding to HMGCR enzyme
244
which stomach cell does a drug for gastroesophageal effect
parietal cells
245
how many lingual fossa does the mandibular canine have
2
246
what is a strong sign of colon cancer
villous adenoma or puetz jegher
247
which disease is mediated by a defective ability to breakdown sphingolipids
tay sachs disease
248
crown of maxillary 1st molar bears the closest resemblance to the crown of:
maxillary 2nd premolar
249
breast lump for which women seek evaluation turn out to be:
fibrocystic disease
250
which enzyme is associated with phosphorylation of ADP at the substrate level
pyruvate kinase
251
a generator potential acts to:
increase action potential frequency in response to increased stimulus intensity
252
if a foreign antigen enters the body through the skin, which portion is the antigen most likely to reach first
lymph nodes
253
if inhibit ACE what will the effect be
decrease aldosterone
254
metastatic tumor within supraclavicular virchow nodes most likely indicates cancer of
stomach
255
which describes how veins of the hepatic portal system differ from veins which drain into the inferior vena cava
absence of valves
256
all of the following are secreted by the adrenal gland except
glucaon
257
man with a mole rapidly growing lateral to nose, what is it?
melanoma
258
women with oral lesions - what is the cause
HSV 1
259
women comes back to follow up and complains of severe pain in the face and everything else is normal
trigeminal neuralgia
260
women with trigeminal neuralgia wants you to remove all her teeth and make dentures. you say lets treat it and do a follow up in 3 months. what 2 principles?
first = autonomy
second = beneficence
261
tumor associated with myasthenia gravis
thymoma
262
pons and medulla are from
rhomboencephalon
263
which is the longest incubation
Hep B
264
chronic bleeding peptic ulcer - what is a sign/symptom
fecal occults (blood in stool)
265
which one is NOT associated with cavernous sinus
optic nerve
266
what is the keratinization for palate? gingiva? what is it for both after an ulcer heals?
palate = ortho
gingiva = para
both para after ulcer heals until palate becomes ortho again
267
which neurotransmitter is used to transmit pain
substance P
268
DB of #3 in right movement will pas through
MB of #19
269
which nerve does NOT transmit taste fibers from the tongue
CN V
270
CN 7 and 8 go through
internal acoustic meatus
271
where does maxillary sinus drain
middle meatus
272
where does maxillary sinus drain
middle meatus
273
3 year old boy has articular capsule of TMJ covered by
fibrous connective tissue
274
what ganglion does the postganglionic sympathetic for the submandibular ganglion
superior cervical ganglion
275
ADH incerases water permeability/resorption at DCT by
inserting aquaporin channels
276
17 year old girl with TB, what does rifampin do
RNA synthesis inhibitor
277
all of the following are transferred in transduction, except
mRNA
278
what is the epithelium of striated ducts of salivary ducts
simple columnar epithelium
279
all the ions are in saliva except
fluoride
280
what is the mechanism of action of cAMP in glucagon
activate protein kinase
281
pressure on a mountain is 250mmHg. what is the partial pressure of oxygen
50mmHg
282
blood type: anti-a and anti-b both agglutinate. what is the blood type
AB
283
Na/K pump is an example of
primary active transport
284
inferior parathyroid is an example of
3rd pharyngeal pouch
285
which one is NOT an autoimmune disease
erythroblastosis fetalis
286
guy swollen on lower right -- which triangle
submandibular
287
intraoral biopsy result of patient above shows
hyperplasia
288
most likely diagnosis for patients oral pain would be
infection of submandibular gland
289
most likely cause of patients chief complaint of dry mouth
medications
290
centric relation
condyles
291
which one is not a glycoprotein hormone
GH = peptide hormone
292
what is the best method to sterilize instruments without corrosion
dry heat (NOT autoclave)
293
which structure has both afferent and efferent vessels
lymph nodes
294
what is true about primary teeth compred to adult teeth
lighter in color
295
which primary tooth has a crown similar to a premolar and roots similar to a molar
primary maxillary 1st molar
296
tallest cusp of mandibular 2nd molar
ML
297
patient with resorption:
- what cells will you most likely see?
- what is most likely due to?
- osteoclasts
| - osteonecrosis
298
what is made of mesenchyme
dermal papilla
299
what is a characteristic of the BBB
continous with tight junctions
300
splanchnic to celiac trunk has what fibers
pre ganglionic parasympathetic
301
which microorganism has exotoxin with PA, LF, EF
bacillus anthrax
302
what occurs first
formation of IEE
303
similarities between first and 2nd maxillary premolars
both have lingual cusp offset to mesial
304
what do glucagon and epinephrine have in common
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
305
what is the relay center of the brain
thalamus
306
dextran
alpha 1-6 linkage
307
what increases condylar guidance
mouth breathing
308
iron is transported in. the body as
transerrfin
309
mesial view of incisal edge of mandibular CI
incisal edge is lingual to long axis
310
cervical cancer is related to
HPV
311
17 year old patient with mammelons -- what is the cause
malocclusion
312
which fungal infection leads to superficial skin disease
trichophyton
313
what one can be seen as an intracellular organism
histoplasmosis
314
what one can be seen as an intracellular organism
histoplasmosis
315
what is dimorphism in fungus
mycelium (mold) or as yeast
316
most common ause of fungal meningitis
cryptococcosis
317
what action does pili do in an organisms pathogenicity
attachment and adherence to host cells
318
rash for scarlett fever
erythrogenic toxin
319
what enzyme do oral bacteria use to create dextran and participate in bacterial aggregation on teeth
glucosyltransferase
320
lipid a with a polyaccharide core is in which organisms
gram negative bacteria
321
rickettisa is a
typhus
322
which one needs arthropod vector (insects) or fleas
rickettsia except cox burn
323
clostridium tetani are all of the following except:
- gram positive
- anaerobic
- spores
- rod shaped
?
324
MOA of the tetanus toxin
inhibition of neurotransmitter release (prevent release of GABA and glycine)
325
what ion is related to bacteria in a spore state over one in a vegetative state
calcium
326
which virus doesnt have a latent phase
rhinovirus
327
EBV is related to
burkitts lymphoma
328
measles (rubeola) and mumps belong to which group of virus
paramyxovirus
329
which virus is an RNA virus
hepatitis C
330
which one is the mechanism of action of fluorouracil
suicide inhibitor of thymidylate synthase
331
sulfonamides compete with which molecule in their mechanism of action
PABA to inhibit folic acid synthesis
332
rifampin works as
RNA synthesis inhibitor TX of TB
333
what nerve innervates the salivary glands of the palate
CN 7
334
what is not derived from neural crest
enamel
335
what is intracellular element of glucagon
cAMP
336
which enzme in the liver would help with breaking down glucose
glucokinase
337
which enzyme seuqesters glucose
hexokinase
338
phosphoenolpyruvate is found in
liver
339
in which can we see more sequamous epithelial metaplasia
bronchus
340
stretch receptors in. the lung are carried by
vagus nerve
341
after metabolic or respiratory acidosis, which abnormality of electrolytes is more likely
hyperkalemia
342
what kind of epithelium is found in the nasopharynx region
ciliated pseudostratified columnar
343
what describes oxygen transport
bohr effect
344
carotid body measures
partial pressure of O2
345
what carries iron in the plasma
transferrin
346
what is the substrate of thrombin
fibrinogen
347
if we put RBC in hypotonic solution
hemolyze
348
N- glycosylation occurs in where
rough ER
349
what is true regarding hapten
elicits an immune response when bound to carrier portein
350
what is the main AA in the teritary structure of protein
cystein (disulfide bond)
351
what kind of force holds proteins in the lipid bilayer
hydrophobic interaction
352
which one plays an important role in detecting the starting codon (initiation) for RNA transcription
sigma part
353
what amino acid is associated with taste sensation of umami
L-glutamate
354
apoptosis
hormone dependent physiologic involution
355
which tract is associated with transmitting pain signals
spinhothalamic tract
356
what type of neurotransmitter is NE
post synaptic sympathetic
357
what is the connective tissue that surrounds each myelin sheath
endoneurium
358
what is the connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fibril
endomysium
359
which vitamin is necessary for hydroxylation during collagen synthesis
vitamin c
360
what is not in the periosteum
osteocytes
361
when there is a low serum level of vitamin D in adults, that means
osteomalacia
362
what innervates the thumb and wrist
median nerve
363
what brachial nerve is responsible for circumduction of the arm
axillary
364
which one does not contribute to the posterior wall of the axilla
serratus anterior
365
the thoracic duct is located posterior to
esophagus
366
the esophagus is located
thw lower border of the cricoid cartilage
367
hich receptor is responsible for fine/light touch
meissner corpuscle
368
whats the most abundant papilla
filiform
369
when the tongue deviates to the left, which nerve is damaged
left CN XII nerve
370
what bilateral contraction protrudes the mandible
inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid muscle
371
what protrudes the hyoid bond
geniohyoid
372
all of the following muscles elevate the larynx except
sternothyroid
373
what muscles constrict to produce sound
lateral and transverse cricoarytenoids
374
terminal branches of the ECA
superficial temporal and maxillary artery
375
in the carotid triangle, what branch of the ECA wouldnt you see
superficial temporal artery
376
which one is not a function of the spleen
produce plasma cell
377
liver cirrhosis causes
portal hypertension
378
esophgeal varices causes
portal hypertension
379
most frequent form of varicosities/varicose veins
superifial veins in the legs
380
big muscular arteries have
thick tunica media
381
which one is the end organ of the sympathetic system
adrenal medulla
382
an asthma inhaler stimulates which receptors
beta 2
383
female that is secreting her endometrium is in this cycle
luteal
384
what is not in the seminiferous tubules
leydig cells
385
the irreversible condensation of the chromatin in the nucleus of the cell is called
pyknosis
386
what stage is DNA synthesis in the cell
S
387
hepatocytes originate from which embryonic tissue
endoderm
388
which one of these does the fetus have that the mother doesnt have
ductus venosus
389
the crista terminalis is lcoated where
right atrium
390
anomalous development of external acoustic meatus
problem with 1st pharyngeal cleft
391
where does the inferior parathyroid originate from
3rd pouch
392
origin of the pons and medulla
rhomboencephalon
393
loss of normal tissue arrangement
dyplasia
394
which term describes a lack of differentiation
anaplasia
395
when eptihelium switches from pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium, its called
metaplasia
396
cancer in the bone marrow
multiple myeloma
397
if someone has increased serum acid phosphatase and PSA, they have what
prostate cancer
398
patient has ulcers in the gingiva. lab values are 1200 WBC, 98% lymphocyte, normal platelet/RBC. what does the patient have?
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
399
what do you find in the sweat of a person with cystic fibrosis
increased Na and chloride
400
what is not a characteristic of sphingophospholipid
responsible for RBC recognition
401
what occurs in a MI
coagulative necrosis
402
which one is autosomal dominant
gardners syndrome
403
the tumor that is associated with myasthenia gravis occurs where
thymus
404
GI carcinoma is caused by.
villous adenoma
405
which one is not an autoimmune disease
erythroblastosis fetalis
406
pernicious anemia results from
lack of vitamin B12
407
most common type of anemia
iron deficiency anemia
408
patient had. dysphonia, dysphagia, weight loss, long term heavy smoker
laryngeal carcinoma
409
with HTN, the heart shows
left ventricular hypertrophy
410
a girl from africa had TB, what would not be a cause of a positive PPD
eprosy
411
if hypophysis isnt working
hypogonadotrophy
412
hypothyroidism causes
positive nitrogen balance
413
adenosine deaminase deficiency causes what disease
severe combined immune deficiency (SCID)
414
what is the likely cause of a pulmonary embolism
thrombophlebitis
415
abnormalities in cell growth that causes smaller than normal cells and tissues are called
atrophy and hypoplasia
416
what nerve innervates the skin above the upper lip
infraorbital nerve
417
what innervates the buccal mucosa of the posterior hard palate
greater palatine nerve
418
gag reflex -- sensory limb (afferent) mediated by
CN 9
419
what is the primary sensory relay station of the brain (conduit)
thalamus
420
sectioning of infundibular stalk of hypothalamus with normal hypophyseal tract leads to. a decrease in. what hormones
vasopressin (ADH)
421
argest paranasal sinus
maxillary sinus
422
anterior cerebral artery supplies what lobes
frontal and parietal lobes
423
increases in CSF pressure causes what
brain herniation
424
where is synovial fluid produced
internal synovial layer of the fibrous capsule (joint capsule)
425
what cells line the visceral layer of bowmans capsules
podocytes
426
where is the highest osmolality
loop of henle in the medulla
427
which one is the best for GFR
inulin
428
in the urea cycle, where does the nitrogen come from
ammonia and aspartate
429
rate limiting step of cholesterol biosynthesis
HMG CoA reductase
430
all of these secrete bicarbonates excepts
chief cells of the stomach
431
crypts of lieberkithn (intestinal glands) of the small intestine were located in which layer
lamina propria
432
main movement in. the small intestine is through
segmentaiton
433
which is innervated by vagus nerve
ascending and 2/3 transverse colon
434
centroacinar cell are found in what organ
pancrreas
435
preventing Ca from binding in smooth muscle to what caused the inhibition
myosin
436
which one is not a glycoprotein hormone
GH
437
lumbar puncture occurs where
L3/L4
438
in unable to use heat, what method should be used to sterilize insturments
ethylene oxide
439
whats a. way to measure human basal energy
temperature
440
DNA fingerprinting originated
restriction site polymorphism
441
what is not needed for the PCR process
taking up the plasmid
442
graves disease has
high t3/t4, low TSH
443
what nerve brings preganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers to the otic ganglion
lesser petrosal nerve
444
at what age do all premolars begin calcification
2 years old
445
which primary tooth has a crown similar to. a premolar and roots similar to a molar
primary maxillary 1st molar
446
primary maxillary and mandibular 1st molar have what distinguishing feature
prominent cervical ridge
447
which cusp is the tallest cusp of the primary mandibular 1st molar
mesial lingual
448
maxillary centrial incisor is cut at CEJ. what shape is the tooth outline
triangualr
449
in one quadrant, the tooth is peg lateral. in the contralalateral quadrant this tooth is congenitally missing. which tooth is this
maxillary lateral
450
in which tooth is the lingual dimension greater than bucaal dimension
maxillary 1st molar
451
what is the differnece between a mandibular lateral and central incisor
the lateral incisor is twisted on its root
452
y-shaped mandibular 2nd PM is made by. a combination of what grooves
central and lingual grooves
453
which of the following cusps is not a primary developmental cusp of the maxillary 1st molar
DL
454
patient had brown and grey tooth discoloration on premolar, canine, and 2nd molars but the anterior were spared. when was the patient given tetracycline
before the age of 2
455
purulent discharge after extraction and has sulfur granules
actinomyces
456
immunoglobulin associated with periodontal disease
IgG
457
origin and insertion of sphenomandibular ligament
spine of the sphenoid and lingula of the mandible
458
which premolar has a. crescent shaped central groove
mandibular 2nd pm
459
origin and insertion of the pterygomandibular raphe
hamulus of the pterygoid plate and mylohyoid line
460
what covers the articulating surface of the TMJ of a three year old
dense fibrous connective tissue
461
where is the phagocyte located in the TMJ
synovial membrane
462
on your articulator, alerting horizontal condylar guidance will affect all of the following except
laterotrusive
463
during regular swallowing, what position should the teeth be in
intercuspal position
464
space between teeth in the rest position is
2-4mm
465
which of these muscle retracts the mandible
the horizontal (posterior) fibers of the temporalis muscle
466
failure of the left lateral pterygoid muscle causes the mandible to deviate to
the left
467
rashkovs plexus are next to
odontoblastic proesses
468
you bite on something hard, what tells you to stop
peridontal mechanoreeptors
469
tooth # 3 is innervated by
middle superior alveolar and posterior superior alveolar nerve
470
what is the cause of half facial paralysis after INAB
injection into parotid gland
471
17 year old patient has 2. molars, permanent PM, and primary molars on in the right mandibular quadrant, what tooth is likely missing
permanent mandibular 2nd pm
472
patient comes in 1 day after extraction of maxillary 3rd molar with a hematoma. what is the. cause
needle has. violted in pterygoid plexus of veins
473
during extraction you break the adjacent marginal ridge of an amalgam treated tooth aof an alzheimers patient
stop everything and notify the patients guardian
474
the posterior mandibular teeth face which direction in comparison to its. maxillary counterparts
lingually
475
in comparison to a maxillary canine, which aspect of the. mandibular canine is bigger
larger crown
476
how many pulp horns does. a mandibular first molar have
5
477
which is true regarding a mandibular first premolar
the tooth erupts while the root has only half completed its formation
478
where is the mesial furcation on tooth #14
2/3 toward the lingual
479
what would you see in a cross section of a. mandibular central incisor root
the shape would be nearly round
480
which is not part of innate immunity
antibody
481
how many lingual fossa does the mandibular canine have
2
482
what type of bacteria is dominant in root caries
actinomyces
483
the maxillary canine in normal intercuspal position should occlude with
the mandibular canine and first premolar
484
which of the following is used to phagocytize bacteria
gamma Fc receptor and C3b
485
which of the following are for a delayed hypersensitivity infection
t cells and macrophages
486
t cell receptors are similar to which one
Fab
487
the predominant cell in an inflammatory response
neutrophil
488
what secretes TNF alpha and IL 1
activated macrophages
489
what secretes TNF alpha and IL 1
activated macrophages
490
what does interferon do
it prevents the replication of viruses
491
cervical cancer is related to
papilloma virus
492
which tooth will erupt right before a maxillary 2nd molar
the mandibular second molar
493
which one is not an organelle
lipid droplet
494
trauma victim with broken bone and evidence of "woven bone repair"
- how long has it been since the trauma?
woven bone = few days, 3 weeks
495
what facial bone did she break if it was adjacent to the canthus
zygomatic bone
496
penetration at lower left (stab), which organ was most likely hurt
kidney
497
dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- what is the age of this girl
9-10 years
| (max canine = 11-12 years)
498
dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- which bone of the orbit is probably broken
zygomatic
499
dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- on the x-ray there is. a line of radiolucency on the left orbital lateral margin
normal suture
500
dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- what would the coup countercoup injury be (opposite sde of impact)
right sphenoid
501
dead girl has swollen right cheek with hematoma on the lateral rim of the right orbit. erupted lower canines but not upper canines. rattlesnake bites her lateral of the right forearm:
- what nerve is most. prone to injury in the forearm
radial nerve
502
female. left backstab at L1-L2, adjacent to vertebrae. 12 cm deep. has malory weis tear on her esopahgus and multiple mass on her uterus:
- what is the cause of the malory weis tear
alcoholism
503
female. left backstab at L1-L2, adjacent to vertebrae. 12 cm deep. has malory weis tear on her esopahgus and multiple mass on her uterus:
- what is the multiple mass on her uterus
leiomyoma (benign neoplasm of uterus)
504
female. left backstab at L1-L2, adjacent to vertebrae. 12 cm deep. has malory weis tear on her esopahgus and multiple mass on her uterus:
- which organ is most likely damaged/hit
kidney
505
female. left backstab at L1-L2, adjacent to vertebrae. 12 cm deep. has malory weis tear on her esopahgus and multiple mass on her uterus:
- the victim had dried up blood in her nose. what is the likely cause
epitaxis
506
6 weeks pregnant women taking tetracycline for rosacea
| - what does not occur during 6 weeks of fetus
palatal shelves fusion (7 weeks)
507
which one is seen in the fetus but not the mother
ductus venosus
508
6 weeks pregnant women taking tetracycline for rosacea
| - what is the problem with using tetracycline for the fetus
changes the color of the teeth/discoloraiton
509
6 weeks pregnant women taking tetracycline for rosacea
| - at what time is best for elective dental treatments as it would alfter organogenesis of the fetus
after 12 weeks
510
what antiboitic is most frequently used in treamtnet of TB
rifampin = inhibits RNA synthesis (transcription), used for 6-9 months
511
patient with RCT #3 and the radiolucency did not resolve. the histological section showed non keratinized epithelium.
- what is the radiolucency
cyst
