Limitations 9/20 Flashcards

1
Q

Runway Slope

A

+/- 2%

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2
Q

737 is approved for which kids of flight and operation, both day and night?

A

Visual (VFR), Instrument (IFR), Icing conditions and Extended Overwater (ETOPS).

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3
Q

Seating in cockpit and supernumerary?

A

2 flight deck seats, one jumpseat, plus 4 seats in the supernumerary compartment.

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4
Q

Max Takeoff Tailwind Component?

A

15kts for most, 10kts for some including 700.

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5
Q

Max Landing Tailwind Component?

A

10 knots

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6
Q

Max Autoland headwind component

A

25 knots

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7
Q

Max takeoff crosswind component?

A

34 with winglets, 36 without.

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8
Q

Max landing crosswind component?

A

40 knots

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9
Q

Max autoland crosswind component

A

15 knots

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10
Q

Max operating altitude

A

41,000

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11
Q

When to check the flight deck door access system?

A

Every crew change.

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12
Q

Max taxi weight?

A

174,700

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13
Q

Max takeoff weight?

A

174,200

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14
Q

Max landing weight?

A

146,300

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15
Q

Max Zero fuel weight?

A

138,300

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16
Q

What’s different about the Amazon takeoff weight?

A

Limited to 171,000 when weight of the pallets in over center section exceeds 3,925lbs.

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17
Q

Weight and balance and Takeoff and Landing data for SY and AZ

A

Sunny-Aerodata

Amazon-Sable and Aerodata

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18
Q

Severe Turbulence Air penetration speed

A

280KIAS or .76M whichever is lower for climb and descent.

Check QRH for level flight.

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19
Q

Do standby altimeters work for RVSM?

A

Nope

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20
Q

Max allowable in-flight difference between altitude displays for RVSM?

A

200 feet

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21
Q

Max allowable on the ground difference between altitude displays for RVSM?

A

Sea level to 5,000 is 50 feet.

5000 up is 60 feet.

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22
Q

Max difference between altitude display on the ground and field elevation?

A

75 feet.

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23
Q

Load factor Flaps UP

A

+2.5 to -1.0g

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24
Q

Load factor Flaps Down

A

+2.0 to 0g

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25
Q

Maximum operation speeds: VMO

A

Indicated by the red arc on the airspeed indicator or by the upper barber pole on the speed tape.
340kts or .82m

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26
Q

Flaps 1

A

250

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27
Q

Flaps 40

A

162

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28
Q

Flaps 10

A

210

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29
Q

Flaps 5

A

250

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30
Q

Flaps 25

A

190

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31
Q

Flaps 2

A

250

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32
Q

Flaps 30

A

175

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33
Q

Flaps 15

A

200

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34
Q

At flap speeds 1, 2, and 5, do not_____.

A

Exceed 230 knots when flaps are extended using the alternate (standby) system.

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35
Q

Vlo (ret)

A

235 knots

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36
Q

Vlo (ext)

A

270 or .82

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37
Q

Vle

A

320 or .82

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38
Q

Entry and service door wind limitations

A

Do not operate with winds more than 40kts, do not keep open with gusts more than 65kts.

39
Q

Main cargo door limitations.

A

Do not operate with winds more than 40 kts, do not keep open with gusts more than 60kts.

40
Q

Flight Crew O2 requirements for 2 and 3 crewmembers.

A

Depends on temp and type of cylinder, but highest is 735 and 1055 respectively.

41
Q

With engine bleed air switches ON, what should you avoid during take off, approach and landing?

A

Operating the AC packs in HIGH (unless non-normal calls for it).

42
Q

Takeoffs are prohibited in what weather?

A

Moderate of heavy freezing rain
Heavy ice pellets
Hail

43
Q
Minimum Altitudes with Autopilot engaged:
Takeoff
Enroute
ILS coupled
ILS coupled autoland
Non-precision approach
A
1,000 AGL
1,000 AGL
50' AGL
After touchdown
50 feet below MDA, DA
44
Q

Can you use aileron trim with autopilot engaged?

A

Nope

45
Q

Can you arm VNAV on the ground?

A

Nope

46
Q

Autoland, 9 things required!

A
  1. Flaps 30 or 40 and both engines operative.
  2. Cat II/III must use flaps 40
  3. Runway must have ILS Cat I, II or III approach
  4. No ILS course offset
  5. No NOTAM restrictions on localizer, glideslope
  6. ILS beam stable throughout the approach
  7. No NOTAM restrictions on autopilot use or published IAP chart restrictions.
  8. GS angle between 3.25-2.5 degrees
  9. Runway 8400 pa or lower.
47
Q

When can you NOT use LVL CHG

A

On final approach below 1000’ AFE

48
Q

If one HF radio is selected for transmission, deselect_____.

A

the other HF radio on all audio select panels to prevent audio interference.

49
Q

When must you use boom mics?

A

18k and below unless permitted by MEL.

50
Q

Which VHF radio should you use for primary ATC comms on the ground?

A

Use number 1 because it’s connected to the top of the fuselage.

51
Q

Do not operate HF radios during_____.

A

Refueling operations.

52
Q

Engine Limit Display Markings: (3)

A

Red: max and min limits
Amber: caution limits
White: normal operating range

53
Q

Engine EGT limit for takeoff

A

950 for 5 minutes

54
Q

Engine EGT limit for starting

A

725

55
Q

Engine EGT limit, max continuous

A

925

56
Q

Tell me about Engine oil limitations!

A
  1. Do not takeoff if oil pressure is in the amber band.
  2. If you’re in the amber, limit operation to 45 minutes.
  3. 12 quarts minimum prior to start to dispatch.
57
Q

You must turn the engine ignition on for the following 5 conditions:

A
Takeoff
Landing
Operation in heavy rain
Anti-ice operation
Severe turbulence
58
Q

Reverse thrust inflight

A

Prohibited

59
Q

Reduced or derated thrust is not allowed when the EEC

A

is in the Alternate Mode.

60
Q

Reduced thrust is not allowed when

A

Antiskid is inop or off

Runway is contaminated

61
Q
APU load limits for 
Inflight-bleed and electrical
Ground only-bleed and electrical
Bleed
Electrical load
A

10,000
15,000
17,000
41,000

62
Q

APU bleed valve must be closed when:

A
  1. Ground air connected and isolation valve open
  2. Engine no.1 bleed valve open
  3. isolation and engine no.2 bleed valves open
63
Q

APU bleed valve may be open during____ but____.

A

Engine start, avoid engine power above idle.

64
Q

After 3 consecutive aborted APU start attempts, _____.

A

a 15 minute cooling period is required.

65
Q

The engine anti-ice system must be ON during all ground and flight operations when______.

A

Icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temp is below -40c sat.

66
Q

When do icing conditions exist?

A

When the OAT on the ground and for takeoff, or TAT in flight is 10c or below and visible moisture in any form is present, or when the temp is below 10c and you’ve got contamination on rwys or ramps like ice, standing water or slush that could be ingested by the engines or freeze on the engines or nacelles.

67
Q

Do not operate wing anti-ice (2)

A
  1. as a sub for ground deicing

2. on the ground when OAT is above 10c.

68
Q

Max flaps extended altitude

A

20,000’

69
Q

Can you hold in icing conditions with flaps extended?

A

Nope

70
Q

Do not deploy speedbrakes (2)

A
  1. below RA less than 1000’

2. beyond flight detent inflight

71
Q

Why should you avoid rapid and large alternation control inputs in combo with large changes in pitch, roll and yaw?

A

Because it may result in structural failure at any speed.

72
Q

Alternate flap duty cycle (2)

A
  1. When extending or retracting flaps allow 15 seconds between switch movements.
  2. After a complete cycle (0-15-0), allow for a 5 minute cooling period.
73
Q

All barometric altitude references must use

A

QNH

74
Q

Do not use GPWS for: (2)

A
  1. Navigation
  2. use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are prohibited within 15nm of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport not in the GPWS database.
75
Q

Avoid WX radar ops (2)

A
  1. in a hangar

2. when ppl are within the area normally enclosed by the radome.

76
Q

Jet fuels! Which can we use?

A

Jet A or A1

JP-5, JP-8 or F-24

77
Q

Fuel tank temperatures

A

Max 49

Min -43 or 3 above fuel freezing point, whichever is higher.

78
Q

Fuel Balancing: 2

A
  1. Scheduled to be 0 between mains.

2. Transient fuel imbalance must not exceed 1000lbs.

79
Q

Fuel loading? How do we load the fuel?

A

When center tank has more than 1000 pounds, the mains must be full.

80
Q

Allowable fuel density range?

A

6.3-7.1 lb/gal.

81
Q

Both Center Tank Fuel switches must be off: 2

A
  1. for ground ops, except center tank exceeds 1k pounds or when defueling or transferring fuel.
  2. ground and flight ops when the center tank fuel pump low pressure light illuminates.
82
Q

Can you intentionally dry run a center tank?

A

NO

83
Q

Do an operational check of the fuel crossfeed valve before

A

each ETOPS flight.

84
Q

Defueling main tanks with pax on board is prohibited if

A

the main tank fuel pumps are powered.

85
Q

Defueling the center tank with pax on board is prohibited if

A

the center tank fuel pumps and powered and auto-shutoff system is inhibited.

86
Q

Prior to transferring fuel or defueling, conduct

A

a lamp test of the respective fuel pump low pressure light.

87
Q

Fuel may be transferred from tank to tank or the aircraft may be defueled with pax on board, provided

A

the fuel quantity in the tank from which fuel is being taken is maintained at or above 2000 pounds.

88
Q

If actual landing weight exceeds max permissible quick turn-around weight,

A

a waiting period of 67 minutes is required before subsequent takeoff is permitted and a visual inspection by the PM must be performed after 67 minutes to ensure wheel thermal plug integrity.

89
Q

Do no operate on surfaces reported as

A

NIL

90
Q

to land CAT II/III

A

the runway surface braking action must be at least Medium (CC3) or better.

91
Q

Pilots can deviate from ATC clearance to

A

comply with a TCAS II resolution advisory

92
Q

Takeoff with PSEU light?

A

Prohibited when illuminated and can’t be reset.

93
Q

Cold Soaked Fuel Frost takeoff prohibited when: (4)

A
  1. ambient air temp is below 4c
  2. fuel tank temp is below -16c
  3. There is CSFF on the wing tank upper surfaces beyond the lines defining the area.
  4. Precipitation or visible moisture.
94
Q

Amazon Main Deck Cargo Compartment access is permitted with the following restrictions:

A

Cargo requires no special attn: nobody goes behind the smoke barrier.
Cargo DOES require special attn, nobody goes back there during taxi, TO and landing, but can go for one of these three reasons inflight:
1. Live animals and no other cargo. (2 ppl)
2. Hazardous/perishable cargo only, no live animals (2 ppl)
2. Live animals and cargo (2 ppl).