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Finals Revision :O > Key facts > Flashcards

Key facts Flashcards

1
Q

What is the commonest form of malaria?

A

Falciparum malaria

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2
Q

Key features of malaria infection (5)

A

Fever, Jaundice, Abdo pain, hypoglycaemia, low platelets

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3
Q

Flash pulmonary oedema is a sign of _____

A

reno-vascular disease

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4
Q

What is a first line investigation for Acromegaly?

A

Serum IGF-1

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5
Q

Which fractures are most commonly associated with compartment syndrome?

A

Supracondlyar and tibial shaft

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6
Q

What triad is associated with Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

Dysphagia, iron-deficiency anaemia, glossitis

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7
Q

How can the possibility of contrast-induced nephropathy be reduced?

A

Pre- and Post-procedural IV hydration

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8
Q

What is the triad associated with carcinoid syndrome?

A

abdo pain, diarrhoea, flushing - due to a tumour producing vasoactive mediators and prostaglandins

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9
Q

What is the only treatment for dry age related macular degeneration?

A

Vitamins - only thing shown to slow progression from intermediate to advanced disease

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10
Q

How long is a transplant rejection considered acute?

A

6 months

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11
Q

Which gene is affected in Marfans syndrome?

A

Fibrillin - 1

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12
Q

What is a common risk factor for DVT?

A

Dehydration

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13
Q

What is a classic presentation of ischaemic colitis?

A

abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea worse after eating a large meal. more common in those with ischaemic heart disease

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14
Q

How long should UTIs be treated for in pregnancy?

A

7 days

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15
Q

Leptospirosis is most commonly found where?

A

in rats urine - important for sewage workers

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16
Q

Which cancers are most likely to cause hypercalcaemia (3)?

A

Breast, lung and multiple myeloma

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17
Q

What is the ideal amount of IV fluids for everyday fluid maintenance?

A

25-30ml/kg/day

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18
Q

What antibodies are found in dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

anti-endomysial

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19
Q

Which veins become enlarged in caput medusae?

A

superior mesenteric and splenic veins

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20
Q

Which type of meningitis is more common in HIV positive patients?

A

Cryptococcal

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21
Q

What treatment is given for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

amphotericin B

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22
Q

Which meningitis is more common in teens?

A

Neisseria meningitides

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23
Q

What is Waterhouse-Freidrichson syndrome?

A

primary adrenal failure, usually associated with a traumatic event or illness such as sepsis.

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24
Q

What is Factor V Leiden?

A

Factor V leiden is a pro-clotting disorder due to factor V being resistant to Protein C degradation

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25
Q

How long after last treatment should lithium be monitored?

A

12 hours after last dose

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26
Q

What blood results might you expect from multiple myeloma without metastases?

A

high calcium, normal Alk Phos, normal PO4

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27
Q

When should bloods be monitored for phenytoin levels monitoring?

A

just before next dose

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28
Q

When should digoxin levels be monitored?

A

6 hours after dose

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29
Q

What mutation is associated with polycythaemia?

A

JAK2

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30
Q

What can be used in the event of a beta-blocker overdose?

A

atropine and if that fails, glucagon

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31
Q

What is first line for preventing angina attacks?

A

beta-blockers or CCBs

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32
Q

What is used in a benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumenazil

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33
Q

What is the mutation associated with chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

T9,22 - philadelphia chromosome

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34
Q

What anti-emetic should be avoided in bowel obstruction?

A

metoclopramide - it is a prokinetic agent

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35
Q

What can be used in heparin overdose?

A

protamine sulphate

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36
Q

what is cholelithiasis?

A

the presence of gallstones in the bladder

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37
Q

Causes of broad complex bradycardia?

A

hyperkalaemia, hypothyroidism, hypothermia, hypoxia, medicines like digoxin, b-blockers, CCBs

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38
Q

Treatment for ringworm?

A

topical clotrimazole

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39
Q

Signs of common peroneal nerve palsy?

A

foot drop, loss of sensation in the lateral calf, inability to evert/dorsiflex the foot

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40
Q

Carpal bones

A

Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquitrium, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

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41
Q

Thyroid cancer with the worst prognosis

A

anaplastic

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42
Q

Thyroid cancer which spreads haematologically

A

follicular

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43
Q

Thyroid cancer associated with MEN

A

medullary

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44
Q

Thyroid cancer which occurs in iodine rich areas

A

papillary

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45
Q

Most common thyroid cancer

A

papillary

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46
Q

Mechanism of action of glitazones?

A

stimulate and raise adiponectin levels –> promote adipogensis

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47
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

involuntary muscle movements usually tongue, lips, trunk and extremities

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48
Q

What is acute dystonia?

A

intermittent sustained contraction of any muscle in the body

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49
Q

Most common form of non-hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Diffuse Large B cell

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50
Q

Which drug reduces mortality in heart failure

A

spironolactone

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51
Q

Which condition is a known cause of premature menopause?

A

addissons disease

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52
Q

A ghon focus is formed in (primary/secondary) TB?

A

Primary

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53
Q

What should be prescribed alongside isotretinoin?

A

Combined oral contraception where possible.

POP is not an acceptable form in this case

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54
Q

What nerve is associated with tear production?

A

Intermediate nerve (branch of the facial nerve)

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55
Q

What is achalasia?

A

An oesophageal dysmotility disorder

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56
Q

Investigations for achalasia?

A

Oesophageal manometry/barium swallow (birds beak)

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57
Q

Contraindications to thrombolysis (4)

A

bleeding disorders, recent haemorrhage/head trauma in the last 3 weeks, stroke in the last year, brain neoplasm

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58
Q

What is the Moriskey scale?

A

A medicine adherence questionnaire where it is suspected that compliance is an issue

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59
Q

Virus which causes hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie A16

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60
Q

What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction?

A

CVD and diabetes

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61
Q

What is the Koebner phenomenon?

A

Where new skin lesions occur in an area of subcutaneous trauma in otherwise healthy skin - seen in psoriasis, vitiligo and lichen planus

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62
Q

What sort of tumour might produce spindle cells in a stomach biopsy?

A

Gastrointestinal stromal tumour

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63
Q

What clinical sign may be seen in a lesion of CN V3?

A

Weakness in bite

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64
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment of heavy periods in a patient with known fibroids?

A

Tranexamic acid

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65
Q

What is a common side effect of memantine?

A

Headaches

Memantine has less GI symptoms than other cholinesterase inhibitors

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66
Q

What medication is not effective in controlling heavy bleeding due to fibroids?

A

Mefanamic acid

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67
Q

Which muscles are supplied by CN V3?

A

Masticatory muscles

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68
Q

What cells may be seen on blood smear in CLL?

A

small mature B lymphocytes

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69
Q

How do patients with CLL normally present?

A

asymptomatically - usually an incidental finding.

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70
Q

What is “cradle cap”?

A

A form of seborrhoeic dermatitis in babies

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71
Q

What is the treatment for cradle cap?

A

Mild - baby shampoo and baby oil

Severe - mild topical steroids

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72
Q

Where is vernicline used?

A

in aiding smoking cessation

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73
Q

Auto-antibodies in PBC?

A

anti-mitochondrial antibodies

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74
Q

What might patients with PBC present with?

A

itch, lethargy, slight jaundice. middle aged women

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75
Q

What pharmacotherapy should a patient be offered post-MI?

A

dual antiplatelets - aspirin + clopidogrel, ACE inhibitor (esp in reduced ejection fraction), b-blocker, statin

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76
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for psychotic disorders?

A

Family history of psychotic disorders

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77
Q

What kind of pulse is associated with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?

A

bisferiens pulse (feels like a double pulse)

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78
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is rare except in which region?

A

Southern china

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79
Q

What infection is nasopharyngeal carcinoma associated with?

A

EBV

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80
Q

What is charcot-marie-tooth?

A

a hereditary sensory/motor peripheral neuropathy with no UMN signs

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81
Q

What advice should be given regarding combined hormonal contraceptives when expecting major surgery?

A

Stop 4 weeks prior and start 2 weeks after mobilisation

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82
Q

If there is loss of the heart border on an xray due to consolidation, where is the likely pneumonia?

A

left lingula - area of the left lung that covers the heart

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83
Q

Which treatment is most appropriate in ER +ve breast ca. in pre/peri-menopausal women?

A

tamoxifen

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84
Q

Which treatment is most appropriate in ER +ve breast ca. in post-menopausal women?

A

aromatase inhibitors

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85
Q

What is a common side-effect of tamoxifen?

A

hot flushes

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86
Q

What is the mecahnism of action of vernicline?

A

partial nicotine receptor agonist

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87
Q

What is the effect of thiazide diuretics on calcium resorption?

A

increase calcium resorption from urine

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88
Q

What are the associated symptoms with Giardia infection?

A

bloating, belching, flatulence and diarrhoea

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89
Q

Treatment for Giardia infections?

A

400mg Metronidazole TID for 5 days

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90
Q

Treatment for Pneumocytis jirovecci pneumonia (PJP)

A

Co-trimoxazole

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91
Q

What is a thyroglossal cyst?

A

a remnant of the thyroglossal duct during development

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92
Q

Symptoms associated with a total anterior stroke

A

All 3 of the following: motor deficit, speech deficit and hemianopia

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93
Q

Symptoms associated with a partial anterior stroke

A

2 or less of a total anterior stroke: motor deficit, speech deficit and hemianopia

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94
Q

Symptoms of a posterior circulation infarct

A

brainstem or cranial nerve lesions and signs, cerebellar signs or ipsilateral sensory or motor deficit

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95
Q

Lacunar infarct symptoms

A

isolated sensory or motor disturbance

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96
Q

What is the most common ovarian tumour (benign)

A

ovarian cystadenoma

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97
Q

What electrolyte disturbances increase the risk of refeeding syndrome?

A

hypo- phosphataemia, magnesia, kalaemia and thiamine deficiency

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98
Q

Causes of pancreatitis

A

I GET SMASHED
I- Idiopathic G-gallstones, E-ethanol, T-trauma, S-Steroids, M- mumps, A-autoimmune, S- scorpions, H-hypothermia, E-ERCP, D-drugs

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99
Q

A temporal lesion in the optic nerve will cause…

A

a superior quadrantanopia

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100
Q

A parietal lesion in the optic nerve will cause…

A

an inferior quadrantanopia

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101
Q

A craniopharyngioma will cause (ophthalm)

A

lower bitemporal hemianopia

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102
Q

Which MEN syndrome is associated with medullary thyroids cancer?

A

MEN2

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103
Q

Which HPV are most associated with cervical ca.?

A

16, 18, 33

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104
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing Hirschsprungs disease?

A

Rectal biopsy

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105
Q

What are teardrop poikilocytes associated with?

A

myelodysplastic syndromes such as myelofibrosis

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106
Q

Which STD is gram neg diplococci?

A

Gonorrhoea

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107
Q

What is the triad associated with gonorrhoea infection?

A

tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, dermatitis

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108
Q

What is Perthes disease?

A

AVN of the femoral head in 4-8 year olds

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109
Q

What symptoms are associated with intestinal angina?

A

Severe colicky abdominal pain after eating, weightloss and abdominal bruit

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110
Q

What virus is associated with kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

HHV-8 ; Human herpes virus 8

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111
Q

What is the most commonly inherited bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrands disease

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112
Q

What is the most common breast cancer?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

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113
Q

What are Heinz bodies associated with?

A

G6PD

114
Q

How do you monitor the use of unfractionated heparin?

A

aPTT

115
Q

What is the most common cause of bowel obstruction?

A

adhesions

116
Q

What is the most common gynae problem in the pre-pubertal age group?

A

vulvovaginitis

117
Q

What is a common cause of excessive vaginal discharge while on the pill?

A

cervical ectropion

118
Q

What medications should be stopped in worsening heart failure due to their negative inotropic effects?

A

Calcium channel blockers

119
Q

How long is it acceptable to offer thrombolysis in a stroke?

A

up to 4.5 hours from symptom onset

120
Q

What findings are assocaited with mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

dry cough, erythema multiforme and CXR findings

121
Q

People with coeliac disease often have which organ affected in the abdomen?

A

Hyposplenism

122
Q

SSRIs and NSAIDs combined increase the risk of…?

A

GI Bleed

123
Q

Ebsteins anomaly is associated with the use of what drug during pregnancy?

A

Lithium

124
Q

What is Ebsteins anomaly?

A

A rare congenital heart condition which causes RA hypertrophy and tricuspid regurgitation

125
Q

Why is Haloperidol contraindicated in parkinsons disease?

A

It is a dopamine antagonist which will worsen symptoms

126
Q

Why is domperidone not contraindicated in parkinsons disease?

A

It does not cross the blood brain barrier

127
Q

What skin condition is associated with malignancies such as breast cancer?

A

Dermatomyositis

128
Q

What are the hallmark signs of dermatomyositis?

A

Gottrons papules and helitrope rash

129
Q

What is the treatment for the anaphylactoid reaction that is associated with N-acetyle cysteine transfusion?

A

Stop the infusion and restart over a slower infusion rate (1 hour instead of usual 15 minutes)

130
Q

Which symptoms indicate a poor prognosis in liver cirrhosis?

A

ascities, encephalopathy, increased PT time, hypoalbuminaemia, increased bilirubin

131
Q

Which drug may be used to treat hyperphosphataemia in CKD bone mineral disease?

A

Sevelamer

132
Q

What treatment is important following a GI bleed associated with liver cirrhosis?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics

133
Q

What is a keratoacanthoma?

A

A growing skin lesion in sun-damaged areas that may grow large and then shrinks and dissappears leaving a scar after a few months

134
Q

What are pyogenic granulomas?

A

purple lesions that bleed easily, found at a site of trauma

135
Q

Describe lichen planus

A

purple, pruritic, papular, polygonal lesions on the flexor surfaces and the oral mucosa

136
Q

Where are you most likely to seen lichen sclerosis?

A

itchy white spots found on the vulva of older women

137
Q

What condition presents with dysphagia with solids and liquids from the onset?

A

Achalasia

138
Q

What is first line treatment in non-bullous impetigo?

A

topical hydrogen peroxide THEN topical fusidic acid

139
Q

What is the use of ROSIER?

A

Recognition of stroke in the emergency room - helps differentiate between stroke and stroke mimics

140
Q

What is the ABCD2 score?

A

Used to predict the occurence of stroke in the short term following a TIA

141
Q

What is the CHA2DS2VASc score used for?

A

Determining the likelihood of stroke secondary to AF

142
Q

What heart condition is associated with PKD?

A

Mitral valve prolapse or regurgitation

143
Q

Which medication is administered in variceal haemorrhage?

A

Terlipressin

144
Q

What should a patient with sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss be treated with initially?

A

High dose oral prednisilone

145
Q

which electrolyte disturbance can cause polydipsia and polyuria?

A

hypercalcaemia

146
Q

What long term treatment should patients with stroke and AF have?

A

warfarin or Factor Xa inhibitor like apixaban

147
Q

What is the CK threshold for rhabdomyolysis?

A

CK > 10,000

148
Q

What is the diagnostic test for PSC?

A

MRCP

149
Q

What histology indicates a carcinoma tumour?

A

enlarged nuclei, hyperchromia and pleomorphism

150
Q

Which artery supplies the first half of the duodenum?

A

gastroduodenal artery

151
Q

Where in the brain does Alzheimers first affect?

A

Temporal lobe

152
Q

What is the treatment for tricyclic poisoning?

A

IV sodium bicarbonate

153
Q

Which patients should have epidural anaethesia rather than opioids post-operatively?

A

Those with severe respiratory disease like COPD after major surgery

154
Q

What is the diagnostic test for a sub-arachnoid haemorrhage in APKD?

A

Lumbar puncture

155
Q

What anticoagulation should patients with a mechanical valve have?

A

aspirin and warfarin

156
Q

Which airway device prevents regurgitation aspiration?

A

tracheal tube

157
Q

What is the policy regarding fasting and fluids prior to surgery?

A

6hrs for solids, 2hrs for clear liquids

158
Q

Which antibodies are found for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

anti-CCP

159
Q

transillumates, surrounds the testis

A

hydrocele

160
Q

Separate from the testis, transilluminates

A

epididymal cyst

161
Q

What is the treatment for renal stones with severe hydronephorisis?

A

nephrostomy

162
Q

What is first line treatment in sinus bradycardia?

A

Atropine (followed by adrenaline if haemodynamically unstable and not responding to atropine)

163
Q

What is the most common organism in leg cellulitis?

A

strep. pyogenes

164
Q

What are the first-line treatment in superficial thrombophlebitis?

A

NSAIDs

165
Q

What breast disease causes pain around the menstrual cycle?

A

fibrocystic disease

166
Q

Which lymph nodes are mostly affected by ovarian cancer?

A

para-aortic most common, internal iliac sometimes

167
Q

How is an SVC obstruction without stridor initially managed?

A

Using dexamethasone

168
Q

How is an SVC obstruction with stridor managed?

A

Dexamethasone and stenting

169
Q

In warfarin overdose with bleeding, what is given alongside Vitamin K to reverse the effects?

A

Prothrombin complex - it is faster and less likely to cause an immune reaction than FFP

170
Q

What is required in adults presenting with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Renal biopsy

171
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

A birth defect where nerves are missing from the intestine causing difficulty passing stools

172
Q

What antibiotic are coeliac patients with hyposplenism given and why?

A

low dose penicillin to protect against encapsulated bacteria

173
Q

Gold standard investigation for dysphagia?

A

OGD

174
Q

Which ligament most likely to be damaged in knee from twisting injury?

A

ACL

175
Q

Cause of croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

176
Q

Sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever

177
Q

Organism of scarlet fever

A

strep pyogenes

178
Q

Most common CAP in COPD

A

Haemophilus influenza

179
Q

Main cause of R Heart Failure

A

Left heart failure

180
Q

Symptoms of left heart failure

A

Pulmonary oedema, peripheral pitting oedema, fatigue, dyspnoea, orthopnoea, PND

181
Q

Why is there fatigue in heart failure?

A

there is decreased CO which means that there is less blood to the vital organs

182
Q

Symptoms of right heart failure

A

JVP enlargement, Hepatomegaly, pitting oedema

183
Q

Which medication should be used with caution in decompensated heart failure?

A

b-blockers - due to them reducing heart rate and force of contraction

184
Q

Medications which help reduce mortality in heart failure (4)

A

ACE-is, ARBs, Aldosterone receptor antagonists, b-blockers

185
Q

What medication can be used to reduce fluid overload in Heart failure?

A

Thiazide or loop diuretics

186
Q

Describe a pseudo aortic aneurysm

A

A break in the aorta wall in the tunica intima but no other layers.

187
Q

Where are most AAA’s found?

A

below the renal arteries at the L2 level

188
Q

Why are AAAs often found below the L2 level?

A

because they don’t have the vasa vasorum vessels which increases the chance of ischaemia to the tunica media layer

189
Q

Risk factors for AAA

A

Male, >65 years, smoking, FHx of AAA

190
Q

When is a AAA more at risk for rupture?

A

When the diameter exceeds 5cm

191
Q

Risk factors for thoracic aortic aneurysms?

A

hypertension, bicuspid aortic valve and CTDs such as Marfans

192
Q

What is an aortic dissection?

A

a tear in the intima which creates a false lumen which is enlarged with each beat

193
Q

Risk factors for aortic dissection?

A

hypertension, bicuspid aortic valve, Marfans and EDS, use of amphetamines and cocaine

194
Q

Symptoms and signs of aortic dissection

A

Tearing chest pain through to the upper back, Unequal arm BP, aortic regurg murmur, widening of mediastinum on CXR

195
Q

Treatment for Aortic dissection

A

Surgery if weakness is ascending aorta, b-blockers may used in descending aorta

196
Q

Symptoms of Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?

A

ascites, V&D, raised haematocrit

197
Q

What drugs increase the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?

A

Gonadotrophin therapy

198
Q

What is the initial investigation in an achilles tendon rupture?

A

USS

199
Q

What virus causes Fifth disease?

A

Parvovirus B19

200
Q

What is another name for Fifth disease?

A

Slapped cheek syndrome

201
Q

Surgery to oesophageal sphincter in achalasia?

A

Heller cardiomyotomy

202
Q

What is the investigation of choice for intussusception?

A

Abdominal USS

203
Q

If b-blocker doesn’t control angina, what is the next management?

A

Calcium channel blocker

204
Q

What effect does hypocalcaemia have on the ECG?

A

QTc prolongation

205
Q

What is the commonest cause of sudden vision loss in diabetics?

A

Vitreous haemorrhage

206
Q

Which ethnic group are more prone to prostate cancer?

A

Afro-caribbeans

207
Q

What is De Mussets sign and what condition is it associated with?

A

Head bobbing, associated with aortic regurgitation

208
Q

What is the first line treatment in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

NSAIDs and exercise

209
Q

What nerve is responsible for finger adduction?

A

Ulnar nerve

210
Q

What is the treatment for HER positive breast cancer?

A

Herceptin - aka Trastuzumab

211
Q

Which biologic may be used in crohns and psoriasis?

A

Infliximab

212
Q

Which cancer are patients on Tamoxifen most at risk of?

A

Endometrial cancer

213
Q

What tumour is associated with myaesthenia gravis?

A

Thymomas

214
Q

What are common complications of radical prostatectomy?

A

Erectile dysfunction and incontinence

215
Q

What should you test for in a patient presenting with haemoptysis and haematuria?

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

216
Q

What cancer is associated with Barretts Oesophagus?

A

Adenocarcinoma

217
Q

Which cancer is associated with achalasia?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

218
Q

Symptoms of anterior uveitis?

A

Painful red eye, photophobia, blurred vision and hypopyon

219
Q

Most common cause of travellers diarhoea?

A

e.coli

220
Q

What is an important side-effect of amiodarone?

A

Thyroid dysfunction

221
Q

What is the first line treatment in acute pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs and colchicine

222
Q

What treatment is given for genital herpes?

A

oral aciclovir

223
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss?

A

idiopathic

224
Q

What is Libman-sacks endocarditis?

A

Non-bacterial endocarditis caused by antigen complexes being deposited in SLE

225
Q

What cancer is known to cause non-bacterial endocarditis?

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

226
Q

Which patients are most at risk for strep viridans endocarditis?

A

older patients with heart valve disease that have had dental treatment

227
Q

Which patients are most at risk of staph aureus endocarditis?

A

IVDU and post-operative patietns

228
Q

Which patients are most at risk of staph epidermidis endocarditis?

A

Those with a prosthetic valve

229
Q

Which patietns are most at risk of enterococcal endocarditis?

A

Patients with a catheter

230
Q

What is it important to look for in patients with a strep bovis endocarditis?

A

Colon cancer

231
Q

4 features of tetralogy of fallot

A

over-riding aorta; VSD R-> L shunt, Right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis

232
Q

Which congenital heart defect shows a boot shaped heart on CXR?

A

Transposition of the great vessels

233
Q

What are two common complications of radical prostatectomy?

A

Erectile dysfunction and incontinence

234
Q

If someone presents with haemoptysis and haematuria which condition should be in the differentials?

A

Goodpastures sydnrome

235
Q

Which cancer is associated with Barretts oesophagus?

A

Adenocarcinom

236
Q

Which cancer is associated with Achalasia?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

237
Q

What is the most common form of travellers diarhoea?

A

e.coli

238
Q

What medication should not be used in children under 3 months with suspected meningitis?

A

Steroids

239
Q

What is the treatment for acute pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs and Colchicine

240
Q

What treatment is given for genital herpes?

A

Oral aciclovir

241
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden-onset sensorineural deafness?

A

Idiopathic

242
Q

What are examples of large vessel vasculitides (3)?

A

GCA, Temporal arteritis and takayusu

243
Q

Which group does Takayusu arteritis affect?

A

Asian women under 40

244
Q

Where does Takayusu arterities affect?

A

The aortic arch leading to differences in pulses/BP between each arm

245
Q

Examples of medium vessel vasculitis?

A

Kawasaki disease and Beurger disease

246
Q

Features of Kawasaki disease

A

Children <4 years, japanese/Asian

247
Q

Pneumonic for Kawasaki disease?

A

CRASH and Burn - Conjunctival redness, rash, adenopathy, strawberry tongue, hand and foot changes and fever for >5 days

248
Q

Treatment for Kawasaki disease?

A

IV Ig and Aspirin

249
Q

Biggest risk factor for Beurger disease?

A

Smoking

250
Q

What group are most affected by Beurger disease?

A

Male, <40yrs, ashkenazi jew, israeli, Japanese and Indian

251
Q

What is another name for Beurger disease?

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans

252
Q

c-ANCA vasculitis

A

GPA/Wegners

253
Q

Which symptoms are found in Wegners vasculitis?

A

URTI/LRTI/Kidneys

Saddle nose, sinusitis, mastoiditis; haemoptysis, SOB, cavitating lung nodules; haematuria and RPGN with casts

254
Q

p-ANCA vasculitis

A

EPA

255
Q

Symptoms of EPA

A

Adult onset asthma, sinusitis, skin nodules, purpura, mononeuritis multiplex and eosinophilia

256
Q

What is the most common cause of nail fungus?

A

trichophytum rubrum

257
Q

How is c.diff diagnosed?

A

By the presence of c.diff stool toxin

258
Q

What antibiotic should human and animal bites be treated with?

A

co-amoxiclav

259
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Increase K, Creat, decreased PO4, Ca within 7 days of starting chemo

260
Q

Which cancer is H.pylori associated with?

A

MALT gastric cancer

261
Q

Firstline medication for depression and anxiety in breast feeding mothers?

A

Sertraline and Paroxetine

262
Q

When should LMWH be started after surgery?

A

6-12 hours

263
Q

When does diffuse axonal injury occur?

A

where the head is rapidly accelerated and deccelerated

264
Q

Which form of pain relief should not be given in c.diff infection?

A

Opioids as they are anti-motility agensts

265
Q

Which opiates are safe in severe renal impairment?

A

Fentanyl and buprenorphine

266
Q

What is the mechanism of action of bromocriptine?

A

Dopamine agonist

267
Q

What is the treatment of choice in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Bromocriptine

268
Q

What can be used in vWF disease patients prior to surgery?

A

Desmopressin - stimulates the release of extra von willebrand factor

269
Q

What is given as prophylaxis in migraines?

A

Propanolol and topiromate (propanolol preferred in non-asthmatics)

270
Q

What is used to induce a medical abortion?

A

Prostaglandins and mifeprestone

271
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Ondansetron?

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonist

272
Q

A whirlpool on a female abdominal USS is indicative of?

A

Ovarian torsion

273
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can be seen as a result of PPI use?

A

Hyponatraemia

274
Q

Anti-scl70 is the antibodies found in which condition?

A

Diffuse systemic sclerosis

275
Q

What renal condition can be causes by lithium use?

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

276
Q

What is akathisia?

A

A sense of inner restlessness and inability to keep still

277
Q

What is the treatment for tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Allopurinol

278
Q

What is a granuloma annulare?

A

A papular lesion with a depressed centre, slightly pigmented and found on dorsum of hands and feet

279
Q

Hypopigmented patches of skin with reduced sensation?

A

Leprosy

280
Q

What is a Marjolin’s ulcer?

A

A SCC in the context of chronic ulceration and inflammation - it will slowly continue to to grow despite treatment

281
Q

What is the mechanism of action of calcium gluconate in hyperkalaemia?

A

it protects the myocardium BUT does not reduce potassium

Finals Revision :O (7 decks)

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