Kenneth's Bullshit Flashcards
1
Q
MET is a what?
A
unit of oxygen consumption
3.5 mL/kg
2
Q
rhinorrhea and tearing eyes are true allergies (T/F)
A
true
3
Q
BP cuff should cover ___ of the arm
A
80%
4
Q
white coat syndrome increases BP by ___
A
30 mmHg
5
Q
an increase of ___ mmHg in pregnant patients notes eclampsia risk
A
> /= 10 mmHg
6
Q
hypertensive crisis = ___ systolic and ___ diastolic
A
> /= 180
120
7
Q
weight gain can be a sign of ___ and ___
A
HF
neoplasm
8
Q
whitening of fingernails notes ___
A
cirrhosis
9
Q
yellowing of fingernails notes ___
A
malignancy
10
Q
“aPTT is used for ___”
A
pradaxa
11
Q
ASA 1 with extreme fear
A
ASA 2
12
Q
controlled hypertensive NOT on Rx
A
ASA 2
13
Q
mild systemic disease = ASA ___
A
2
14
Q
has to stop during exercise = ASA
A
2
15
Q
has to stop walking = ASA
A
3
16
Q
controlled hypertensive ON Rx = ASA
A
3
17
Q
insulin = ASA
A
3
18
Q
MI, CVA, or CHF 30 days or more ago = ASA
A
3
19
Q
uncontrolled conditions, severe CHF, or COPD = ASA
A
4
20
Q
heart association class 3
A
marked limitation
21
Q
heart association class 4
A
symptoms @ rest
22
Q
complex restorations on >2 teeth = ___ risk
A
high
23
Q
implants = ___ risk
A
high
24
Q
full arch impressions = ___ risk
A
high
25
adult cuff size
27-34 cm
26
BP is an ___ measurement
indirect
27
arm too low or cuff too small = falsely ___ BP
elevated
28
lisinopril can cause ___ and ___ disturbances
agranulocytosis
taste
29
class 1 antiarrythmics can cause ___ ___, ___ ___, and ___ ___ syndrome
dry mouth
gingival overgrowth
hypersensitivity reaction
30
CCBs cause same things as class 1s except
taste disturbances
(dry mouth with class 1 instead)
31
diuretics cause what?
dry mouth
32
alpha blockers cause what?
dry mouth
33
beta blockers cause ___ ___ and ___
dry mouth
angioedema
34
single extraction, local alveo (couple teeth), or SRP =
___ ___ dental Tx
simple invasive
35
restorative or prophy = ___ ___ dental Tx
minimally invasive (non-invasive)
36
endo = ___ ___ dental Tx
complex invasive
37
odd CVD risk
depression
38
normal EF
55-70%
39
no p wave = mobitz ___
1
40
repetitive sudden blocks with out previous prolonged conduction time = mobitz ___
2
41
scalers and pacemakers = ___ interference
electromagnetic
42
systolic failure = HF___
HFrEF
43
diastolic failure = HF___
HFpEF
44
valvular fibrosis can cause stenosis or ___
insufficiency
45
HF and SOB can be BOTH signs and symptoms of ___ ___ ___
valvular heart disease
46
mechanical (silicone) valves require what Rx?
long term anticoag
47
bioprosthetic valves require what Rx?
short term anticoag
long term antiplatelet
48
common hepatic duct vs common bile duct
CHD only liver
CBD liver and gallbladder
49
bilirubin bound to glucose
conjugated
50
mental confusion is a ___ and ___ of liver disease
sign and symptom
51
___ is an indicator of overall health (blood test)
CBC
52
SMAC
sequential multiple analysis computer
53
SGOT = ___
AST
54
increased serum ___ bilirubin indicative of liver disease
conjugated
55
AST related to ___ ___ pathways
glutamic oxalate
56
ALT related to ___ pathway
pyruvate
57
what transaminase is needed for protein synthesis
GGT
58
___ is useful for detecting alcoholic and cholestatic liver damage
GGT
59
good marker for pancreatic, prostatic, and liver cancer
GGT
60
the ___ the AST/ALT ratio, the more specific it is
lower
61
what synthesizes albumin?
hepatocytes
62
what factor does the liver not produce?
VIII
63
PT measures what factors besides II, VII, X
I
V
64
HBV vaccination schedule
initial
1 mo
6 mo
65
what does cured HCV look like?
no detectable HCV RNA after 12 weeks of protease inhibitor therapy
66
what to do about needlestick
HBV Ig
67
oral manifestations of chronic HCV (2)
lichen planus
lymphocytic sialadenitis
68
2 Rx that cause liver disease
APAP
clindamycin
69
fatty liver is reversible (T/F)
true
70
cause of neutropenia
cirrhosis
71
early liver dysfunction vs late
induction
inhibition (toxicity)
72
albumin and globin levels are normal in ___ pattern
hepatitis
73
what tests do you order for suspected liver disease?
CBC
LFTs
bleeding studies
74
maximum acetaminophen for liver patient
2g
75
preferred opioid for liver patient
hydromorphone
(glucuronidation less affected)
76
preferred benzo for liver patient
lorazepam
77
is N2O safe for liver patient?
yes
78
cortisol stimulates ___
gluconeogenesis
79
cortisol inhibits ___
PLA2
80
cushing syndrome vs disease
exogenous vs tumor
81
cataracts and peptic ulcers can be caused by excess ___
cortisol
82
secondary adrenal issue = what organ
pituitary
83
tertiary adrenal issue = what organ
hypothalamus
84
MC caused by chronic exogenous steroid use
tertiary adrenal insufficiency
85
impaired ___ ___ may be a consequence of both hyperadrenalism and insufficiency
wound healing
86
calcitonin produced by the ___
thyroid
87
increased bone loss and caries = ___thyroidism
hyper
88
delayed eruption, burning mouth, lichen planus = ___thyroidism
hypo
89
___ and ___ increase T4
ASA
NSAIDs
90
___ decreases TH absorption
ciprofloxacin
91
increased M1:M2 ratio seen in ___
T1DM
92
normal fasting glucose
<100 mg/dl
93
T2DM fasting glucose
>/= 126 mg/dl
94
normal A1c
<5.7%
95
T2DM A1c
>/= 6.5%
96
biguanide =
metformin
97
-tide actions
increase insulin secretion
decrease glucagon secretion
98
HLD associated with what?
diabetes
99
do NOT give ___ or ___ with insulin
tetracyclines
fluoroquinolones
(causes hypoglycemia)
100
do NOT give ___ with sulfonureas
ASA (hypoglycemia)
101
___ sedation not recommended for diabetes
oral
102
pregnancy is ___ weeks
40 (12, 16, 12)
103
dental Tx can be safely performed in all trimesters (T/F)
true
104
preferred opioid for pregnancy
tylenol 3
105
N2O can cause what during pregnancy
spontaneous abortion (and decreased fertility)
106
safe annual effective dose for pregnant
107
MC oral condition during pregnancy
gingivitis
108
epulis gravidarum = ___ ___ during pregnancy
pyogenic granuloma
(vascular and fibrous proliferation)
109
MD is located in the DT and ___ ___
ascending limb (LOH)
110
odd ARF symptom
SOB
111
odd CKD risk factors (5)
smoking
obesity
low birthweight
infections
chronic inflammation
112
CKD criteria
GFR < 60 ml
albumin/creatinine >/= 30 mg/g
albumin excretion rate >/= 30 mg/day
113
ESRD GFR
< 15 ml
114
hyperuricemia vs uremia
uric acid
urea
115
CKD decreases ___ and HCO3 absorption
H+
116
absolute renal transplant contraindications (2)
AIDS
hepatitis
117
ABx prophylaxis required for dialysis patients when?
I+D
118
nystatin and CKD
no dose adjustments
119
opioid safe for CKD
tramadol
120
ABx that require dose adjustments for CKD (3)
amox
cephalexin
azithro
