Kenneth's Bullshit Flashcards

1
Q

MET is a what?

A

unit of oxygen consumption
3.5 mL/kg

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2
Q

rhinorrhea and tearing eyes are true allergies (T/F)

A

true

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3
Q

BP cuff should cover ___ of the arm

A

80%

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4
Q

white coat syndrome increases BP by ___

A

30 mmHg

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5
Q

an increase of ___ mmHg in pregnant patients notes eclampsia risk

A

> /= 10 mmHg

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6
Q

hypertensive crisis = ___ systolic and ___ diastolic

A

> /= 180
120

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7
Q

weight gain can be a sign of ___ and ___

A

HF
neoplasm

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8
Q

whitening of fingernails notes ___

A

cirrhosis

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9
Q

yellowing of fingernails notes ___

A

malignancy

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10
Q

“aPTT is used for ___”

A

pradaxa

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11
Q

ASA 1 with extreme fear

A

ASA 2

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12
Q

controlled hypertensive NOT on Rx

A

ASA 2

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13
Q

mild systemic disease = ASA ___

A

2

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14
Q

has to stop during exercise = ASA

A

2

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15
Q

has to stop walking = ASA

A

3

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16
Q

controlled hypertensive ON Rx = ASA

A

3

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17
Q

insulin = ASA

A

3

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18
Q

MI, CVA, or CHF 30 days or more ago = ASA

A

3

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19
Q

uncontrolled conditions, severe CHF, or COPD = ASA

A

4

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20
Q

heart association class 3

A

marked limitation

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21
Q

heart association class 4

A

symptoms @ rest

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22
Q

complex restorations on >2 teeth = ___ risk

A

high

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23
Q

implants = ___ risk

A

high

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24
Q

full arch impressions = ___ risk

A

high

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25
Q

adult cuff size

A

27-34 cm

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26
Q

BP is an ___ measurement

A

indirect

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27
Q

arm too low or cuff too small = falsely ___ BP

A

elevated

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28
Q

lisinopril can cause ___ and ___ disturbances

A

agranulocytosis
taste

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29
Q

class 1 antiarrythmics can cause ___ ___, ___ ___, and ___ ___ syndrome

A

dry mouth
gingival overgrowth
hypersensitivity reaction

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30
Q

CCBs cause same things as class 1s except

A

taste disturbances
(dry mouth with class 1 instead)

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31
Q

diuretics cause what?

A

dry mouth

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32
Q

alpha blockers cause what?

A

dry mouth

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33
Q

beta blockers cause ___ ___ and ___

A

dry mouth
angioedema

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34
Q

single extraction, local alveo (couple teeth), or SRP =
___ ___ dental Tx

A

simple invasive

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35
Q

restorative or prophy = ___ ___ dental Tx

A

minimally invasive (non-invasive)

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36
Q

endo = ___ ___ dental Tx

A

complex invasive

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37
Q

odd CVD risk

A

depression

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38
Q

normal EF

A

55-70%

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39
Q

no p wave = mobitz ___

A

1

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40
Q

repetitive sudden blocks with out previous prolonged conduction time = mobitz ___

A

2

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41
Q

scalers and pacemakers = ___ interference

A

electromagnetic

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42
Q

systolic failure = HF___

A

HFrEF

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43
Q

diastolic failure = HF___

A

HFpEF

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44
Q

valvular fibrosis can cause stenosis or ___

A

insufficiency

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45
Q

HF and SOB can be BOTH signs and symptoms of ___ ___ ___

A

valvular heart disease

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46
Q

mechanical (silicone) valves require what Rx?

A

long term anticoag

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47
Q

bioprosthetic valves require what Rx?

A

short term anticoag
long term antiplatelet

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48
Q

common hepatic duct vs common bile duct

A

CHD only liver
CBD liver and gallbladder

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49
Q

bilirubin bound to glucose

A

conjugated

50
Q

mental confusion is a ___ and ___ of liver disease

A

sign and symptom

51
Q

___ is an indicator of overall health (blood test)

A

CBC

52
Q

SMAC

A

sequential multiple analysis computer

53
Q

SGOT = ___

A

AST

54
Q

increased serum ___ bilirubin indicative of liver disease

A

conjugated

55
Q

AST related to ___ ___ pathways

A

glutamic oxalate

56
Q

ALT related to ___ pathway

A

pyruvate

57
Q

what transaminase is needed for protein synthesis

A

GGT

58
Q

___ is useful for detecting alcoholic and cholestatic liver damage

A

GGT

59
Q

good marker for pancreatic, prostatic, and liver cancer

A

GGT

60
Q

the ___ the AST/ALT ratio, the more specific it is

A

lower

61
Q

what synthesizes albumin?

A

hepatocytes

62
Q

what factor does the liver not produce?

A

VIII

63
Q

PT measures what factors besides II, VII, X

A

I
V

64
Q

HBV vaccination schedule

A

initial
1 mo
6 mo

65
Q

what does cured HCV look like?

A

no detectable HCV RNA after 12 weeks of protease inhibitor therapy

66
Q

what to do about needlestick

A

HBV Ig

67
Q

oral manifestations of chronic HCV (2)

A

lichen planus
lymphocytic sialadenitis

68
Q

2 Rx that cause liver disease

A

APAP
clindamycin

69
Q

fatty liver is reversible (T/F)

A

true

70
Q

cause of neutropenia

A

cirrhosis

71
Q

early liver dysfunction vs late

A

induction
inhibition (toxicity)

72
Q

albumin and globin levels are normal in ___ pattern

A

hepatitis

73
Q

what tests do you order for suspected liver disease?

A

CBC
LFTs
bleeding studies

74
Q

maximum acetaminophen for liver patient

A

2g

75
Q

preferred opioid for liver patient

A

hydromorphone
(glucuronidation less affected)

76
Q

preferred benzo for liver patient

A

lorazepam

77
Q

is N2O safe for liver patient?

A

yes

78
Q

cortisol stimulates ___

A

gluconeogenesis

79
Q

cortisol inhibits ___

A

PLA2

80
Q

cushing syndrome vs disease

A

exogenous vs tumor

81
Q

cataracts and peptic ulcers can be caused by excess ___

A

cortisol

82
Q

secondary adrenal issue = what organ

A

pituitary

83
Q

tertiary adrenal issue = what organ

A

hypothalamus

84
Q

MC caused by chronic exogenous steroid use

A

tertiary adrenal insufficiency

85
Q

impaired ___ ___ may be a consequence of both hyperadrenalism and insufficiency

A

wound healing

86
Q

calcitonin produced by the ___

A

thyroid

87
Q

increased bone loss and caries = ___thyroidism

A

hyper

88
Q

delayed eruption, burning mouth, lichen planus = ___thyroidism

A

hypo

89
Q

___ and ___ increase T4

A

ASA
NSAIDs

90
Q

___ decreases TH absorption

A

ciprofloxacin

91
Q

increased M1:M2 ratio seen in ___

A

T1DM

92
Q

normal fasting glucose

A

<100 mg/dl

93
Q

T2DM fasting glucose

A

> /= 126 mg/dl

94
Q

normal A1c

A

<5.7%

95
Q

T2DM A1c

A

> /= 6.5%

96
Q

biguanide =

A

metformin

97
Q

-tide actions

A

increase insulin secretion
decrease glucagon secretion

98
Q

HLD associated with what?

A

diabetes

99
Q

do NOT give ___ or ___ with insulin

A

tetracyclines
fluoroquinolones

(causes hypoglycemia)

100
Q

do NOT give ___ with sulfonureas

A

ASA (hypoglycemia)

101
Q

___ sedation not recommended for diabetes

A

oral

102
Q

pregnancy is ___ weeks

A

40 (12, 16, 12)

103
Q

dental Tx can be safely performed in all trimesters (T/F)

A

true

104
Q

preferred opioid for pregnancy

A

tylenol 3

105
Q

N2O can cause what during pregnancy

A

spontaneous abortion (and decreased fertility)

106
Q

safe annual effective dose for pregnant

A

</= 1 mSv/year

107
Q

MC oral condition during pregnancy

A

gingivitis

108
Q

epulis gravidarum = ___ ___ during pregnancy

A

pyogenic granuloma
(vascular and fibrous proliferation)

109
Q

MD is located in the DT and ___ ___

A

ascending limb (LOH)

110
Q

odd ARF symptom

A

SOB

111
Q

odd CKD risk factors (5)

A

smoking
obesity
low birthweight
infections
chronic inflammation

112
Q

CKD criteria

A

GFR < 60 ml
albumin/creatinine >/= 30 mg/g
albumin excretion rate >/= 30 mg/day

113
Q

ESRD GFR

A

< 15 ml

114
Q

hyperuricemia vs uremia

A

uric acid
urea

115
Q

CKD decreases ___ and HCO3 absorption

A

H+

116
Q

absolute renal transplant contraindications (2)

A

AIDS
hepatitis

117
Q

ABx prophylaxis required for dialysis patients when?

A

I+D

118
Q

nystatin and CKD

A

no dose adjustments

119
Q

opioid safe for CKD

A

tramadol

120
Q

ABx that require dose adjustments for CKD (3)

A

amox
cephalexin
azithro