Investigation and Adjudication Flashcards

1
Q

What is a suitability determination?

A) The withdrawal of a job offer or non-selection for a position
B) A reasonable expectation that the employment or continued employment of an individual would or would not be clearly consistent with the interests of National Security
C) Allows access to classified information
D) Determines suitability for federal employment

A

D) Correct, to be considered suitable for employment in the federal competitive service, individuals must display identifiable character traits and behaviors that indicate an individual is likely to carry out their duties with integrity, efficiency, and effectiveness

A) This a security eligibility determination
B) This describes a security eligibility determination
C) This describes a security eligibility determination

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2
Q

What are the 3 main types of adjudications?

A) National Security Adjudications
B) Suitability Adjudications
C) Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) 12 Adjudications
D) Classified Access Adjudications
E) Noncritical Sensitive Adjudications

A

A) National Security Adjudications
B) Suitability Adjudications
C) Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) 12 Adjudications

D) Incorrect, this is not a type of adjudication. An individual’s eligibility to view classified information is determined by their National Security Investigation and ultimately up to their need-to-know on a case by case basis.
E) This is not a type of adjudication. noncritical sensitive is one of the Personnel designation categories.

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3
Q

All individuals in public trust positions within the DoD must resubmit an updated SF86 every ________ years.

A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15

A

B) 5

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4
Q

What investigation tiers are used for suitability determinations?

A) Tier 1
B) Tier 2
C) Tier 3
D) Tier 4
E) Tier 5

A

A) Correct, T1 investigations are conducted for positions designated as low risk, nonsensitive, and for physical and logical access–that is, HSPD-12 credentialing. The investigative form is the Standard Form (SF)–85
B) Correct, T2 investigations are conducted for positions designated as nonsensitive, moderate risk public trust. The investigative form is the SF-85P
D) Correct, T4 investigations are conducted for positions designated as non sensitive high risk public trust. The investigative form is the SF-85P

C) Incorrect, T3 investigations are conducted for positions designated as noncritical sensitive and/or requiring Confidential, Secret, or “L” access eligibility. The investigative form is the Sf-86
E) Incorrect, T5 investigations are conducted for positions designated as critical-sensitive or special-sensitive and/or requiring “Q” access or access to Top Secret or Sensitive Compartmented Information

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5
Q

What investigations tiers are used for national security positions (access to classified information)

A) Tier 1
B) Tier 2
C) Tier 3
D) Tier 4
E) Tier 5

A

C) Correct, T3 investigations are conducted for positions designated as noncritical sensitive and/or requiring Confidential, Secret, or “L” access eligibility. The investigative form is the Sf-86
E) Correct, T5 investigations are conducted for positions designated as critical-sensitive or special-sensitive and/or requiring “Q” access or access to Top Secret or Sensitive Compartmented Information.

A) Incorrect, T1 investigations are conducted for positions designated as low risk, nonsensitive, and for physical and logical access–that is, HSPD-12 credentialing. The investigative form is the Standard Form (SF)–85
B) Incorrect, T2 investigations are conducted for positions designated as nonsensitive, moderate risk public trust. The investigative form is the SF-85P
D) Incorrect, T4 investigations are conducted for positions designated as non sensitive high risk public trust. The investigative form is the SF-85P

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6
Q

What are the standards of evidence in a suitability case?

A) The evidence must establish conduct
B) The government has burden of proof
C) All facts must be supported by a preponderance of evidence
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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7
Q

What document would you consult for regulations governing suitability investigations?

A) Title 5, CFR Part 731
B) EO 12968
C) DoD 5200.2-R
D) SEAD 4

A

B) Incorrect, this is the EO that establishes a uniform Personnel Security Program
C) Incorrect, this implements and maintains the DoD personnel security policies and procedures
D) Incorrect, this lays out the adjudicative guidelines for national security determinations

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8
Q

Which of the following are suitability actions?

A) Cancellation of eligibility, or reinstatement of eligibility
B) Debarment from employment
C) Withdrawal of job offer
D) Removal from position
E) Non-selection for position

A

A) Cancellation of eligibility, or reinstatement of eligibility
B) Debarment from employment
D) Removal from position

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9
Q

Who is the primary ISP for the DoD?

A) OPM
B) DoD CAS
C) FBI
D) DCSA

A

D) DCSA

A) Incorrect, the Office of Personnel Management serves as the chief human resources agency and personnel policy manager for the Federal Government
B) Incorrect, DoD CAS are the primary adjudicators for the DoD
C) Incorrect, the FBI does not conduct full investigations–only the initial fingerprint check.

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10
Q

Who adjudicates investigations for the DoD?

A) OPM
B) DoD CAS
C) FBI
D) DCSA

A

A) DoD CAS

A) Incorrect, the Office of Personnel Management serves as the chief human resources agency and personnel policy manager for the Federal Government
C) Incorrect, the FBI does not adjudicate
D) Incorrect, DCSA conducts investigations and sends the results to DoD CAS for adjudication

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11
Q

What is the role of the MSPB when it comes to appeals to suitability actions?

A) To initiate new investigations that will serves as the basis for a new determination
B) To un-withdraw a job offer that was originally withdrawn based on general incompetence
C) Negotiate and resolve disputes, unfair labor practice complaints, and exceptions to arbitration awards
D) To decide whether the original suitability determination is sustainable

A

D) To decide whether the original suitability determination is sustainable

A) Incorrect, appeals to suitability actions are predicated off the original investigation and any mitigating circumstances the subject can provide–not a new investigation entirely.
B) If an individual has objections to non-selection that was not based on their eligibility determination, the appeals process is covered under 5 CFR 322 and is not appealable to the Merit Systems Protection Board.
C) Incorrect, that is the responsibility of the Federal Labor Relations Authority

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12
Q

When the federal government collects personal information from an individual, it is required that the individual be informed of which of the following?

A) Cancellation of eligibility, or reinstatement of eligibility
B) Debarment from employment
C) Withdrawal of job offer
D) Removal from position
E) Non-selection for position

A

A) Under what authority the government agent is collecting the information
B) The purpose for collecting the information
C) The routine uses of the information
D) Whether providing this information is voluntary or mandatory

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13
Q

What is a Personnel Security Investigation used to determine?

A) Access to classified information
B) Acceptance or retention to the armed forces
C) Assignment or retention to sensitive duties
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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14
Q

True/False: The CAS is the only authority who can grant an interim clearance

A

False: the Vetting Risk Operations (VRO) handles all interim eligibility.

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15
Q

What are the requirements for an interim Secret eligibility determination?

A) Favorably reviewed SF-86
B) Verified US Citizenship
C) Favorable completion and review FBI fingerprint check
D) National Crime Information Center (NCIC) check
E) Polygraph test
F) The ISP must have opened the proper investigation

A

A) Favorably reviewed SF-86
B) Verified US Citizenship
C) Favorable completion and review FBI fingerprint check
F) The ISP must have opened the proper investigation

D) Incorrect, this is only a requirement for a Top Secret Interim
E) Incorrect, this is not a requirement for an interim clearance

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16
Q

What are the responsibilities of the DoD CAS

A) Serves as the primary ISP for the DoD
B) Makes adjudicative decisions for the DoD
C) Serves as a repository for investigative records
D) Requests additional information where there is evidence that someone may no longer be eligible for a clearance
E) Serves as the chief human resources agency and personnel policy manager for the Federal Government

A

B) Makes adjudicative decisions for the DoD
C) Serves as a repository for investigative records
D) Requests additional information where there is evidence that someone may no longer be eligible for a clearance

A) Incorrect, this is the responsibility of DCSA
E) Incorrect, this is the responsibility of the OPM

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17
Q

What are the position designations, authorizations, and/or security eligibilities that can only be obtained by a Tier 5 investigation (formerly SSBI)?

A) Noncritical Sensitive
B) Special-Sensitive Positions
C) Critical-Sensitive Positions
D) LAA
E) Non-Sensitive Positions
F) Top Secret clearance eligibility
G) IT-I duties

A

B) Special-Sensitive Positions
C) Critical-Sensitive Positions
D) LAA
F) Top Secret clearance eligibility
G) IT-I duties

A) False, noncritical sensitive positions are covered by a Tier 3 investigation
E) Incorrect, non-sensitive positions are covered by Tier 1 investigations

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18
Q

What are the position designations, authorizations, and/or security eligibilities that require only a Tier 3 investigation?

A) IT-III duties
B) IT-II duties
C) Non-sensitive
D) Noncritical-Sensitive Positions
E) Secret clearance eligibility
F) Confidential clearance eligibility
G) Low-Risk
H) Military accessions or appointments

A

A) IT-III duties
B) IT-II duties
D) Noncritical-Sensitive Positions
E) Secret clearance eligibility
F) Confidential clearance eligibility
H) Military accessions or appointments

C) Non-Sensitive
G) Low-Risk

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19
Q

What are the position designations, authorizations, and/or security eligibilities that require only a Tier 1 investigation?

A) Confidential clearance eligibility
B) Non-Sensitive High Risk
C) Non-Sensitive Low Risk positions
D) Noncritical-Sensitive
E) HSPD-12 Credentialing

A

C) Non-Sensitive Low Risk positions
E) HSPD-12 Credentialing

A) Incorrect, no security eligibility can be determined by only a Tier 1 investigation.
B) Incorrect, an individual requires a Tier 4 investigation for a high-risk position
D) Incorrect, a Tier 3 is required for Noncritical-Sensitive

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20
Q

What is a SAC?

A) Special Agreement Check, the fingerprint portion of the Personnel Security Investigation
B) The investigation that was replaced by Tier 3
C) The investigation required for HSPD-12 Credentialing
D) None of the above

A

A) Special Agreement Check, the fingerprint portion of the Personnel Security Investigation

B) Incorrect, this is the NACLC
C) Incorrect, this is the Tier 1 investigation
D) Incorrect, the answer is A

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21
Q

What is not a suitability action?

A) Cancellation of eligibility, or reinstatement of eligibility
B) Debarment from employment
C) Withdrawal of job offer
D) Removal from position
E) Non-selection for position

A

C) Withdrawal of job offer
E) Non-selection for position

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22
Q

What is the purpose of due process in the Personnel Security Program?

A) Gives subjects a chance to appeal criminal charges in court and expunge their records
B) Gives subjects a chance to appeal position terminations on the basis of their protected class
C) Ensures fairness by providing the subject the opportunity to appeal an unfavorable adjudicative determination
D) None of the above

A

C) Ensures fairness by providing the subject the opportunity to appeal an unfavorable adjudicative determination

A) Incorrect, the PSP is not affiliated with the Department of Justice or the US court system
B) Gives subjects a chance to appeal position terminations on the basis of their protected class
D) Incorrect, C is the correct answer

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23
Q

Put the key procedures for initiating Personnel Security Investigations in the correct order:

A) Submit electronically to OPM
B) Subject completes an SF86 or SF85
C) Validate the need for investigation
D) Initiate eApp
E) Conduct a Special Agreement Check

A
  1. C) Validate the need for an investigation
  2. E) Conduct a Special Agreement Check
  3. D) Initiate eAPP
  4. B) Subject complete an SF86 or SF85
  5. A) Submit electronically to OPM
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24
Q

What is the investigative requirement for the DoD position sensitivity type: Critical-Sensitive?

A) Tier 1
B) Tier 2
C) Tier 3
D) Tier 4
E) Tier 5

A

E) Tier 5

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25
Q

What is the investigative requirement for the DoD position sensitivity type: Noncritical-Sensitive?

A) Tier 1
B) Tier 2
C) Tier 3
D) Tier 4
E) Tier 5

A

C) Tier 3

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26
Q

What is the investigative requirement for the DoD position sensitivity type: Nonsensitive?

A) Tier 1
B) Tier 2
C) Tier 3
D) Tier 4
E) Tier 5

A

A) Tier 1

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27
Q

What does revocation mean in the context of security eligibility determinations?

A) Debarment
B) Removal from position
C) The term when current security clearance eligibility determination is rescinded
D) The term when an initial request for security clearance eligibility is not granted

A

C) The term when current security clearance eligibility determination is rescinded

A) False, this is a suitability determination
B) False, while this can be a result of revocation, it is not the definition
D) False, this is denial

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28
Q

What does denied mean in the context of security eligibility determinations?

A) Debarment
B) Removal from position
C) The term when current security clearance eligibility determination is rescinded
D) The term when an initial request for security clearance eligibility is not granted

A

D) The term when an initial request for security clearance eligibility is not granted

A) False, this is a suitability determination
B) False, while this can be a result of denial, it is not the definition
C) False, this is a revocation

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29
Q

What is an SOR?

A) Statement of Reasons–A comprehensive and detailed written explanation of why a preliminary unfavorable adjudication determination was made
B) Statement of Requirements–The justification needed to initiate an investigation
C) Statement of Reasons–A written appeal of an unfavorable determination, written by a subject, explaining extenuating or mitigating circumstances that may change initial determination results
D) None of the above

A

A) Statement of Reasons–A comprehensive and detailed written explanation of why a preliminary unfavorable adjudication determination was made

B) Incorrect, an SOR is a comprehensive and detailed written explanation of why a preliminary unfavorable adjudication determination was made
C) Incorrect, an SOR is a comprehensive and detailed written explanation of why a preliminary unfavorable adjudication determination was made
D) Incorrect, the answer is A

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30
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adjudicative guideline?

A) Allegiance to the United States
B) Foreign Influence
C) Foreign Preference
D) Foreign Finances
E) All of the above are adjudicative guidelines

A

D) Foreign Finances–These guidelines deal with loyalty to the United States. While having business or other financial ties in a foreign country may contribute to concerns about an individual’s loyalty, it is not its own adjudicative guideline

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adjudicative guideline?

A) Sexual Behavior
B) Personal Conduct
C) Unreliable Conduct
D) Financial Considerations
E) All of the above are adjudicative guidelines

A

C) Unreliable Conduct: Correct. Adjudicative Guidelines D, E, and F address concerns about an individual’s reliability, but “unreliable conduct” is not its own adjudicative guideline

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32
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adjudicative guideline?

A) Alcohol Consumption
B) Drug Involvement and Substance Misuse
C) Psychological Conditions
D) Treatment History
E) All of the above are adjudicative guidelines

A

D) Treatment History: Correct, the guidelines in this question deal with medical issues that might influence an individual’s ability to protect classified information. Treatment history for any of these conditions will be taken into account during adjudication, but is not an adjudicative guideline itself.

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33
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adjudicative guideline?

A) Criminal Conduct
B) Handling Protected Information
C) Outside Activities
D) Use of Information Technology
E) All of the above are adjudicative guidelines

A

E) All of the above are adjudicative guidelines–Correct. All of these are adjudicative guidelines that cover illegal and other noncompliant behavior.

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34
Q

What is the first phase of the security clearance process?

A) Position Designation
B) Pre-Investigation
C) Investigation
D) Adjudication

A

C) Investigation, the security clearance process is initiated via an investigation according to the FIS

A) Incorrect, Position Designation begins the suitability process
B) Incorrect, Pre-Investigation is a component of the suitability process
D) Incorrect, for both national security and suitability, an investigation is required for adjudication

35
Q

What are the standards the DoD uses for the uniform collection of relevant and important background information about an individual.

A) PSI
B) HSPD-12
C) FIS
D) None of the above

A

C) Correct, FIS is a 5-tiered investigation standard

A) Incorrect, PSI (Personnel Security Investigation) was the name for investigative standards that have since been replaced by the 5-tiered FIS
B) Incorrect, HSPD-12 is a type of investigation used for CAC Credentialing
D) Incorrect, the DoD uses FIS for the uniform collection of relevant and important background information about an individual

36
Q

Tier 3 and Tier 5 investigations are used to determine the eligibility of an individual for ________ to classified information.

A) Acceptance
B) Access
C) Assignment

A

B) Access

37
Q

Tier 3 and Tier 5 investigations are used to determine the eligibility of an individual for ________ or retention to the armed forces.

A) Acceptance
B) Access
C) Assignment

A

A) Acceptance

38
Q

Tier 3 and Tier 5 investigations are used to determine the eligibility of an individual for ________ or retention to the armed forces.

A) Acceptance
B) Access
C) Assignment

A

C) Assignment

39
Q

What is the DoD CAS responsible for?

A) Keeping a repository of investigative records
B) Initiating special investigations
C) Making adjudicative decisions according to the whole person concept
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

40
Q

What is used to monitor employees for new information or changes that could affect their suitability or security status?

A) SEAD 4
B) Continuous Evaluation
C) Administratiive Action
D) Continuous Vetting

A

D) Continuous Vetting

A) Incorrect, SEAD 4 covers adjudicative guidelines which may come into play if CV notices reportable information
B) Incorrect, CE is the outdated term that has been replaced by CV as the standards and procedures have been codified into law
C) Incorrect, adminsitrative action may be taken if CV notices reportable information that calls into question a covered individual’s reliability, trustworthiness, or loyalty

41
Q

What is a Form Update?

A) Part of the Continuous Evaluation Program (CEP) done at 5 or 10 year intervals based on duties or access
B) A requirement of individuals to re-enroll every 5 years by submitting an SF-86 through eAPP
C) Immediate self-reporting according to SEAD 3 requirements
D) Submitting a new SF 312 every 5 years to maintain clearance access

A

B) A requirement of individuals to re-enroll every 5 years by submitting an SF-86 through eAPP

A) Incorrect, this is a periodic reinvestigation. It has been replaced by Form Updates at 5-year intervals.
C) Incorrect, although the success of CV relies heavily on a culture of self-reporting in accordance with SEAD 3, a Form Update is a routine process that covers more than just reportable information.
D) Incorrect. SF 312s are one of the requirements for accessing classified information and are submitted on an as-needed basis.

42
Q

Which Security Executive Agent Directive defines the adjudicative guidelines?

A) SEAD 1
B) SEAD 3
C) SEAD 4
D) SEAD 5

A

C) SEAD 4

A) Incorrect, SEAD 1 consolidates and summarizes the authorities and responsibilities assigned to the DNI a
B) Incorrect, SEAD 3 covers the continuing security obligation of covered persons
D) Incorrect, SEAD 5 addresses the collection and use of publicly available social media information during the conduct of personnel security background investigations and adjudications

43
Q

What is scope in the context of adjudications only

A) The amount of time an individual’s CV enrollment is valid for until a form update needs to be submitted
B) Taking all available, reliable information about the person, past and present, favorable and unfavorable, into consideration when reaching national security determination.
C) The minimum timeframe and element requirements that adjudicators must ensure the investigation covered before reviewing it
D) Both A and C

A

C) The minimum timeframe and element requirements that adjudicators must ensure the investigation covered before reviewing it

A) Incorrect. While PERSEC professionals often refer to a CV or investigation enrollment date greater than 5 years as “out of scope”, this is not the definition in the context of adjudications
B) Incorrect, this is the whole person concept
D) Incorrect. While PERSEC professionals often refer to a CV or investigation enrollment date greater than 5 years as “out of scope”, this is not the definition in the context of adjudications. Only c is correct

44
Q

During due process, military and civilian personnel may request an in-person appearance before this body

A) The MSPB
B) DoD CAS
C) Their Security Manager
D) Criminal Court Judge

A

A) The MSPB

B) Incorrect, DoD CAS will adjudicate a decision but does not hear appeals
C) Incorrect, an individual’s security manager may help put together an appeals packet but has no authority over the adjudication or final decision
D) Incorrect, although criminal charges that result in an appearance before a judge will result in a re-adjudication of one’s security or suitability adjudication, a criminal court is not the venue to appeal that decision.

45
Q

What body administers due process for contractor personnel?

A) The MSPB
B) DoD CAS
C) OPM
D) DOHA

A

D) DOHA

A) Incorrect, the MSPB serves military and non-contractor civilians
B) Incorrect, DoD CAS will adjudicate a decision but does not hear appeals
C) Incorrect, OPM does not adjudicate

46
Q

T/F: Adjudication refers to the DoD standard procedures for collecting information about an individual’s background, activities, and personal behavior for the purpose of making a personnel security determination.

A

False: this is an investigation

47
Q

T/F: A determination of an individual’s trustworthiness for a position that does not require access to classified information is an example of an adjudicative decision.

A

True: Individuals are adjudicated for both suitability and sensitivity eligibilities

48
Q

T/F: The adjudication process involves an examination of a sufficient period of a person’s life to make an affirmative determination that the person is an acceptable risk

A

True

49
Q

T/F: The adjudicative process uses the whole person concept as a guide for determining the categories of information that must be collected and evaluated against adjudication criteria

A

True

50
Q

T/F: A determination of special access eligibility for employees whose duties is an example of an adjudication decision.

A

True: Individuals are adjudicated for both suitability and sensitivity eligibilities

51
Q

T/F: DoD CAS can only make adjudication decisions related to granting security clearance

A

False: DoD CAS also makes suitability determinations

52
Q

T/F: Adjudication decisions balance interests of national security against the interests of the individual

A

True

53
Q

T/F: When an individual’s loyalty, trustworthiness, or reliability is in doubt, the adjudication decision is always made in favor of national security.

A

True

54
Q

T/F: A CAS’s responsibility includes making eligibility determinations

A

True

55
Q

T/F: A CAS serves as a repository of personnel security investigative records

A

True

56
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing factors that adjudicators consider when evaluating the relevance of an individual’s conduct or behavior

A) The soldier says that the adjudicators consider factors such as nature, extent, or seriousness of a person’s conduct or behavior

B) The sailor says that adjudicators consider factors such as the individuals age and maturity at the time of the conduct or behavior

Who is correct?

A

Both Are Correct

57
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing the adjudicative guidelines

A) The soldier says that they provide guidance on how to evaluate information gathered on an individual against the 13 primary areas of security concerns

B) The sailor says that each guideline lists and describes the guideline’s basis or concern, disqualifying conditions, and mitigating factors

Who is correct?

A

Both are correct

58
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing factors that adjudicators consider when evaluating the relevance of an individual’s conduct or behavior

A) The soldier says that adjudicators consider factors such as the frequency and recency of the conduct

B) The sailor says that adjudicators consider factors such as potential for pressure, coercion, exploitation, or duress

Who is correct?

A

Both are correct

59
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing the adjudicative guidelines

A) The soldier says that mitigating conditions - situations that reduce the severity of the disqualifying conditions always outweigh the disqualifying conditions in a case.

B) The sailor says that existence of disqualifying conditions automatically results in a denial or revocation of access eligibility

Who is correct?

A

Both are incorrect

60
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing eligibility determinations

A) The soldier says that adjudicators make a final determination of eligibility based on the application of the adjudication guidelines

B) The sailor says that the final determination remains the responsibility of the specific department or agency

Who is correct?

A

The soldier is correct

61
Q

T/F: The T5 Investigation is the approved federal investigation standard for non-critical sensitive civilian positions

A

False: This would be a T3

62
Q

T/F: The Tier 3 investigation is the approved federal investigation for critical sensitive positions

A

False: This would be Tier 5

63
Q

T/F: Civilian position sensitivity designations vary based on the investigative requirements applicable to the position

A

False: Reverse it–the investigative requirements are based on the position sensitivity designation

64
Q

T/F: The T5 and T3 investigations are the only two federal investigation standard for non-sensitive positions requiring Top Secret clearance eligibility

A

False, Top Secret clearance eligibility requires a T5.

65
Q

T/F: The T5 is the federal investigative standard for non-sensitive positions requiring Top Secret clearance eligibility

A

False: A position requiring a TS will have a special-critical sensitive designation

66
Q

T/F: The T3 investigation is the federal investigation standard for special sensitive positions

A

False: A special sensitive position will require a T5

67
Q

T/F: The T5 is the federal investigative standard approved for initial issuance of the Secret clearance eligibility

A

False: Secret only requires a T3

68
Q

T/F: The T3 is the federal investigative standard approved for the initial issuance of clearance eligibility for noncritical-sensitive positions

A

True

69
Q

T/F: A security clearance represents a favorable determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified information

A

True

70
Q

T/F: A security clearance guarantees that any individual will be granted access to classified information

A

False, an individual requires a need-to-know and must sign an SF-312 to be granted access to classified information in addition to their favorable adjudication.

71
Q

T/F: Any individual with an official need to know to conduct assigned duties will be granted a security clearance

A

False: An individual must have a favorable adjudicated investigation of the appropriate level for the information in question, and they must be a US citizen to qualify for a security clearance.

72
Q

T/F: Individuals whose background investigation and adjudication is in process may be granted an interim security clearance by the local command

A

True

73
Q

T/F: All employees are eligible for an interim security clearance

A

False: Interim eligibility is only authorized for employees who need to begin working on sensitive or classified projects while awaiting final determination for a national security eligibility by the adjudication facility.

74
Q

T/F: Requesting a Personnel Security Investigation is a security officer responsibility under the DoD Personnel Security Program

A

True

75
Q

T/F: Only an investigative agency can initiate an investigation request.

A

False–any agency with sensitivity designations can request an appropriate investigation for their employees

76
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing the DoD Personnel Security Program (PSP)

A) The soldier says that the DoD PSP employs a comprehensive background investigative process to establish whether an individual needs access to classified information.

B) The sailor says that the DoD PSP employs a comprehensive background investigation process to establish whether an individual has a need to know.

C) Who is correct?

A

Both are incorrect.

77
Q

This element involves an evaluation of information contained in PSI reports and results in a judgment concerning an individual’s security clearance eligibility.

A) Designation
B) Pre-Investigation
C) Investigation
D) Adjudication
E) Continuous Evaluation

A

D) Adjudication

78
Q

This element involves monitoring employees for new information that could affect their security clearance eligibility status

A) Designation
B) Pre-Investigation
C) Investigation
D) Adjudication
E) Continuous Evaluation

A

E) Continuous Evaluation

79
Q

This element results in a report that contains background information about the person selected for sensitive duty

A) Designation
B) Pre-Investigation
C) Investigation
D) Adjudication
E) Continuous Evaluation

A

C) Investigation

80
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing FIS

A) The soldier says that an FIS is an inquiry conducted for the purpose of making a personnel security determination

B) The sailor says that the DoD uses FISs as the standard for the uniform collection of relevant and important information about an individual, such as honesty, reliability, character, and trustworthiness

Who is correct?

A

Both are correct.

81
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing FIS

A) The soldier says that military, civilian, and contractor personnel affiliated with the DoD are all subject to the FIS as the basis for security determinations

B) The sailor says that the investigative agency that conducts background investigations is OPM

Who is correct?

A

The soldier is correct. DCSA conducts DoD investigations

82
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing FIS

A) The soldier says that, during an initial investigation, DCSA moves through each tier subsequently and that they are the steps to securing an eligibility determination

B) The sailor says that the type of investigation is based on the sensitivity of the position for which an individual is being considered

Who is correct?

A

The sailor is correct

83
Q

A soldier and a sailor are discussing FIS

A) The soldier says that, during an initial investigation, DCSA moves through each tier subsequently and that they are the steps to securing an eligibility determination

B) The sailor says that the type of investigation is based on the sensitivity of the position for which an individual is being considered

Who is correct?

A