Introduction to Networking&7-Layer OSI Network Model

Question 1

Computer network

Answer 1

two or more connected computers that can communicate with each other (send and receive)

Question 2

how is the internet like a postal mail system

Answer 2

there is a sender and receiver

Question 3

components in a network

Answer 3

client and server computers
network interface cards
connection medium
network operating system
router, switch, modem, access point

Question 4

client computer

Answer 4

client is a program or computer that makes requests to a server

Question 5

server computer

Answer 5

program that fulfills the requests made by the client

Question 6

network interface card

Answer 6

allows computers to communicate with other devices on a network

Question 7

connection medium

Answer 7

physical means through which data is transferred from one device to another

Question 8

network operating system

Answer 8

computer operating system meant for network devices like routers or firewalls

Question 9

router

Answer 9

connects two or more packet switched networks or subnetworks

Question 10

modem

Answer 10

converts data from digital format (computer only reads digital signals) into a format suitable for an analog (internet signals) transmission medium such as telephone or radio

Question 11

switch

Answer 11

a device in a computer network that connects other devices together

Question 12

access point

Answer 12

device that bridges wired and wireless networks

Question 13

topology

Answer 13

how parts of a whole work together

Question 14

logical topology

Answer 14

software; how access to network is controlled

Question 15

Network operating system

Answer 15

controls access to the entire network

Question 16

NOS is required by

Answer 16

client server models

Question 17

Peer to Peer network model

Answer 17

the operating system of each computer on the network is responsible for controlling access to its own resources

Question 18

peer to peer networks have no

Answer 18

centralized server

Question 19

advantages of a peer to peer network model

Answer 19

simple configuration
less expensive

Question 20

disadvantages of a peer to peer network model

Answer 20

not scalable
not really secure
not practical for large installations

Question 21

client server network model

Answer 21

resources are managed by the Network Operating System through a centralized directory database

Question 22

windows domain

Answer 22

a logical group of computers that a windows server can control

Question 23

active directory

Answer 23

centralized directory database that contains user account information and security for the entire group of computers

Question 24

what can a user do in a client server network model

Answer 24

they can sign on the network from any computer on the network and gain access to the resources that AD allows

Question 25

in a client server network model, client resources are

Answer 25

not shared directly with each other

Question 26

how is the internet a client server network

Answer 26

it consists of a request respond cycle between client and server

Question 26

how is access controlled in a centralized domain database

Answer 26

through entries

Question 27

NOS is responsible for

Answer 27

Manages client data, resources
Ensures authorized user access
Controls user file access
Restricts user network access
Dictates computer communication rules
Supplies application to clients

Question 28

what is required for an NOS

Answer 28

more memory, processing, and storage capacity
special hardware

Question 29

advantages of client server network models when compared to peer to peer networks

Answer 29

User credential assigned from one central place
Multiple shared resource access centrally controlled
Central problem monitoring, diagnostics, and correction capabilities
More scalable

Question 30

network services

Answer 30

the resources a network makes accessible to its users

Question 31

in client server applications

Answer 31

a client computer requests data or a service from the server computer

Question 32

protocols

Answer 32

rules for communication between networked devices

Question 33

two primary protocols

Answer 33

TCP and IP

Question 34

Local area network LAN

Answer 34

Usually held in a small space

Question 35

switch

Answer 35

Receives data from one of its ports and redirects it to another port

Question 36

hub

Answer 36

dumb switch

Question 37

star topology

Answer 37

all devices connect to a central device

Question 38

network interface card (NIC)

Answer 38

attaches a device to a network

Question 39

Router

Answer 39

Finds the best path for traffic to get from one network to another

Question 40

router vs switch

Answer 40

Router connects networks and belongs to two or more local networks while a switch only belongs to its local network

Question 41

application layer

Answer 41

describes the border between two applications on separate computers

Question 42

two categories of application layer programs

Answer 42

1. provide service to user (browser or web server)
2. utility programs - provide services to the system

Question 43

payload

Answer 43

data spread between applications and the OS

Question 44

presentation layer

Answer 44

Responsible for squeezing, reformatting, and or encrypting data for the receiving application

Question 45

session layer

Answer 45

how data between applications is blended and recovered if messages don’t arrive complete at the receiving application

Question 46

transport layer

Answer 46

transports payloads between applications

Question 47

Two main transport layer protocols

Answer 47

TCP and UDP

Question 48

TCP or connection oriented protocol

Answer 48

checks whether data was received

Question 49

UDP or connectionless protocol

Answer 49

first connects and then checks if data was received

Question 50

protocols add their own

Answer 50

control information

Question 51

where do protocols add their own control information

Answer 51

in the header

Question 52

header

Answer 52

beginning of the payload

Question 53

encapsulation

Answer 53

adds a header to the data inherited from the layer above

Question 54

network layer

Answer 54

moves messages from one node to another until they reach their destination

Question 55

IP’s network layer message

Answer 55

packet

Question 56

IP address is assigned to each

Answer 56

node on a network

Question 57

network layer uses the IP address to

Answer 57

identify each host

Question 58

IP relies on

Answer 58

several routing protocols

Question 59

why does IP rely on several routing protocols

Answer 59

to find the best route for a packet to take to reach its destination

Question 60

fragmentation is when network layer protocol will divide

Answer 60

large packets into smaller packets

Question 61

which layers are responsible for connecting with hardware on the local network

Answer 61

2 and 1

Question 62

protocols at layers 1 and 2 are programmed into the

Answer 62

firmware of a computer’s NIC and other hardware

Question 63

what determines the link layer protocol

Answer 63

types of networking hardware or technology used

Question 64

the link layer will put the control information in a

Answer 64

link layer header and at the end of the packet in a trailer

Question 65

entire link is called a

Answer 65

frame

Question 66

MAC

Answer 66

hardware address of the source and destination of NICs

Question 67

physical layer

Answer 67

responsible for sending bits

Question 68

two categories of information security workforce

Answer 68

managerial personnel and technical personnel

Question 69

managerial personnel

Answer 69

administer plans, policies, and people

Question 70

technical personnel

Answer 70

design, configure, install, and maintain security equipment

Question 71

According to the text, how is security sometimes defined

Answer 71

Being free from danger

Question 72

What is the main focus of security efforts, as per the text?

A) Achieving a specific goal
B) Ensuring continuous protection
C) Eliminating all risks
D) Minimizing costs

Answer 72

B - Ensuring continuous protection

Question 73

How does the text suggest security should be viewed?
A) As an occasional concern
B) As a one-time effort
C) As a continuous process
D) As an unattainable goal

Answer 73

C - As a continuous process

Question 74

How is the relationship between security and convenience described?

A) Directly proportional
B) Inversely proportional
C) Unrelated
D) Random

Answer 74

B - Inversely proportional

Question 75

Why is the automated alarm system considered more secure but less convenient?

A) It requires more maintenance
B) It slows down entry into the house
C) It needs frequent battery changes
D) It alerts neighbors

Answer 75

B - It slows down entry into the house

Question 76

According to the text, what does information security encompass?

A) Only protecting personal computers
B) Only securing storage devices
C) Only transmitting data over the Internet
D) Securing digital information in various forms

Answer 76

D - Securing digital information in various forms

Question 77

Which term is used to describe securing digital information across different IT environments?

A) Computer security
B) IT security
C) Cybersecurity
D) Information assurance

Answer 77

D - Information assurance

Question 78

According to the text, what can information security not guarantee?

A) Complete prevention of all attacks
B) Total security of all systems
C) Absolute safety from all threats
D) Continuous monitoring of all networks

Answer 78

A - Complete prevention of all attacks

Question 79

What is the main focus of information security efforts, despite its limitations?

Answer 79

D - Mitigating risks and minimizing harm

Question 80

What is an important aspect of information security efforts, according to the text?

Answer 80

B) Adapting to new threats

Question 81

What is the primary goal of information security, according to the text?

A) Preventing all attacks
B) Achieving total system collapse
C) Recovering from attacks quickly
D) ensuring protective measures

Answer 81

D) ensuring protective measures

Question 82

According to the text, what does information security aim to prevent when an attack occurs?

A) Total recovery of the system
B) Collapse of protective measures
C) Total collapse of the system
D) Warding off attacks completely

Answer 82

C - Total collapse of the system

Question 83

What is described as the first priority of information security efforts?
A) Recovering from attacks
B) Implementing protective measures
C) Preventing all attacks
D) Achieving total system collapse

Answer 83

B - Implementing protective measures

Question 84

What does information security strive to ensure happens quickly after an attack?
A) Complete prevention
B) Total system recovery
C) Immediate collapse
D) Continuous monitoring

Answer 84

B - Total system recovery

Question 85

What is the main purpose of information security, according to the text?

A) Preventing all cyberattacks
B) Protecting valuable information
C) Ensuring complete safety
D) Recovering quickly from attacks

Answer 85

B - Protecting valuable information

Question 86

Why is confidentiality important for protecting sensitive information?

A) It ensures data accuracy
B) It prevents all cyberattacks
C) It keeps information secure from unauthorized access
D) It guarantees information availability

Answer 86

C - It keeps information secure from unauthorized access

Question 87

What does confidentiality aim to achieve for sensitive information?
A) Making it accessible to unauthorized entities
B) Keeping it secure and unavailable to unapproved individuals
C) Sharing it with all customers
D) Storing it in public databases

Answer 87

B - Keeping it secure and unavailable to unapproved individuals

Question 88

What does confidentiality ensure in information security?

A) Complete prevention of cyberattacks
B) Only authorized parties can view information
C) Availability of all data at all times
D) Unlimited access to sensitive information

Answer 88

B - Only authorized parties can view information

Question 89

What is the primary goal of integrity in information security?

A) Keeping information confidential
B) Ensuring information is correct and unaltered
C) Preventing all cyberattacks
D) Providing unlimited access to data

Answer 89

B - Ensuring information is correct and unaltered

Question 90

Why is integrity important in information security?
A) It allows unrestricted access to data
B) It prevents all cyberattacks
C) It ensures data accuracy and reliability
D) It guarantees data confidentiality

Answer 90

C - It ensures data accuracy and reliability

Question 91

What is the primary goal of availability in information security?

A) Making information publicly accessible
B) Ensuring authorized parties can access information
C) Encrypting all data
D) Preventing all cyberattacks

Answer 91

B - Ensuring authorized parties can access information

Question 92

According to the text, what does availability ensure about information?

A) It is always confidential
B) It is accessible to authorized parties
C) It is encrypted for security
D) It is publicly shared

Answer 92

B - It is accessible to authorized parties

Question 93

How does availability protect information, as mentioned in the text?

A) By limiting access to authorized parties
B) By ensuring data is always confidential
C) By making data accessible to authorized parties
D) By encrypting sensitive information

Answer 93

C - By making data accessible to authorized parties

Question 94

What does availability aim to achieve for information, as described in the text?

A) Making it publicly available
B) Ensuring it is always confidential
C) Making it accessible to authorized parties
D) Storing information without protection

Answer 94

C - Making it accessible to authorized parties

Question 95

What does availability ensure in information security?

A) Complete prevention of cyberattacks
B) Data is accessible only to authorized users
C) Unlimited access to sensitive information
D) Public sharing of all data

Answer 95

B - Data is accessible only to authorized users

Question 96

According to the text, what does information security protect?

A) Only integrity of information
B) Only confidentiality of information
C) Integrity, confidentiality, and availability of information
D) Only availability of information

Answer 96

C - Integrity, confidentiality, and availability of information

Question 97

How is information security implemented, as mentioned in the text?

A) Through software only
B) Through people only
C) Through products, people, and procedures
D) Through devices only

Answer 97

C - Through products, people, and procedures

Question 98

What devices are mentioned in the text that require protection in information security?

A) Only computers
B) Only mobile phones
C) Devices that store, manipulate, and transmit information
D) Devices that are always offline

Answer 98

C - Devices that store, manipulate, and transmit information

Question 99

Why are products, people, and procedures mentioned in information security efforts?

A) To prevent all cyberattacks
B) To ensure continuous monitoring
C) To protect against unauthorized access, alteration, and loss
D) To guarantee complete system availability

Answer 99

C - To protect against unauthorized access, alteration, and loss

Question 100

What is a threat actor in cybersecurity responsible for?

A) Protecting technology equipment
B) Managing cybersecurity policies
C) Cyber incidents against technology equipment
D) Ensuring data availability

Answer 100

C - Cyber incidents against technology equipment

Question 101

What is the main focus of threat actors in cybersecurity efforts, as described in the text?

A) Enhancing cybersecurity policies
B) Protecting technology equipment
C) Launching cyber incidents
D) Preventing data breaches

Answer 101

C - Launching cyber incidents

Question 102

Financial cybercrime is often divided into three categories based on its targets

Answer 102

Individual users
Enterprises
Governments

Question 103

Who are black hat hackers, according to the text?

A) Cyber defenders
B) Threat actors who violate computer security
C) Cyber technicians
D) Individuals who prevent cyber incidents

Answer 103

B - Threat actors who violate computer security

Question 104

What is the primary motivation for black hat hackers, as mentioned in the text?

A) To enhance cybersecurity policies
B) To steal credit card numbers and gain personal profit
C) To provide technical support
D) To prevent all cyber incidents

Answer 104

B - To steal credit card numbers and gain personal profit

Question 105

What malicious actions do black hat hackers engage in, according to the text?

A) Providing cybersecurity services
B) Enforcing cybersecurity laws
C) Inflicting damage like corrupting a hard drive
D) Preventing unauthorized access

Answer 105

C - Inflicting damage like corrupting a hard drive

Question 106

What distinguishes black hat hackers from other threat actors, as described in the text?

A) Their role as cyber defenders
B) Their motivation for attacks
C) Their ability to prevent cyber incidents
D) Their impact on cybersecurity policies

Answer 106

B - Their motivation for attacks

Question 107

Who are white hat hackers, according to the text?

A) Threat actors who violate computer security
B) Individuals who prevent cyber incidents
C) Cyber technicians
D) Hackers who probe systems with permission

Answer 107

D - Hackers who probe systems with permission

Question 108

What is the primary goal of white hat hackers, as described in the text?

A) To steal credit card numbers
B) To corrupt a hard drive
C) To prevent all cyber incidents
D) To identify and report system vulnerabilities

Answer 108

D - To identify and report system vulnerabilities

Question 109

Who are gray hat attackers, according to the text?

A) Threat actors who violate computer security
B) Individuals who prevent cyber incidents
C) Hackers who publicly disclose attacks
D) Cyber technicians

Answer 109

C - Hackers who publicly disclose attacks

Question 110

What is the primary motivation for gray hat attackers, as described in the text?

A) To gain personal profit
B) To enforce cybersecurity policies
C) To publicly shame organizations into action
D) To steal sensitive information

Answer 110

C - To publicly shame organizations into action

Question 111

Who are hacktivists, according to the text?

A) Individuals who prevent cyber incidents
B) Threat actors who violate computer security
C) Hackers motivated by ideology for activism
D) Cyber technicians

Answer 111

C) Hackers motivated by ideology for activism

Question 112

What do hacktivists aim to achieve through their actions?

A) To promote their beliefs or principles
B) To prevent all cyber incidents
C) To gain personal advantage
D) To enforce strict cybersecurity policies

Answer 112

To promote their beliefs or principles

Question 113

Who are state actors, according to the text?

A) Individuals motivated by ideology
B) Threat actors with minimal skills and no resources
C) Hacktivists promoting cybersecurity laws
D) Government-backed threat actors

Answer 113

D - Government-backed threat actors

Question 114

What resources do state actors typically possess, according to the text?

A) Limited government resources
B) Enough government resources to breach almost any security defense
C) Only technical skills
D) Cybersecurity laws enforcement

Answer 114

B - Enough government resources to breach almost any security defense

Question 115

Why are state actors considered highly skilled, as described in the text?

A) They promote their beliefs or principles
B) They enforce strict cybersecurity policies
C) They have specific targets and persist until successful
D) They prevent all cyber incidents effectively

Answer 115

C - They have specific targets and persist until successful

Question 116

What are state actors often involved in, according to the text?

A) Short-term cybersecurity incidents
B) Multiyear intrusion campaigns
C) Hacktivist activities
D) Cyber incidents with minimal impact

Answer 116

B - Multiyear intrusion campaigns

Question 117

What types of information do state actors typically target in their campaigns, as mentioned in the text?

A) Personal social media accounts
B) Highly sensitive economic, proprietary, or national security information
C) Non-sensitive public information
D) Technical cybersecurity details

Answer 117

B - Highly sensitive economic, proprietary, or national security information

Question 118

What term describes the new class of attacks involving innovative tools and persistent data extraction?

A) Persistent cyber threats
B) Advanced malware attacks
C) Advanced persistent threats (APTs)
D) Cyber espionage campaigns

Answer 118

C) Advanced persistent threats (APTs)

Question 119

How are APTs characterized in terms of their tools and data extraction, as mentioned in the text?

A) They use basic tools and extract data quickly
B) They use advanced tools and extract data silently over an extended period
C) They use common tools and target public information
D) They use government tools and enforce cybersecurity laws

Answer 119

B - They use advanced tools and extract data silently over an extended period

Question 120

Why are APTs considered challenging to detect and mitigate, according to the text?

A) They enforce strict cybersecurity policies
B) They target personal information
C) They use basic tools that are hard to trace
D) They operate silently and persistently over time

Answer 120

D - They operate silently and persistently over time

Question 121

What term is used for attacks that silently extract data over an extended period using advanced tools, as mentioned in the text?

A) Cyber defenders
B) Advanced persistent threats (APTs)
C) State actors
D) Cyber technicians

Answer 121

B - Advanced persistent threats (APTs)

Question 122

Who are insiders in the context of cybersecurity, according to the text?

A) External threat actors
B) Government-backed threat actors
C) Hacktivists promoting cybersecurity laws
D) Employees, contractors, and business partners

Answer 122

Employees, contractors, and business partners

Question 123

What term describes the threat posed by insiders manipulating data from their trusted positions?

A) External intrusion
B) Internal breach
C) Cyber espionage
D) Insider threat

Answer 123

Insider threat

Question 124

Why are insider threats considered challenging to detect and prevent, according to the text?

A) They operate within trusted roles and access levels
B) They have limited access to sensitive information
C) They enforce strict cybersecurity policies
D) They use basic cybersecurity tools

Answer 124

They operate within trusted roles and access levels

Question 125

What term describes criminal groups transitioning to more rewarding and less risky online attacks, as mentioned in the statement?

A) Cyber attackers
B) Criminal syndicates
C) Hackers for hire
D) Government-backed threat actors

Answer 125

B - Criminal syndicates

Question 126

What is Shadow IT, according to the statement?

A) Approved IT equipment and resources
B) Company-sanctioned IT projects
C) Purchased technology outside of company policies
D) Government-backed IT initiatives

Answer 126

Purchased technology outside of company policies

Question 127

Why do employees engage in Shadow IT, as mentioned in the statement?

A) To comply with company policies
B) To reduce cybersecurity risks
C) To prevent the use of technology
D) To increase the efficiency of IT acquisition

Answer 127

To increase the efficiency of IT acquisition

Question 128

What term describes employees purchasing and installing their own technology in violation of company policies, as mentioned in the statement?

A) IT management
B) Shadow IT
C) IT governance
D) IT collaboration

Answer 128

B - Shadow IT

Question 129

How can cybersecurity vulnerabilities be categorized, according to the statement?

A) By company size
B) By geographic location
C) By financial impact
D) By platforms, configurations, third parties, patches, and zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer 129

D - Platforms, configurations, third parties, patches, and zero-day vulnerabilities

Question 130

What category of vulnerability involves the setup and arrangement of technology systems?

A) Platforms
B) Configurations
C) Third parties
D) Patches

Answer 130

B - Configurations

Question 131

Which type of vulnerability refers to weaknesses in software or hardware that have not yet been discovered by the vendor?

A) Platforms
B) Configurations
C) Third parties
D) Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer 131

D - Zero-day vulnerabilities

Question 132

What category of vulnerability involves weaknesses in updates or fixes for software?

A) Platforms
B) Configurations
C) Patches
D) Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer 132

C - Patches

Question 133

Which type of vulnerability involves weaknesses introduced by external vendors or service providers?

A) Platforms
B) Configurations
C) Third parties
D) Patches

Answer 133

C - Third parties

Question 134

What components comprise a computer platform, according to the statement?

A) Hardware device and software
B) Operating system (OS) and hardware
C) Applications and programs
D) Processes and hardware

Answer 134

B - Operating system (OS) and hardware

Question 135

What role does the operating system (OS) play in a computer platform, as mentioned in the statement?

A) Running programs, applications and processes
B) Managing hardware resources
C) Transferring resources
D) Storing data

Answer 135

Running programs, applications and processes

Question 136

Which type of platform is well known for its vulnerabilities?

A) Modern platform
B) Legacy platform
C) Virtual platform
D) Cloud platform

Answer 136

Legacy platform

Question 137

Why is a legacy platform no longer in widespread use?

A) Because it is too expensive to maintain
B) Because it lacks sufficient features
C) Because it has been replaced by an updated version of the earlier technology
D) Because it is difficult to install

Answer 137

Because it has been replaced by an updated version of the earlier technology

Question 138

Where do vulnerabilities more often result from in legacy systems, according to the statement?

A) Legacy hardware
B) Updated software
C) Legacy software, such as an OS or program
D) External devices

Answer 138

Legacy software, such as an OS or program

Question 139

Where is on-premises (“on-prem”) software and technology typically located, according to the statement?

A) In a remote data center
B) In the cloud
C) Within the physical confines of an enterprise
D) On external servers

Answer 139

Within the physical confines of an enterprise

Question 140

Why did organizations find the on-premises platform model to be inadequate, according to the statement?

A) Due to the high cost of maintaining on-premises servers
B) Because it lacked sufficient network resources
C) Because it required too much support for remote access
D) Because it faced challenges in securing an increasingly diverse and interconnected IT environment

Answer 140

D) Because it faced challenges in securing an increasingly diverse and interconnected IT environment

Question 141

Why did some enterprises transition away from the on-premises model, according to the statement?

A) To reduce the need for additional hardware purchases
B) To decrease reliance on software licensing
C) To control spiraling costs associated with technology expansion
D) To increase the number of personnel managing the technology

Answer 141

A) To reduce the need for additional hardware purchases

Question 142

How are servers, storage, and supporting networking infrastructure typically managed in a hosted services environment, according to the statement?

A) Individually owned by each enterprise
B) Shared among multiple enterprises
D) Provided through a virtual private network

Answer 142

Shared among multiple enterprises

Question 143

What defines the cloud platform model, as described in the statement?

A) Customers pay a fixed monthly fee for unlimited computing resources
B) Customers pay only for the online computing resources they use
C) Customers receive free computing resources for a limited time
D) Customers lease computing resources for a one-time payment

Answer 143

Customers pay only for the online computing resources they use

Question 144

How do cloud computing resources typically adapt to changes in computing needs, as described in the statement?

A) By maintaining a fixed capacity regardless of demand
B) By automatically adjusting to the organization’s budget
C) By scaling up or scaling back according to computing needs
D) By relying on external servers for additional resources

Answer 144

By scaling up or scaling back according to computing needs

Question 145

What is a primary cause of vulnerabilities in cloud platforms, according to the statement?

A) Lack of encryption protocols
B) External hacking attempts
C) Misconfigurations by company personnel
D) Insufficient server capacity

Answer 145

Misconfigurations by company personnel responsible for securing the cloud platform

Question 146

Why are cloud computing platforms frequently targeted by threat actors, according to the statement?

A) Because they are accessible from virtually anywhere
B) Because of their limited scalability
C) Due to their high operational costs
D) Because they have outdated software

Answer 146

Because they are accessible from virtually anywhere

Question 147

What is necessary to repel attacks on modern hardware and software platforms, as described in the statement?

A) Regular updates and patches
B) Proper configuration of features and security settings
C) Advanced intrusion detection systems
D) Use of strong encryption protocols

Answer 147

Proper configuration of features and security settings

Question 148

What is a common outcome when configuration settings are not properly implemented, as mentioned in the statement?

A) Increased network speed
B) Improved system performance
C) Weak configurations
D) Enhanced user experience

Answer 148

C) Weak configurations

Question 149

Why are default settings not secure?

A) To enhance product security
B) To ensure compatibility with older systems
C) To minimize operational costs
D) They are settings predetermined by vendors for usability and ease of use

Answer 149

They are settings predetermined by vendors for usability and ease of use

Question 150

Why are open ports and services considered weak configuration?

A) To restrict access for security purposes
B) To ensure compatibility with all devices
C) To minimize network bandwidth
D) They are initially configured to allow maximum access for usability

Answer 150

They are initially configured to allow maximum access for usability

Question 151

Why are unsecured root accounts considered weak configuration?

A) Increased network speed
B) Unfettered access to all resources
C) Enhanced system performance
D) Improved user experience

Answer 151

Unfettered access to all resources

Question 152

Why are open permissions considered weak configuration?
A) Restricted access for users
B) Access granted based on user roles
C) Access that should be restricted but isn’t
D) Automatic access granted to administrators

Answer 152

Access that should be restricted but isn’t

Question 153

Why are unsecure protocols considered weak configuration?

A) Protocols that enhance data encryption
B) Protocols that lack adequate protections
C) Protocols used for internal communications
D) Protocols designed for high-speed data transfer

Answer 153

B) Protocols that lack adequate protections

Question 154

What does outsourced code development involve, as described in the statement?

A) Hiring additional in-house developers
B) Contracting with third parties for software development
C) Sharing code with competitors
D) Purchasing pre-written software

Answer 154

B) Contracting with third parties for software development

Question 155

What does data storage typically involve, as described in the statement?

A) Using on-premises servers for data backup
B) Renting office space for storing physical files
C) Employing dedicated personnel for data management
D) Utilizing third-party facilities for storing important data

Answer 155

D) Utilizing third-party facilities for storing important data

Question 156

What is vendor management primarily concerned with, as described in the statement?
- A) Managing internal processes
- B) Monitoring interactions with external third parties
- C) Developing in-house software solutions
- D) Securing physical office spaces

Answer 156

B) Monitoring interactions with external third parties

Question 157

What does system integration primarily involve, as described in the statement?

A) Enhancing internal communication within an organization
B) Establishing connectivity between an organization’s systems and third parties
C) Securing network infrastructure from external threats
D) Developing software solutions for data analysis

Answer 157

Establishing connectivity between an organization’s systems and third parties

Question 158

What challenge arises when an organization’s systems are not compatible with third-party systems, as described in the statement?

A) Increased productivity
B) Enhanced system performance
C) Vulnerabilities due to “workarounds”
D) Improved data analysis

Answer 158

Vulnerabilities due to “workarounds”

Question 159

What is a significant risk associated with third-party system integration, according to the statement?

A) The principle of system redundancy
B) The principle of maximum efficiency
C) The principle of the weakest link
D) The principle of system scalability

Answer 159

The principle of the weakest link

Question 160

What does the principle of the weakest link entail, as described in the statement?
- A) The reliance on outdated security measures
- B) The vulnerability posed by third-party security weaknesses
- C) The effectiveness of network redundancy
- D) The implementation of robust data encryption

Answer 160

B) The vulnerability posed by third-party security weaknesses

Question 161

What unintended consequence arose as operating systems (OSs) became more complex, according to the statement?

A) Increased ease of use
B) Enhanced system performance
C) Unintentional vulnerabilities exploitable by attackers
D) Improved graphical user interfaces

Answer 161

Unintentional vulnerabilities exploitable by attackers

Question 162

What action do software developers typically take to address vulnerabilities in operating systems after they have been released, as described in the statement?

A) Implement new features
B) Deploy a software “fix”
C) Redesign the entire software architecture
D) Conduct extensive user training

Answer 162

B) Deploy a software “fix”

Question 163

What is the purpose of a security patch, as described in the statement?

A) To enhance user interfaces
B) To introduce new features
C) To optimize system performance
D) o repair software vulnerabilities

Answer 163

To repair software vulnerabilities

Question 164

What role does firmware primarily serve, as described in the statement?

A) Managing high-level software applications
B) Providing low-level controls and instructions for hardware
C) Securing network infrastructure
D) Enhancing user interfaces

Answer 164

B) Providing low-level controls and instructions for hardware

Question 165

What challenges are associated with updating firmware to address vulnerabilities, as described in the statement?

A) It requires significant financial investment
B) It necessitates reconfiguring network infrastructure
C) It involves specialized steps and can be difficult and some firmware cannot be patched
D) It involves replacing hardware components

Answer 165

C) It involves specialized steps and can be difficult and some firmware cannot be patched

Question 166

What challenges are associated with patching applications, as described in the statement?

A) Automated processes for identifying installed applications
B) Lack of user alerts for available patches
C) Difficulty in distributing patches
D) Uncommon occurrence of application patches

Answer 166

A) Automated processes for identifying installed applications

Question 167

What potential issue can arise from patches, as described in the statement?

A) Prevention of custom application functionality
B) Enhanced system performance
C) Increased network speed
D) Improved user experience

Answer 167

Prevention of custom application functionality

Question 168

What does an organization typically do before installing patches from a developer’s online update service, as described in the statement?

A) Immediately deploy the patches to all systems
B) Test the patches to ensure they do not affect customized applications
C) Delay patch deployment indefinitely
D) Contact customer support for assistance

Answer 168

Test the patches to ensure they do not affect customized applications

Question 169

What is an attack vector, as described in the statement?

A) A tool used by threat actors to encrypt data
B) A pathway or avenue used by threat actors to penetrate a system
C) A software vulnerability exploited by security researchers
D) A defensive measure implemented by system administrators

Answer 169

B) A pathway or avenue used by threat actors to penetrate a system

Question 169

What does the term “zero day” refer to, as described in the statement?

A) A vulnerability exploited by attackers before it is known
B) A software update released on the same day as a vulnerability
C) A cybersecurity attack that occurs on the first day of the year
D) A security measure implemented on the same day as a vulnerability

Answer 169

A) A vulnerability exploited by attackers before it is known

Question 170

Why are zero-day vulnerabilities considered extremely serious, as described in the statement?

A) They require immediate system updates
B) They are exploited before patches are available
C) They are easily detectable by security software
D) They primarily affect outdated systems

Answer 170

They are exploited before patches are available

Question 171

What is direct access as an attack vector, as described in the statement?

A) Using network-based attacks to infiltrate a system
B) Gaining physical access to a computer system
C) Exploiting software vulnerabilities remotely
D) Manipulating user behavior to compromise security

Answer 171

B) Gaining physical access to a computer system

Question 172

What is a supply chain infection, as described in the statement?

A) Malware injected into products during their manufacturing or storage
B) Unauthorized access to product distribution centers
C) Lack of supervision in the product delivery process
D) Delayed delivery of products due to logistical issues

Answer 172

Malware injected into products during their manufacturing or storage

Question 173

Which of the following is NOT a psychological approach used in social engineering, as described in the statement?

A) Impersonation
B) Phishing
C) Redirection
D) Data encryption

Answer 173

D) Data encryption

Question 174

What is phishing, as described in the statement?

A) Sending an email from a legitimate enterprise
B) Displaying a web announcement with private information
C) Falsely claiming to be from a legitimate enterprise
D) Encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access

Answer 174

Falsely claiming to be from a legitimate enterprise

Question 175

Who are the targets of spear phishing, as described in the statement?

A) Random individuals
B) Specific users
C) Government agencies
D) Large corporations

Answer 175

Specific users

Question 176

What is whaling, as described in the statement?

A) Targeting wealthy individuals or senior executives through phishing
B) Using large fishing nets to catch a variety of fish species
C) Engaging in deep-sea fishing for whales
D) Campaigning against the fishing industry

Answer 176

A) Targeting wealthy individuals or senior executives through phishing

Question 177

What is vishing, as described in the statement?

A) Using a telephone call to perform phishing
B) Sending a phishing email with a virus attachment
C) Using a virtual private network (VPN) to hide phishing activities
D) Phishing conducted through virtual reality (VR) environments

Answer 177

A) Using a telephone call to perform phishing

Question 178

What is smishing, as described in the statement?

A) Using social media platforms to perform phishing
B) Using short message service (SMS) text messages to perform phishing
C) Phishing conducted through smart home devices
D) Phishing emails disguised as legitimate messages

Answer 178

B) Using short message service (SMS) text messages to perform phishing

Question 179

What is typo squatting, as described in the statement?

A) Purchasing domain names with intentional spelling errors
B) Acquiring domains through fraudulent means
C) Hijacking existing domain names
D) Selling domain names at inflated prices

Answer 179

A) Purchasing domain names with intentional spelling errors

Question 180

Why do attackers create fake lookalike sites through typo squatting, as described in the statement?

A) To provide legitimate alternatives to popular websites
B) To generate traffic and earn money from advertisements
C) To offer secure browsing options to users
D) To expose vulnerabilities in popular websites

Answer 180

To generate traffic and earn money from advertisements

Question 181

What is pharming, as described in the statement?

A) Exploiting vulnerabilities in website servers
B) Redirecting traffic to a fake website by manipulating DNS settings
C) Using malware to steal user credentials
D) Sending phishing emails with malicious attachments

Answer 181

Redirecting traffic to a fake website by manipulating DNS settings

Question 182

What is image spam, as described in the statement?

A) Spam messages containing only emojis
B) Spam emails with attachments containing image files
C) Spam using graphical images of text to bypass filters
D) Spam messages with embedded video links

Answer 182

Spam using graphical images of text to bypass filters

Question 183

Why is image spam difficult to filter, as described in the statement?

A) Because it contains encrypted text
B) Because it appears as an image rather than text
C) Because it uses complex algorithms to hide content
D) Because it is sent from multiple IP addresses

Answer 183

Because it appears as an image rather than text

Question 184

What is a hoax, as described in the statement?

A) A fraudulent message promising financial gain
B) A false warning often in an email from the IT department
C) A phishing attempt disguised as a legitimate communication
D) A malware program disguised as a security update

Answer 184

B) A false warning often in an email from the IT department

Question 185

What action does a hoax typically instruct recipients to take, as described in the statement?

A) Update their antivirus software immediately
B) Change security configurations and forward the message to others to make their computers more hackable
C) Ignore the email and delete it immediately
D) Contact their IT department for further instructions

Answer 185

B) Change security configurations and forward the message to others to make their computers more hackable

Question 186

What is a watering hole attack, as described in the statement?

A) A targeted attack on a specific group of individuals
B) An attack that poisons the water supply of a company
C) A phishing attack using water-related themes
D) A type of DDoS attack

Answer 186

A targeted attack on a specific group of individuals

Question 187

What technique does an attacker use in a watering hole attack, as described in the statement?

A) Installing malware on the victim’s computer through email attachments
B) Targeting specific individuals with phishing emails
C) Infecting a website frequented by the target group with malware
D) Intercepting network traffic to steal sensitive information

Answer 187

Infecting a website frequented by the target group with malware

Question 188

What is tailgating, as described in the statement?

A) Using unauthorized credentials to gain access to a building
B) Following closely behind an authorized person to enter a restricted area
C) Hacking into automated access control systems
D) Installing specialized doors to restrict entry into an area

Answer 188

B) Following closely behind an authorized person to enter a restricted area

Question 189

What is shoulder surfing, as described in the statement?

A) Monitoring network traffic to steal sensitive information
B) Watching someone enter a security code on a keypad
C) Gaining unauthorized access through a compromised system
D) Using phishing emails to trick users into revealing their passwords

Answer 189

Watching someone enter a security code on a keypad

Question 190

What is data exfiltration, as described in the statement?

A) Stealing data to distribute it to other parties
B) Encrypting data to protect it from unauthorized access
C) Deleting data from a system to prevent unauthorized access
D) Backing up data to ensure its availability

Answer 190

Stealing data to distribute it to other parties

Question 191

What is penetration testing, as described in the statement?

A) Testing software to ensure it meets performance standards
B) Testing hardware to ensure it is compatible with new software
C) Testing network security by attempting to exploit vulnerabilities
D) Testing user interfaces to ensure they are intuitive

Answer 191

) Testing network security by attempting to exploit vulnerabilities

Question 192

What is considered the most important element in a “pen test” according to the statement?

A) Executing simulated attacks
B) Analyzing vulnerabilities
C) Reporting findings
D) Planning

Answer 192

Planning

Question 193

ccording to the statement, what can result from a lack of planning in a penetration test?

A) Successful exploitation of vulnerabilities
B) A flawed penetration test that does too little or too much
C) Identification of all system weaknesses
D) Improved security measures

Answer 193

B) A flawed penetration test that does too little or too much

Question 194

What term describes the expansion beyond the initial set of limitations in a penetration test due to lack of planning?

A) Scope creep
B) Test expansion
C) Target deviation
D) Boundary extension

Answer 194

A) Scope creep

Question 195

difference between a scan and a penetration test

Answer 195

Scans usually find only surface problems because they are mostly automated. They can detect vulnerabilities but often don’t verify them deeply. penetration tests dig deeper. They use manual methods to try and exploit vulnerabilities, uncovering more serious security issues.

Question 196

What are the two key criteria for crafting effective cybersecurity simulations, as outlined?

Answer 196

1. Attacks must mirror those used by threat actors.
2. Simulations should emulate threat actors’ methodologies and strategies.

Question 197

List three advantages of using internal employees for conducting penetration tests, as described.

Answer 197

1. Little or no additional cost.
2. Quicker test execution.
3. Enhancement of employee training and security awareness.

Question 198

Identify three disadvantages of using internal security employees for conducting penetration tests, as discussed in the statement

Answer 198

1. Inside knowledge, potentially limiting objectivity and thoroughness.
2. Lack of specialized expertise compared to dedicated external teams.
3. Reluctance to reveal vulnerabilities or issues that might reflect poorly on internal practices or individuals

Question 199

Explain why using internal employees for penetration testing may not accurately simulate attacks by threat actors, according to the statement

Answer 199

Internal employees have insider knowledge of the network and devices, which differs from the perspective of external threat actors who lack such detailed internal knowledge

Question 200

Test Question: “Describe how the lack of expertise among internal employees can impact the effectiveness of penetration testing, according to the statement.

Answer 200

Employees within an organization might not have the right qualifications or skills needed to do thorough penetration tests. This could mean they might miss finding some serious security problems.

Question 201

Explain the concept of ‘reluctance to reveal’ as it pertains to using internal employees for penetration testing, according to the statement

Answer 201

Employees doing tests might not tell about problems they find, especially if they or their friends are in charge of keeping things safe.

Question 202

List four advantages of contracting with an external third-party pen testing consultant for conducting penetration tests, as described in the statement.

Answer 202

1. Expertise
2. Credentials
3. Experience
4. Focus

Question 203

Describe how expertise in technical and business aspects benefits external contractors conducting penetration tests

Answer 203

Outside contractors have the right skills and know-how to do thorough penetration tests.

Question 204

Explain the significance of security certifications among pen test contractors, according to the statement.

Answer 204

Penetration test contractors usually hire certified experts who have proven their skills and experience in security testing. This ensures they’re highly capable and skilled in their assessments.

Question 205

Discuss how experience benefits penetration test contractors in identifying and exploiting vulnerabilities

Answer 205

Contractors have lots of experience doing penetration tests, so they know exactly what to search for and how to exploit vulnerabilities they find.

Question 206

Explain the importance of focus in the context of reputable penetration testing firms

Answer 206

Top penetration testing firms are known for focusing intensely on providing expert security services, ensuring their assessments are thorough and effective.

Question 207

How is penetration testing with external consultants typically categorized

Answer 207

Penetration testing done by external consultants is classified based on how much information and access they receive before the test. This affects how thoroughly and deeply they can assess the organization’s security.

Question 208

Identify and define the three levels of penetration testing commonly used, as mentioned in the statement

Answer 208

Black Box Testing: Testers know nothing about the system beforehand.

Gray Box Testing: Testers know some details about the system.

White Box Testing: Testers know everything about the system.

Question 209

Explain the potential risks involved when external consultants use the information they uncover during penetration testing.

Answer 209

Outside consultants doing penetration tests could access sensitive details about an organization’s systems and weaknesses. If consultants are untrustworthy, they might misuse or sell this information.

Question 210

Describe the common protective measures included in penetration testing contracts to ensure client information security

Answer 210

Penetration testing contracts usually include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) to keep client information confidential. They also set rules for safely managing and getting rid of data and storage devices after the test, reducing the chance of unauthorized sharing or misuse.

Question 211

Define what a bug bounty entails, as described in the statement

Answer 211

A bug bounty is a monetary reward provided in exchange for discovering and reporting a software vulnerability

Question 212

Explain how bug bounty programs utilize crowdsourcing, as described in the statement

Answer 212

Bug bounty programs use crowdsourcing, where they engage many people over the Internet to contribute their insights and help find problems in a project.

Question 213

Describe the purpose of defining rules of engagement in a penetration test

Answer 213

The rules of engagement in a penetration test define its boundaries and guidelines.

Question 214

Explain the importance of establishing parameters in a penetration test

Answer 214

Setting clear parameters in a penetration test is essential to stay focused, get results quickly, and test only what’s needed. This prevents the test from becoming inefficient or straying from its goals.

Question 215

List the categories typically included in the rules of engagement for a penetration test

Answer 215

Timing
Scope
Authorization
Exploitation
Communication
Cleanup
Reporting

Question 216

Describe the significance of the timing parameter in penetration testing, particularly when using an external third party, as outlined in the statement

Answer 216

The timing parameter determines when the testing happens, including the start and end dates. When using an external third party, these dates are estimated by the tester and depend on their experience in that specific area.

Question 217

Explain how unexpected events, such as discovering critical vulnerabilities, can impact the timeline of a penetration test, according to the statement

Answer 217

During a penetration test, unexpected events like discovering critical vulnerabilities may slow down the process. Addressing these issues often requires multiple meetings with various levels of management and security personnel, which can delay the original completion date

Question 218

Explain the timing considerations for conducting active phases, such as scanning and exploitation, during a penetration test, as discussed in the statement.

Answer 218

Timing considerations in penetration testing involve deciding when to conduct active phases, like scanning and exploitation, to avoid disrupting regular business activities. Some organizations choose to perform these activities after business hours or exclusively on weekends to minimize operational disruptions

Question 219

Define the scope of a penetration test

Answer 219

The scope of a penetration test defines the specific areas or assets that should be tested for vulnerabilities and security weaknesses

Question 220

List the elements that define the scope of a penetration test, as mentioned in the statement

Answer 220

Environment
Internal targets
External targets
Target locations
Other boundaries

Question 221

Explain the advantage of conducting a penetration test on the live production environment

Answer 221

Conducting a penetration test on the live production environment is advantageous because it provides the most accurate assessment of real-world vulnerabilities and risks that could impact operational systems and data

Question 222

Discuss the potential disadvantage of conducting a penetration test on the live production environment

Answer 222

Conducting a penetration test on the live production environment may disrupt normal business operations, potentially impacting the availability and performance of critical systems and services during the testing period

Question 223

Explain the trade-off involved in using a simulated environment for penetration testing

Answer 223

Using a simulated environment for penetration testing avoids disruption to operations but entails additional effort and costs to accurately replicate the real-world conditions and scenarios necessary for thorough testing.

Question 224

Describe the importance of identifying internal targets before starting a penetration test

Answer 224

it’s important to clearly list all internal targets. These targets, like specific IP addresses or network ranges, belong to the customer. For external testers (gray box or white box), these targets must be identified upfront

Question 225

external target

Answer 225

Sometimes, a penetration test might involve testing a service or application hosted by a third party. These could be cloud service providers or Internet service providers (ISPs).

Question 226

target locations

Answer 226

Because laws differ between states, provinces, and countries, planners must pinpoint where targets are located and adjust the test scope as needed. For example, EU countries have stricter privacy laws affecting how social engineering tests are conducted.

Question 227

exploitation level in a pen test

Answer 227

In a penetration test, the scope should include discussing whether vulnerabilities should be exploited or if certain areas are off limits to testers.

Question 228

steps of communication in pen testing

Answer 228

Initiation
Incident response
Status
Emergency

Question 229

initiation in pen testing

Answer 229

Initiation: Once the pen test begins, the organization should be informed.

Question 230

Incident Response in a pen test

Answer 230

If a penetration tester assesses vulnerabilities without triggering the organization’s response, a critical security gap is identified.

Question 231

status in pen test

Answer 231

Instead of waiting until the pen test is done, it’s better to give periodic reports to the organization’s management.

Question 232

Emergency in pen test

Answer 232

Emergency: If a pen tester finds a critical vulnerability, they should report it immediately to the organization’s management and pause the penetration test.

Question 233

Cleanup in pen testing

Answer 233

After exploiting the systems as planned, the pen tester must remove everything related to the test. This includes software, scripts, files, and backdoors from affected systems. Changed credentials should be restored, and new usernames deleted to return systems to their original state.

Question 234

After the pen test, create two reports

Answer 234

Summary for non-technical leaders and those affected.

Detailed report for security professionals, covering scope, vulnerabilities, exploits, results, and fixes.

Question 235

Pen tests can be grouped into two phases

Answer 235

reconnaissance and penetration

Question 236

footprinting

Answer 236

For black box and gray box testers, the first task is gathering initial information from outside the organization

Question 237

Which method of information gathering in penetration testing involves actively probing for vulnerabilities and useful data?”

A) Passive reconnaissance
B) Active reconnaissance
C) War driving
D) Footprinting

Answer 237

Answer: B) Active reconnaissance

Question 238

True or False: War driving involves detecting wireless signals using a portable device from a vehicle or on foot

Answer 238

True

Question 239

What specific tools are typically used to detect wireless signals effectively during war driving

Answer 239

Tools such as wireless network adapters, GPS, and specialized software like Kismet or NetStumbler

Question 240

Why is active reconnaissance considered similar to how attackers operate?

Answer 240

It probes for vulnerabilities and useful data

Question 241

Describe one similarity and one difference between active reconnaissance and war driving in penetration testing

Answer 241

Similarity: Both involve gathering information. Difference: Active reconnaissance focuses on probing for vulnerabilities, while war driving specifically targets wireless signals

Question 242

Which of the following is a primary objective of war driving

Answer 242

Finding wireless signals

Question 243

What is ‘war flying’ in the context of discovering Wi-Fi signals

Answer 243

Using drones (UAVs) to locate Wi-Fi signals

Question 244

What advantages do drones offer over traditional methods like war driving for discovering Wi-Fi signals

Answer 244

Drones can cover a wider area quickly, are not limited to streets and sidewalks, and can fly over security perimeters such as fences

Question 245

What is a disadvantage of active reconnaissance in a penetration test

Answer 245

it may alert security professionals within the enterprise

Question 246

What term describes the process of making a network more restrictive in response to a perceived threat

Answer 246

Hardening

Question 247

Which phase of a penetration test involves actively probing for vulnerabilities

Answer 247

Active reconnaissance

Question 248

What distinguishes passive reconnaissance from active reconnaissance in penetration testing

Answer 248

it uses tools that do not raise alarms

Question 249

What is a primary advantage of passive reconnaissance over active reconnaissance
A) It is faster to execute
B) It generates less network traffic
C) It requires less technical expertise
D) It provides real-time system monitoring

Answer 249

It generates less network traffic

Question 250

What term describes the process of gathering information from publicly accessible sources in passive reconnaissance?”

A) Open system exploration
B) Closed source intelligence
C) Open source intelligence (OSINT)
D) Public network scanning

Answer 250

C) Open source intelligence (OSINT)

Question 251

Why is passive reconnaissance considered less intrusive compared to active reconnaissance?”

A) It involves physical access to the network
B) It uses automated scanning tools
C) It does not engage with the target systems
D) It requires approval from security professionals

Answer 251

It does not engage with the target systems

Question 252

Which phase of a penetration test typically involves searching for open source intelligence (OSINT)

Answer 252

Passive reconnaissance

Question 253

What is a potential limitation of relying solely on passive reconnaissance in a penetration test?

Answer 253

It may overlook hidden vulnerabilities

Question 254

Which step in a penetration test mirrors the threat actor’s initial phase of reconnaissance?”

A) Escalating privileges
B) Moving laterally
C) Installing tools on compromised systems
D) Identifying vulnerabilities

Answer 254

Identifying vulnerabilities

Question 255

What is the second step threat actors typically take after identifying a vulnerability?”

A) Moving laterally
B) Escalating privileges
C) Installing backdoors
D) Finding sensitive data

Answer 255

Escalating privileges

Question 256

What is the primary objective of threat actors when they move laterally through a network

Answer 256

Accessing more protected resources

Question 257

What action do threat actors typically take after gaining a foothold on a compromised system

Answer 257

Creating a backdoor

Question 258

“What is the main goal for threat actors once they have a foothold in the network?”

Answer 258

Exploiting their main target, such as sensitive data

Question 259

What distinguishes a penetration test from a vulnerability scan?”

Answer 259

Frequency of assessment

Question 260

What is a key characteristic of a vulnerability scan

Answer 260

Continuous monitoring

Question 261

Which assessment method involves automated identification of vulnerabilities

Answer 261

Vulnerability scan

Question 262

Which assessment approach involves manual execution and is periodically scheduled?

Answer 262

Penetration test

Question 263

Which assessment method helps minimize the risk of cyber attacks through recurring scans

Answer 263

Vulnerability scan

Question 264

The best approach for vulnerability scanning isn’t always to scan all systems continuously. Here are two main reasons why:

Answer 264

Workflow disruptions: Continuous scans can slow down systems, affecting daily operations. Conducting scans during “off hours,” like nights or weekends, can minimize disruptions to normal business processes.

Technical limitations: Large networks with numerous devices may not allow for complete scans within a desired timeframe due to technical constraints such as network bandwidth or software license limits. In such cases, scheduling scans at specific times becomes necessary.

Question 265

Why is it impractical to scan everything at once

Answer 265

It is time-consuming

Question 266

What approach do some organizations take when deciding what to scan

Answer 266

Scanning in rotation: network, applications, and web applications

Question 267

What is a drawback of conducting a comprehensive network scan?

Answer 267

It may miss critical vulnerabilities

Question 268

What is a common challenge of conducting a comprehensive network scan

Answer 268

Lengthy scan times

Question 269

How do organizations prioritize assets for scanning?

Answer 269

Depending on vulnerability exposure

Question 270

Why is a focused approach to vulnerability scanning beneficial

Answer 270

It reduces workflow disruptions

Question 271

What helps organizations prioritize systems for more frequent scanning

Answer 271

Location of high-value data

Question 272

What does an inventory scan primarily search for

Answer 272

Devices attached to the network

Question 273

What capability do most vulnerability scanning tools offer regarding asset inventory

Answer 273

Inventory scan for devices

Question 274

What role does Nessus play in vulnerability scanning

Answer 274

Conducting continuous scans

Question 275

To narrow down a vulnerability scan:

Answer 275

Define which devices to scan, like specific hosts or subnets.
Focus the scan on specific goals, such as targeting vulnerabilities in Windows 10.
Choose the depth of the scan by focusing on particular vulnerability types.
Specify data types to scan, searching for vulnerabilities in specific file types rather than all files.

Question 276

Credentialed

Answer 276

In a credentialed scan, the vulnerability scanner uses valid usernames and passwords to simulate a threat actor with access credentials.

Question 277

What is a non-credentialed scan in cybersecurity testing?

A) A scan that bypasses credential requirements
B) A vulnerability scan without authentication information provided
C) A scan performed by an unauthorized tester
D) A scan conducted without proper authorization

Answer 277

B) A vulnerability scan without authentication information provided

Question 278

What characterizes an intrusive scan in cybersecurity testing?

A) It operates without any authorization
B) It attempts to exploit vulnerabilities discovered
C) It focuses solely on network traffic analysis
D) It requires full administrator credentials

Answer 278

It attempts to exploit vulnerabilities discovered

Question 279

What distinguishes a nonintrusive scan in cybersecurity testing?

A) It actively attempts to exploit identified vulnerabilities
B) It does not require any authentication credentials
C) It only identifies vulnerabilities without attempting exploitation
D) It focuses exclusively on external network interfaces

Answer 279

It only identifies vulnerabilities without attempting exploitation

Question 280

What potential drawback do intrusive tests have in cybersecurity testing?

A) They are less accurate than non-intrusive tests
B) They require specialized authorization credentials
C) They can impair the performance of the target system
D) They are restricted to external network interfaces

Answer 280

They can impair the performance of the target system

Question 281

What limitation is associated with nonintrusive scans in cybersecurity testing?

A) They can only suggest potential vulnerabilities without confirming them
B) They cannot identify vulnerabilities in external network interfaces
C) They require advanced authentication credentials to operate
D) They are less accurate than intrusive scans

Answer 281

They can only suggest potential vulnerabilities without confirming them

Question 282

How does vulnerability scanning software identify vulnerabilities in cybersecurity testing?

A) By actively exploiting vulnerabilities to confirm their presence
B) By comparing scanned software with known issues
C) By conducting performance tests on the target system
D) By analyzing network traffic patterns

Answer 282

By comparing scanned software with known issues

Question 283

What is essential for vulnerability scanning in cybersecurity testing?

A) Access to administrative credentials
B) Real-time monitoring of network traffic
C) Access to an updated database of vulnerabilities
D) Physical access to the target system

Answer 283

Access to an updated database of vulnerabilities

Question 284

What is the purpose of updating vulnerability information in scanning software?

A) To enhance the software’s user interface
B) To improve scan speed and efficiency
C) To provide real-time network monitoring
D) To keep the software current with the latest vulnerability information

Answer 284

To keep the software current with the latest vulnerability information

Question 285

What does CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) primarily do in cybersecurity?

A) It patches vulnerabilities automatically
B) It scans for malware in operating systems
C) It identifies vulnerabilities in software
D) It monitors network traffic

Answer 285

It identifies vulnerabilities in software

Question 286

What is the primary function of CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) in cybersecurity?

A) It provides real-time network monitoring
B) It identifies vulnerabilities in software
C) It encrypts sensitive data on systems
D) It analyzes firewall configurations

Answer 286

It identifies vulnerabilities in software

Question 287

When evaluating the results of a vulnerability scan, what factors should you consider?

A) The speed of the scan and its resource usage
B) The brand of the scanning software used
C) The importance of the vulnerability and its accuracy
D) The number of vulnerabilities identified

Answer 287

The importance of the vulnerability and its accuracy

Question 288

In cybersecurity management, why is it often impractical to address all identified vulnerabilities?

A) Due to the limited availability of scanning software
B) Because some vulnerabilities are too complex to fix
C) To prioritize resources and focus on critical vulnerabilities
D) Because vulnerabilities are constantly changing

Answer 288

To prioritize resources and focus on critical vulnerabilities

Question 289

Why might organizations react differently to vulnerabilities with the same severity rating assigned by a scanner?

A) Due to variations in the organization’s network topology
B) Because scanners often misclassify the severity of vulnerabilities
C) To align with different organizational risk tolerances and priorities
D) Because organizations lack the resources to address all vulnerabilities

Answer 289

To align with different organizational risk tolerances and priorities

Question 290

What is the primary purpose of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) in cybersecurity?

A) To identify the source of vulnerabilities in software
B) To categorize vulnerabilities based on their complexity
C) To provide a numeric rating of the impact of vulnerabilities
D) To automatically patch vulnerabilities in operating systems

Answer 290

To provide a numeric rating of the impact of vulnerabilities

Question 291

In cybersecurity testing, what does the term “false positive” refer to?

A) Failing to detect a genuine security issue
B) Raising an alarm when there is no problem
C) Ignoring critical vulnerabilities
D) Incorrectly identifying a security issue as low priority

Answer 291

Raising an alarm when there is no problem

Question 292

In cybersecurity testing, what does the term “false negative” refer to?

A) Raising an alarm when there is no problem
B) Incorrectly identifying a security issue as low priority
C) Failing to detect a genuine security issue
D) Ignoring critical vulnerabilities

Answer 292

Failing to detect a genuine security issue

Question 293

How can organizations effectively identify false positives in vulnerability scans?

A) By conducting regular software updates
B) By reviewing and matching vulnerability scan data with internal logs
C) By increasing the sensitivity of their firewall settings
D) By using multiple scanning tools simultaneously

Answer 293

By reviewing and matching vulnerability scan data with internal logs

Question 294

System event logs record

Answer 294

unsuccessful events and the most important successful events

Question 295

Which types of information are typically recorded in system event logs for cybersecurity purposes?

A) The location and severity of the event
B) The system’s current network configuration
C) The frequency of similar events over time
D) The date and time of the event; a description; status, error codes, service name; and responsible user or system

Answer 295

The date and time of the event; a description of the event; its status, error codes, and service name; and the user or system responsible

Question 296

How can log reviews assist in cybersecurity testing?

A) By identifying false positives
B) By automatically patching vulnerabilities
C) By optimizing network performance
D) By encrypting sensitive data

Answer 296

By identifying false positives

Question 297

How can logs contribute to verifying vulnerability scan results in cybersecurity testing?

A) By identifying potential false positives
B) By scheduling regular software updates
C) By monitoring network traffic in real-time
D) By showing changes to software configurations between scans

Answer 297

By showing changes to software configurations between scans

Question 298

Which data management tools are commonly used for collecting and analyzing cybersecurity data?

A) Security Monitoring and Intrusion Detection (SMID)
B) Network Access Control (NAC) and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
C) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) and Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR)
D) Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) and Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

Answer 298

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) and Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR)

Question 299

What is the primary function of Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) in cybersecurity?

A) To automate software updates and patch vulnerabilities
B) To provide real-time monitoring and management of security events
C) To encrypt sensitive data on network devices
D) To analyze network traffic patterns

Answer 299

To provide real-time monitoring and management of security events

Question 300

Which cybersecurity tool combines real-time security monitoring, event management, and analysis of security events?

A) Network Access Control (NAC)
B) Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM)
C) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) protection
D) Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Answer 300

Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM)

Question 301

Which statement accurately describes the deployment options for Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) products?

A) SIEM products are only available as standalone devices
B) SIEM products are exclusively software-based
C) SIEM products can be a separate device, software, or a third-party service
D) SIEM products are primarily used for network access control

Answer 301

SIEM products can be a separate device, software, or a service provided by a third party

Question 302

What does aggregation in Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) entail?

A) Collecting data from various sources like network security devices, servers, and applications
B) Merging data from different operating systems
C) Combining data from multiple SIEM products
D) Encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access

Answer 302

Collecting data from various sources like network security devices, servers, and applications

Question 303

What is the primary function of correlation in Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM)?

A) To aggregate data from various sources
B) To encrypt sensitive data during transmission
C) To identify patterns in aggregated data, such as multiple attacks from a specific source
D) To automate the patching of vulnerabilities

Answer 303

To identify patterns in aggregated data, such as multiple attacks from a specific source

Question 304

What is the purpose of automated alerting in Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM)?

A) To encrypt sensitive data during transmission
B) To aggregate data from various sources
C) To notify security teams of urgent issues
D) To automate software updates

Answer 304

To notify security teams of urgent issues

Question 305

Why is time synchronization important in Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM)?

A) To optimize network performance
B) To encrypt sensitive data during transmission
C) To sequence events accurately, especially for alerts spanning various time periods
D) To automate the patching of vulnerabilities

Answer 305

To sequence events accurately, especially for alerts spanning various time periods

Question 306

What does the event duplication feature in Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM) do?

A) It combines multiple alerts for the same event from different devices into a single alarm
B) It aggregates data from various sources into a single report
C) It encrypts sensitive data during transmission
D) It automatically patches vulnerabilities detected by different devices

Answer 306

It combines multiple alerts for the same event from different devices into a single alarm

Question 307

What is the primary purpose of logging events in Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM)?

A) To encrypt sensitive data during transmission
B) To aggregate data from various sources into a single report
C) To sequence events accurately for alerting purposes
D) To store events for future analysis and compliance demonstration

Answer 307

To store events for future analysis and compliance demonstration

Question 308

Why is studying user behavior crucial in cybersecurity?

A) To understand normal patterns of interaction and detect deviations indicative of potential security threats
B) To optimize system performance and enhance user experience
C) To automate routine security tasks and updates
D) To enforce strict access controls and permissions

Answer 308

To understand normal patterns of interaction and detect deviations indicative of potential security threats

Question 309

What is the primary purpose of sentiment analysis in computational linguistics?

A) To automatically generate text summaries
B) To identify and categorize opinions expressed in text
C) To encrypt sensitive data during transmission
D) To analyze network traffic patterns

Answer 309

To identify and categorize opinions expressed in text

Question 310

What is the primary function of Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) in cybersecurity?

Answer 310

A) To encrypt sensitive data during transmission
B) To aggregate data from various sources into a single report
C) integrating data collection, analytics, and automating incident response to assist security teams in handling a large volume of security alerts
D) To optimize network performance

Question 311

How do Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platforms enhance incident response in cybersecurity?

A) By encrypting sensitive data during transmission
B) By providing real-time network monitoring
C) By combining thorough data collection and analytics to automate the process
D) By optimizing system performance for faster response times

Answer 311

By combining thorough data collection and analytics to automate the process

Question 312

What capability distinguishes Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) from Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) in incident response?

A) SOAR allows a security team to automate incident responses
B) SIEM generates more alerts than a security team can respond to
C) SIEM provides real-time network monitoring
D) SOAR encrypts sensitive data during transmission

Answer 312

SOAR allows a security team to automate incident responses

Question 313

What is the primary objective of threat hunting in cybersecurity?

A) To encrypt sensitive data during transmission
B) To automate incident response processes
C) To actively search for cyber threats that have not yet been detected
D) To optimize network performance

Answer 313

To actively search for cyber threats that have not yet been detected

Question 314

What role does maneuvering play in threat hunting during cybersecurity operations?

A) It consists of conducting unusual behavior to uncover threats
B) It involves encrypting sensitive data during transmission
C) It focuses on automating incident response processes
D) It optimizes network performance

Answer 314

It consists of conducting unusual behavior to uncover threats

Question 315

What are threat feeds in cybersecurity?

A) Automated tools for encrypting sensitive data
B) Databases used for optimizing network performance
C) Cybersecurity data feeds that provide information on the latest threats
D) Systems designed to conduct automated threat hunting

Answer 315

Cybersecurity data feeds that provide information on the latest threats

Question 316

What is a fusion center in cybersecurity?

A) A central repository where enterprises and government entities share information about the latest attacks
B) A centralized database for encrypting sensitive data
C) A collaborative platform for optimizing network performance
D) An automated system for conducting threat hunting

Answer 316

A central repository where enterprises and government entities share information about the latest attacks

Question 317

What is the primary purpose of the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) guidelines in cybersecurity?

A) To assist private companies in identifying, detecting, preventing, recovering, and responding to cyberattacks
B) To develop new encryption algorithms
C) To provide real-time network monitoring
D) To automate incident response processes

Answer 317

To assist private companies in identifying, detecting, preventing, recovering, and responding to cyberattacks

Question 318

A) Guidelines published by governmental bodies
B) Best practices for data encryption
C) Document accepted through consensus by an accredited standardization body
D) Tool used for monitoring network activities

Answer 318

Document endorsed through consensus by an accredited standardization body

Question 319

What does a standard provide for in the context of cybersecurity?

A) Specifications for hardware and software compatibility
B) Best practices for securing network infrastructure
C) Frameworks, rules, guidelines, or characteristics for products or related processes
D) Real-time monitoring of user activity

Answer 319

Frameworks, rules, guidelines, or characteristics for products or related processes

Question 320

In cybersecurity, what are endpoints?

A) Systems used for monitoring network traffic
B) Servers responsible for hosting websites
C) Applications designed for real-time data encryption
D) Network-connected hardware devices

Answer 320

Network-connected hardware devices

Question 321

What is malware in the context of cybersecurity?

A) Malicious software that enters a computer system without user consent and performs harmful actions
B) Software that enhances system performance
C) Code designed to encrypt sensitive data
D) Applications used for real-time network monitoring

Answer 321

Malicious software that enters a computer system without user consent and performs harmful actions

Question 322

What does imprison malware do in the context of cybersecurity?

A) Encrypts sensitive data on the user’s computer
B) Enhances the performance of the computer system
C) Removes unwanted applications from the computer
D) Takes away the freedom of the user to do whatever they want on their computer

Answer 322

Takes away the freedom of the user to do whatever they want on their computer

Question 323

Which types of malware are known for imprisoning users’ computers?

A) Adware and spyware
B) Trojan horses and worms
C) Ransomware and cryptomalware
D) Rootkits and keyloggers

Answer 323

Ransomware and cryptomalware

Question 324

What characterizes ransomware in cybersecurity?

A) Malware that encrypts sensitive data on the user’s endpoint device
B) Software that enhances the performance of endpoint devices
C) Malware that prevents an endpoint device from functioning until a fee is paid
D) Applications used for real-time network monitoring

Answer 324

Malware that prevents an endpoint device from functioning until a fee is paid

Question 325

What does cryptomalware do in the context of cybersecurity?

A) It encrypts all files on a device, making them inaccessible until a ransom is paid
B) It enhances the performance of endpoint devices
C) It prevents users from accessing certain websites
D) It monitors network traffic in real-time

Answer 325

It encrypts all files on a device, making them inaccessible until a ransom is paid

Question 326

What distinguishes new variants of cryptomalware in cybersecurity?

A) They enhance the performance of endpoint devices
B) They prevent users from accessing certain websites
C) They encrypt all files on any network or attached device connected to a computer
D) They monitor network traffic in real-time

Answer 326

They encrypt all files on any network or attached device connected to a computer

Question 327

What does “launch” typically refer to in the context of cybersecurity attacks?

A) Encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) Enhancing the performance of the infected computer
C) Infecting a computer to launch attacks on other computers
D) Monitoring network traffic for security breaches

Answer 327

Infecting a computer to launch attacks on other computers

Question 328

What are the two types of viruses in the context of cybersecurity?

A) Ransomware and spyware
B) Worms and trojans
C) File-based virus and fileless virus
D) Adware and keyloggers

Answer 328

File-based virus and fileless virus

Question 329

What characterizes a file-based virus in cybersecurity?

A) It encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) It enhances the performance of the infected computer
C) It is a malicious computer code that is attached to a file
D) It prevents users from accessing certain websites

Answer 329

It is a malicious computer code that is attached to a file

Question 330

What does a file-based virus typically do in cybersecurity?

A) It reproduces itself on the same computer
B) It encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) It enhances the performance of the infected computer
D) It prevents users from accessing certain websites

Answer 330

It reproduces itself on the same computer

Question 331

What is appender infection in the context of computer viruses?

A) When a virus attaches itself to the end of a file and redirects control to its code
B) When a virus encrypts files and demands a ransom for decryption
C) When a virus infects the operating system kernel
D) When a virus spreads through email attachments

Answer 331

When a virus attaches itself to the end of a file and redirects control to its code

Question 332

Which techniques are part of armored file-based virus infection in cybersecurity?

A) Encryption and decryption
B) Replication and self-destruction
C) Split infection and mutation
D) Phishing and spear-phishing

Answer 332

Split infection and mutation

Question 333

A) When a virus encrypts files and demands a ransom for decryption
B) When a virus splits its malicious code into several parts and places them at random positions throughout the program code
C) When a virus infects the boot sector of a computer’s hard drive
D) When a virus spreads through email attachments

Answer 333

When a virus splits its malicious code into several parts and places them at random positions throughout the program code

Question 334

What is mutation in the context of computer viruses?

A) When a virus encrypts files and demands a ransom for decryption
B) When a virus changes its internal code to one of a set number of predefined mutations whenever it is executed
C) When a virus spreads through email attachments
D) When a virus infects the boot sector of a computer’s hard drive

Answer 334

When a virus changes its internal code to one of a set number of predefined mutations whenever it is executed

Question 335

What is the characteristic of a virus that reproduces itself by inserting its code into another file on the same computer?

A) Polymorphism
B) File-based infection
C) Stealth techniques
D) Self-replication

Answer 335

File-based infection

Question 336

True or False: A virus can only replicate itself on the host computer where it is located.

Answer 336

Trues

Question 337

How do viruses typically spread to other computers?

A) By exploiting vulnerabilities in network protocols
B) By infecting email attachments
C) By relying on the actions of users
D) By automatically replicating across connected devices

Answer 337

By relying on the actions of users

Question 338

What does a virus typically require to spread to other computers?

A) Two carriers: a file to which it attaches and a human to transport it
B) Network connectivity
C) Automatic replication capabilities
D) Encryption algorithms for data protection

Answer 338

Two carriers: a file to which it attaches and a human to transport it

Question 339

How does a fileless virus operate in cybersecurity?

A) It uses built-in OS services and processes to evade detection and execute attacks.
B) By encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) By creating new files in hidden directories
D) By attaching itself to executable files

Answer 339

It uses built-in OS services and processes to evade detection and execute attacks.

Question 340

What are built-in services used in a fileless virus called in cybersecurity?

A) Native executable services
B) Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins)
C) Virtual machine environments
D) Encrypted shell scripts

Answer 340

Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins)

Question 341

How does a fileless virus execute its malicious code in cybersecurity?

A) By loading its malicious code directly into the computer’s RAM using Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins)
B) By encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) By attaching itself to executable files
D) By creating new files in hidden directories

Answer 341

By loading its malicious code directly into the computer’s RAM using Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins)

Question 342

Which of the following are advantages of using a fileless virus over a file-based virus in cybersecurity?

A) Easy to infect
B) Extensive control
C) Persistent
D) Difficult to detect
E) Difficult to defend again

Answer 342

B) Extensive control, C) Persistent, D) Difficult to detect, E) Difficult to defend against

Question 343

How does a fileless virus often arrive on a victim’s computer in cybersecurity?

A) Through email attachments containing executable files
B) Through USB drives that automatically execute malicious code
C) Via malicious websites that silently send a script to the victim’s web browser
D) Through peer-to-peer file sharing networks

Answer 343

Via malicious websites that silently send a script to the victim’s web browser

Question 344

What technique does a fileless virus typically use to execute commands on a victim’s computer in cybersecurity?

A) Utilizing JavaScript to direct the browser to system tools like PowerShell
B) Embedding commands in email attachments
C) Exploiting vulnerabilities in network protocols
D) Intercepting files transferred over the network

Answer 344

Utilizing JavaScript to direct the browser to system tools like PowerShell

Question 345

What is a notable characteristic of many Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins) in cybersecurity?

A) They are used primarily for encrypting sensitive data
B) They have limited functionality and control on a computer
C) They often require administrative privileges to execute
D) They wield significant authority on a computer

Answer 345

They wield significant authority on a computer

Question 346

What behavior is typical of fileless viruses in cybersecurity?

A) Writing their script into the Windows Registry to be launched on computer restart or a set schedule
B) Encrypting sensitive data stored on the victim’s computer
C) Attaching themselves to executable files to spread
D) Sending malicious emails to spread to other computers

Answer 346

Writing their script into the Windows Registry to be launched on computer restart or a set schedule

Question 347

What challenge does a fileless virus pose to antivirus software in cybersecurity?

A) It loads into RAM, making files inaccessible for antivirus scanning
B) It encrypts sensitive data to evade detection
C) It spreads through email attachments
D) It exploits vulnerabilities in network protocols

Answer 347

It loads into RAM, making files inaccessible for antivirus scanning

Question 348

What challenge does fully defending against fileless viruses present in cybersecurity?

A) Turning off potential Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins) to prevent virus execution, which could cripple the operating system
B) Encrypting all files on the computer to protect them from virus attacks
C) Blocking all incoming email attachments to prevent virus spread
D) Updating antivirus software regularly to detect fileless viruses

Answer 348

Turning off potential Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins) to prevent virus execution, which could cripple the operating system

Question 349

What complicates defending against fileless viruses in cybersecurity?

A) The automatic loading of Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins) when the OS starts
B) The frequent updates required to antivirus software
C) The need for constant monitoring of network traffic
D) The use of encryption to protect sensitive data

Answer 349

The automatic loading of Living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins) when the OS starts

Question 350

What characterizes a worm in cybersecurity?

A) It encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) It spreads through email attachments
C) It uses a computer network to replicate
D) It attaches itself to executable files

Answer 350

It uses a computer network to replicate

Question 351

How does a worm typically enter and exploit a computer in cybersecurity?

A) By encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) By spreading through email attachments
C) By using a computer network to exploit vulnerabilities in applications or OS
D) By attaching itself to executable files

Answer 351

By using a computer network to exploit vulnerabilities in applications or OS

Question 352

What is a characteristic behavior of worms in cybersecurity?

A) Exploiting vulnerabilities on one system and then searching for the same vulnerability on other computers in the network
B) Encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) Spreading through email attachments
D) Attaching themselves to executable files

Answer 352

Exploiting vulnerabilities on one system and then searching for the same vulnerability on other computers in the network

Question 353

What is the definition of a bot (zombie) in cybersecurity?

A) A type of antivirus software that detects and removes malware
B) An infected computer placed under the remote control of an attacker for launching attacks
C) A network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic
D) A malicious email attachment used to spread viruses

Answer 353

An infected computer placed under the remote control of an attacker for launching attacks

Question 354

What is created when hundreds, thousands, or even millions of bot computers are gathered into a logical network?

A) A decentralized file storage system
B) A botnet
C) A virtual private network (VPN)
D) A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack

Answer 354

A botnet

Question 355

Who controls a botnet in cybersecurity terms?

A) A hacker who infiltrates network firewalls
B) A bot herder
C) An antivirus software program
D) A network administrator

Answer 355

A bot herder

Question 356

How do infected bot computers typically receive instructions regarding which computers to attack and how in a botnet?

A) Through encrypted emails
B) Through direct peer-to-peer communication
C) Through a command and control (C&C) structure from bot herders
D) Through automated antivirus updates

Answer 356

Through a command and control (C&C) structure from bot herders

Question 357

How might a bot herder communicate with its botnet?

A) Automatically signing in to a bot-herding website
B) Signing in to a third-party website
C) Via blogs, specially coded attack commands through posts on Twitter, or notes posted in Facebook
D) Using Gmail to send messages to itself

Answer 357

All of the above

Question 358

What are the two common types of snooping malware in cybersecurity?

A) Ransomware and adware
B) Spyware and keyloggers
C) Trojans and worms
D) Rootkits and botnets

Answer 358

Spyware and keyloggers

Question 359

What is spyware in cybersecurity?

A) Malicious software that encrypts files on the victim’s computer
B) Tracking software deployed without the user’s consent or control
C) Software designed to disrupt network traffic and services
D) A type of virus that spreads through email attachments

Answer 359

Tracking software deployed without the user’s consent or control

Question 360

What is automatic download software in cybersecurity?

A) Software that downloads and installs other software without user interaction
B) Malicious software that steals passwords
C) Software that automatically updates operating systems
D) Software that encrypts files on the victim’s computer

Answer 360

Software that downloads and installs other software without user interaction

Question 361

What risk does automatic download software pose in cybersecurity?

A) It automatically updates operating systems
B) It encrypts files on the victim’s computer
C) It installs unauthorized applications without user consent
D) It tracks user activities without their knowledge

Answer 361

It installs unauthorized applications without user consent

Question 362

What do passive tracking technologies do in cybersecurity?

A) Gather information about user activities without installing any software
B) Install software to monitor user activities
C) Encrypt sensitive data on the victim’s computer
D) Automatically update operating systems

Answer 362

Gather information about user activities without installing any software

Question 363

What type of information could passive tracking technologies collect in cybersecurity?

A) Encrypt sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) Install software to monitor user activities
C) Gather information such as websites a user has visited without installing any software
D) Automatically update operating systems

Answer 363

Gather information such as websites a user has visited without installing any software

Question 364

What does system modifying software do in cybersecurity?

A) Encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) Installs additional software without user permission
C) Automatically updates operating systems
D) Changes configurations to settings that the user did not approve

Answer 364

Changes configurations to settings that the user did not approve

Question 365

What risk does tracking software pose in cybersecurity?

A) It encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) It installs additional software without user permission
C) It automatically updates operating systems
D) It could collect personal information that can be shared widely or stolen, resulting in fraud or identity theft

Answer 365

It could collect personal information that can be shared widely or stolen, resulting in fraud or identity theft

Question 366

What is the function of a keylogger in cybersecurity?

A) Encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) Installs additional software without user permission
C) Automatically updates operating systems
D) Silently captures and stores each keystroke that a user types on the computer’s keyboard

Answer 366

Silently captures and stores each keystroke that a user types on the computer’s keyboard

Question 367

What is the advantage of a hardware keylogger in cybersecurity?

A) It encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) It installs additional software without user permission
C) It can be used for computers with locked down software
D) It automatically updates operating systems

Answer 367

It can be used for computers with locked down software

Question 368

What limitation does a hardware keylogger typically have in cybersecurity?

A) It automatically updates its software
B) It encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) The threat actor must physically install and later return to remove the device to access stored information
D) It can be remotely controlled to capture keystrokes

Answer 368

The threat actor must physically install and later return to remove the device to access stored information

Question 369

What is a PUP in cybersecurity?

A) Malware that steals passwords
B) Software that automatically updates operating systems
C) Software that the user does not want on their computer
D) A type of firewall used to block malicious websites

Answer 369

Software that the user does not want on their computer

Question 370

How do PUPs typically get installed on a user’s computer in cybersecurity?

A) By exploiting vulnerabilities in network protocols
B) By encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) By using social engineering techniques to trick users
D) By being included along with other programs due to user overlooking default installation options

Answer 370

By being included along with other programs due to user overlooking default installation options

Question 371

What is a Trojan in cybersecurity?

A) A type of antivirus software
B) A program that encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) A program that pretends to perform a harmless activity but actually carries out malicious actions
D) A type of firewall used to block malicious websites

Answer 371

A program that pretends to perform a harmless activity but actually carries out malicious actions

Question 372

What is a RAT (Remote Access Trojan) in cybersecurity?

A) A type of antivirus software
B) A program that encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) A program that pretends to perform a harmless activity but actually carries out malicious actions
D) A program that has the basic functionality of a Trojan but also gives the threat agent unauthorized remote access to the victim’s computer

Answer 372

A program that has the basic functionality of a Trojan but also gives the threat agent unauthorized remote access to the victim’s computer

Question 373

What does a backdoor do in cybersecurity?

A) Encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) Pretends to perform harmless activities while carrying out malicious actions
C) Provides unauthorized access to a computer, program, or service, bypassing normal security protections
D) Automatically updates operating systems

Answer 373

Provides unauthorized access to a computer, program, or service, bypassing normal security protections

Question 374

What capability do backdoors typically provide in cybersecurity?

A) Allow the attacker to return later and bypass security settings
B) Encrypt sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) Automatically update operating systems
D) Pretend to perform harmless activities while carrying out malicious actions

Answer 374

Allow the attacker to return later and bypass security settings

Question 375

How can attackers access a backdoor in cybersecurity?

A) A type of firewall used to block malicious websites
B) A program that encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) they can be left by programmers who used them earlier for easy access
D) A tool used by antivirus software to detect malware

Answer 375

they can be left by programmers who used them earlier for easy access

Question 376

A) Malware that can hide its presence and the presence of other malware on the computer
B) Malware that encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
C) Software used by network administrators to monitor network traffic
D) A tool used by antivirus software to detect and remove viruses

Answer 376

Malware that can hide its presence and the presence of other malware on the computer

Question 377

How do rootkits typically operate in cybersecurity?

A) By encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) By using documented functions to make alterations
C) By monitoring network traffic for suspicious activity
D) By accessing lower layers of the operating system or using undocumented functions to make alterations

Answer 377

By accessing lower layers of the operating system or using undocumented functions to make alterations

Question 378

What is cross-site scripting (XSS) in cybersecurity?

A) An attack that encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) An attack that takes advantage of a website that accepts user input without validating it
C) A technique used by network administrators to monitor network traffic
D) A tool used by antivirus software to detect and remove viruses

Answer 378

An attack that takes advantage of a website that accepts user input without validating it

Question 379

How can an attacker exploit cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities in cybersecurity?

A) By encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) By directly accessing lower layers of the operating system
C) By intercepting network traffic between the victim and the server
D) By tricking a valid website into feeding a malicious script to another user’s web browser, which will then execute it

Answer 379

By tricking a valid website into feeding a malicious script to another user’s web browser, which will then execute it

Question 380

What are injections in cybersecurity?

A) Attacks that encrypt sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) Attacks that intercept network traffic between the victim and the server
C) Attacks that introduce new input to exploit a vulnerability
D) Attacks that trick users into clicking on malicious links

Answer 380

Attacks that introduce new input to exploit a vulnerability

Question 381

What is SQL injection in cybersecurity?

A) An attack that encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) An attack that intercepts network traffic between the victim and the server
C) An attack that inserts statements to manipulate a database server using Structured Query Language commands
D) An attack that introduces new input to exploit a vulnerability

Answer 381

An attack that inserts statements to manipulate a database server using Structured Query Language commands

Question 382

What can the error messages “E-mail Address Unknown” and “Server Failure” indicate in SQL injection attacks?

A) “E-mail Address Unknown” indicates successful execution of an SQL attack, while “Server Failure” indicates unsuccessful execution.
B) “E-mail Address Unknown” indicates proper user input filtering, while “Server Failure” indicates lack of filtering and vulnerability to SQL injection attacks.
C) “E-mail Address Unknown” indicates a successful SQL injection attack, while “Server Failure” indicates successful filtering of user input.
D) “E-mail Address Unknown” indicates that the server is down, while “Server Failure” indicates an SQL injection attack has occurred.

Answer 382

B) “E-mail Address Unknown” indicates proper user input filtering, while “Server Failure” indicates lack of filtering and vulnerability to SQL injection attacks.

Question 383

What are the two types of request forgeries in cybersecurity?

A) Cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection
B) Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) and server-side request forgery (SSRF)
C) Phishing and spear phishing
D) Denial of Service (DoS) and Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

Answer 383

B) Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) and server-side request forgery (SSRF)

Question 384

What does a cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attack exploit in cybersecurity?

A) Vulnerabilities in network protocols
B) User input without validation
C) Authentication tokens sent to a user’s web browser
D) Exploitation of database server commands

Answer 384

Authentication tokens sent to a user’s web browser

Question 385

Tricking the user into making unintended requests to the website while authenticated. What vulnerability does the scenario describe in cybersecurity?

Answer 385

Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)

Question 386

What vulnerability does an SSRF attack exploit in cybersecurity?

A) Weaknesses in network protocols
B) User input without validation
C) How a web server processes external information received from another server
D) Exploitation of authentication tokens

Answer 386

How a web server processes external information received from another server

Question 387

What is a resource exhaustion attack in cybersecurity?

A) An attack that encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) An attack that intercepts network traffic between the victim and the server
C) An attack that depletes parts of memory and interferes with the normal operation of the program in RAM
D) An attack that tricks users into clicking on malicious links

Answer 387

An attack that depletes parts of memory and interferes with the normal operation of the program in RAM

Question 388

How can a resource exhaustion attack potentially impact cybersecurity?

A) By allowing the threat actor access to the underlying operating system
B) By intercepting network traffic between the victim and the server
C) By encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer
D) By tricking users into disclosing their credentials

Answer 388

By allowing the threat actor access to the underlying operating system

Explanation: A resource exhaustion attack can overwhelm a system’s resources, potentially disrupting its normal operation and allowing an attacker to gain unauthorized access to the underlying operating system, bypassing security settings.

Question 389

What is a memory leak in programming and cybersecurity?

A) A situation where memory is intentionally allocated but not used
B) A situation that occurs when memory is not freed after the program has finished using it
C) A situation where a program deliberately consumes excessive memory
D) A situation where memory is leaked to unauthorized parties

Answer 389

B) A situation that occurs when memory is not freed after the program has finished using it

Explanation: A memory leak occurs when a program fails to release memory that it no longer needs, potentially leading to depletion of system resources and affecting the program’s performance or causing instability.

Question 390

How can an attacker exploit a memory leak in cybersecurity?

A) By causing deliberate program crashes
B) By injecting malicious code into the program
C) By taking advantage of unexpected program behavior resulting from low memory conditions
D) By intercepting network traffic between the program and external servers

Answer 390

C) By taking advantage of unexpected program behavior resulting from low memory conditions

Explanation: An attacker can exploit a memory leak by leveraging the unexpected behavior caused when a program fails to release memory properly, potentially leading to system instability or providing an opportunity to execute malicious actions.

Question 391

What does the storage buffer typically contain in a computer’s memory?

A) The data being processed by the program
B) The encryption key used to secure data
C) The return address where the processor should resume after a function call
D) The address of the next instruction to be executed

Answer 391

Correct Answer: C) The return address where the processor should resume after a function call

Explanation: In computer memory, the storage buffer often contains the return address, which indicates where the processor should continue execution after completing a function or process.

Question 392

What is a buffer overflow attack in cybersecurity?

A) An attack that encrypts sensitive data on the victim’s computer
B) An attack that intercepts network traffic between the victim and the server
C) An attack that occurs when a process attempts to store data in RAM beyond the boundaries of a fixed-length storage buffer
D) An attack that tricks users into clicking on malicious links

Answer 392

An attack that occurs when a process attempts to store data in RAM beyond the boundaries of a fixed-length storage buffer

Explanation: A buffer overflow attack exploits vulnerabilities in software by overflowing a fixed-size buffer, potentially allowing an attacker to overwrite adjacent memory locations or execute arbitrary code.

Question 393

How can an attacker exploit a buffer overflow in cybersecurity?

A) overflowing the buffer with a new address that points to the attacker’s malicious code
B) By causing deliberate crashes in the program
C) By intercepting network traffic between the program and external servers
D) By encrypting sensitive data on the victim’s computer

Answer 393

overflowing the buffer with a new address that points to the attacker’s malicious code

Question 394

What is an integer overflow in programming and cybersecurity?

A) A condition where an arithmetic operation results in a number that is smaller than expected
B) A condition where an arithmetic operation results in a number that is negative
C) A condition where an arithmetic operation exceeds the maximum size of the integer type used to store it
D) A condition where an arithmetic operation results in a number that is larger than expected

Answer 394

A condition where an arithmetic operation exceeds the maximum size of the integer type used to store it

Explanation: Integer overflow occurs when the result of an arithmetic operation exceeds the maximum value that the integer type can represent, potentially leading to unexpected behavior or vulnerabilities in software if not handled properly.

Question 395

What happens when an integer overflow occurs in programming?

A) The interpreted value remains unchanged
B) The program terminates abruptly
C) The interpreted value wraps around from the maximum value to the minimum value
D) The program outputs an error message

Answer 395

The interpreted value wraps around from the maximum value to the minimum value

Explanation: Integer overflow in programming causes the value to wrap around from the maximum representable value to the minimum representable value of the data type used to store it. This behavior can lead to unexpected results and vulnerabilities if not handled correctly in software development.

Question 396

What is the objective of an integer overflow attack in programming?

A) To cause the program to terminate unexpectedly
B) To bypass authentication mechanisms
C) To encrypt sensitive data on the victim’s computer
D) To change the value of a variable to something outside the intended range

Answer 396

D) To change the value of a variable to something outside the intended range

Explanation: In an integer overflow attack, the attacker manipulates arithmetic operations to exceed the maximum value that the variable type can hold, causing the variable’s value to wrap around unexpectedly. This can lead to unintended behavior in the program, potentially compromising security or causing system instability.

Question 397

Which of the following best describes a software vulnerability related to input handling?

A) Allowing users to enter data without specifying the data type.
B) Providing users with extensive data entry options.
C) Failing to filter or validate user input to prevent malicious actions.
D) Implementing a user-friendly interface for data input.

Answer 397

Failing to filter or validate user input to prevent malicious actions.

Question 398

Which of the following describes a programming mistake where error conditions are not adequately managed?

A) Error prevention
B) Error reporting
C) Exception handling
D) Error handling

Answer 398

Error handling

Question 399

What typically happens when an application attempts to use a NULL pointer or dereferences a NULL object?

A) It activates debugging tools to diagnose the issue.
B) It issues a warning and stops further execution.
C) It may lead to the program crashing or terminating unexpectedly.
D) It redirects execution to manage the NULL condition effectively.

Answer 399

It may lead to the program crashing or terminating unexpectedly

Question 400

What situation arises in software when two concurrent threads access a shared resource simultaneously, leading to unintended outcomes?
A) A race condition where the shared resource is accessed unpredictably.
B) A synchronization error causing threads to lose track of their sequence.
C) A deadlock scenario where both threads wait indefinitely for resources.
D) An interrupt conflict causing threads to terminate prematurely.

Answer 400

A race condition where the shared resource is accessed unpredictably

Question 401

Identify the term that describes the situation where the state of a resource changes between checking and using it:
A) Race condition
B) Synchronization issue
C) Atomic operation
D) Thread deadlock

Answer 401

Race condition

Question 402

Identify the term that describes the situation where an attacker can manipulate resource states between checking and using them in multithreaded programs:

A) Race condition
B) Time-of-check/time-of-use (TOCTOU)
C) Thread deadlock
D) Atomic operation

Answer 402

Time-of-check/time-of-use (TOCTOU)

Question 403

Which statement best describes the role of APIs in software development?

A) APIs simplify communication between hardware and software components.
B) APIs provide a standardized way to access and use specific functionalities.
C) APIs automate the process of writing code for complex algorithms.
D) APIs eliminate the need for developers to understand low-level programming languages.

Answer 403

APIs provide a standardized way to access and use specific functionalities

Question 404

Which of the following statements accurately describes the attractiveness of APIs to attackers seeking vulnerabilities?

A) APIs are primarily used for internal data storage and retrieval.
B) APIs often lack documentation, making them difficult to exploit.
C) APIs are highly standardized, reducing the likelihood of vulnerabilities.
D) APIs provide direct access to data and functions, making them appealing targets for attackers.

Answer 404

APIs provide direct access to data and functions, making them appealing targets for attackers.

Question 405

Identify the correct definition of a device driver:

A) Software that controls and operates an external hardware device linked to a computer.
B) Code designed to enhance the security of external hardware devices.
C) An application used to update firmware on external devices.
D) A utility for managing software updates on peripheral devices.

Answer 405

Software that controls and operates an external hardware device linked to a computer.

Question 406

Identify the term that best describes the process where a small code library intercepts and modifies calls between a device and its driver, thereby altering the parameters passed:
A) Wrapping
B) Hooking
C) Filtering
D) Shimming

Answer 406

Shimming

Question 407

What is the definition of refactoring in software development?

A) Writing new code to replace outdated functions.

B) Testing existing code for bugs and errors.

C) Changing the design of existing code to improve its structure.

D) Documenting code changes for future reference.

Answer 407

Changing the design of existing code to improve its structure

Question 408

Identify the term that best describes a dynamic-link library (DLL):

A) A collection of executable files for managing system resources.

B) A repository of code and data shared by multiple programs concurrently.

C) A directory containing configuration files for system applications.

D) A framework for organizing and accessing software documentation.

Answer 408

A repository of code and data shared by multiple programs concurrently.

Question 409

Identify the term that describes an attack where code is inserted into a running process through a DLL to alter the intended functionality of a program:

A) DLL injection
B) Process hijacking
C) Memory corruption
D) System overload

Answer 409

DLL injection

Question 410

Which statement accurately describes the Internet Protocol Suite (TCP/IP)?

A) It is a set of rules that governs wireless communication protocols.

B) It regulates data transmission between computers connected to a local area network (LAN).

C) It dictates how devices communicate over the Internet and encompasses several fundamental protocols.

D) It primarily focuses on securing data transmission over virtual private networks (VPNs).

Answer 410

It dictates how devices communicate over the Internet and encompasses several fundamental protocols.

Question 411

What is the primary function of IP (Internet Protocol) within the Internet Protocol Suite (TCP/IP)?

A) Ensuring secure encryption of data packets during transmission.

B) Managing the physical connections between devices in a network.

C) Handling the addressing and routing of data packets across networks.

D) Controlling the flow of data between web browsers and servers.

Answer 411

Handling the addressing and routing of data packets across networks.

Question 412

What is the primary role of TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) in data transmission?

A) Assigning IP addresses to devices on a network.

B) Ensuring the security of data packets during transmission.

C) Handling the addressing and routing of data packets across networks.

D) Ensuring reliable and ordered delivery of data between devices, managing error correction and congestion control.

Answer 412

Ensuring reliable and ordered delivery of data between devices, managing error correction and congestion control

Question 413

IP vs TCP

Answer 413

IP handles the addressing and routing of packets across networks, whereas TCP ensures reliable and ordered delivery of data between applications.

Question 414

Which statement best describes the role of UDP (User Datagram Protocol) in data transmission?

A) UDP ensures secure encryption of data packets during transmission.

B) UDP manages the physical connections between devices in a network.

C) UDP handles the addressing and routing of data packets across networks.

D) UDP offers faster but less reliable transmission compared to TCP, used in applications where speed is more important than guaranteed delivery.

Answer 414

UDP offers faster but less reliable transmission compared to TCP, used in applications where speed is more important than guaranteed delivery.

Question 415

How does TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) establish a connection between devices?

A) By assigning unique IP addresses to devices on a network.

B) By encrypting data packets during transmission to ensure security.

C) By using a three-step process called a three-way handshake.

D) By handling the addressing and routing of data packets across networks.

Answer 415

By using a three-step process called a three-way handshake

Question 416

What does TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) use to ensure reliable data transmission?

A) IP addresses for uniquely identifying devices on a network.

B) Encryption techniques to secure data packets during transmission.

C) A character string called a checksum and a sequence number for each segment.

D) Physical connections between devices in a network.

Answer 416

A character string called a checksum and a sequence number for each segment.

Question 417

What role does a checksum play in data transmission?

A) Assigning unique identifiers to devices on a network.

B) Encrypting data packets for secure transmission.

C) Verifying the integrity of transmitted data by detecting changes or corruption.

D) Managing the flow of data packets across networks.

Answer 417

Verifying the integrity of transmitted data by detecting changes or corruption.

Explanation:
A checksum is a calculated value that acts like a unique fingerprint for a piece of data. It is computed before sending data and recalculated upon receipt. The purpose of the checksum is to detect any changes, corruption, or errors that may have occurred during transmission. This ensures data integrity and reliability in communication protocols like TCP (Transmission Control Protocol).