Inflammation + male repro Flashcards

1
Q

What type of immunity is defective with SCID? What are the major causes of SCID?

A

Humoral AND cell-mediated

  1. Cytokine receptor defects – IL-2 Receptor gamma chain deficiency – X-linked recessive!!
  2. Adenosine deaminase deficiency - autosomal recessive disorder, without deamination there is toxic accumulation within the lymphocytes
  3. MHC class II deficiency – recognized by CD4+ T cells which then helps T and B cells, so if it is missing, then you get defective function of T and B cells
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2
Q

What 3 types of infections are you predisposed to when you lack immunoglobulins (ex. in Brutons agammaglobulinemia)?

A
  1. recurrent bacterial infections [b/c lack of opsonization]
  2. enterovirus infections
  3. Giardia infections [IgA protects mucosa of GI tract and giardia binds mucosa of GI tract]
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3
Q

What are findings with common variable immunodeficiency and what do these pts have an increased risk of?

A
  • low immunoglobulins and plasma cells
  • increased risk for autoimmune diseases and lymphoma

**acquired disease!

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4
Q

Pts with which GI disease has a high propensity for IgA deficiency?

A

Celiac disease

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5
Q

Pts with hyper-IgM syndrome have increased risk of which infections?

A

pyogenic infections (b/c lack of IgG and IgG is an opsonin)

mucosal infections (lack of IgA)

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6
Q

What is autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome?

A

mutation in AIRE gene within the medullar epithelial cell – therefore some subset of self-antigens cannot be presented to developing T cells during negative selection and therefore those cells that do not get exposed to the subset are released in to the periphery and there are self-reactive lymphocytes within the periphery

Presents with..

  1. hypoparathyroidism
  2. Adrenal failure
  3. chronic candida infections of skin and mucosa
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7
Q

What two cells present self-antigens to developing T cells in the medulla of the thymus?

A
  1. dendritic cell

2. medullary epithelial cell

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8
Q

What is Peripheral tolerance? What happens if there is a defect in the apoptotic pathway?

A

Antigen recognized in peripheral tissue without co-stim receptor cell immune cell undergoes apoptosis/anergy – 2nd signal is required for T cell to become active

autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS) – mutation of the Fas apoptosis pathway (Fas-L, Fas (CD95) [most common] or caspase def) allowing for survival or self-reactive lymphocytes leading to IgG production in the blood, proliferation of lymphocytes that are self-reacting, and hepatosplenomegaly – these patients may progress to lymphoma

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9
Q

What receptors are found on regulatory T cells?

A

CD4+ CD25+ FoxP3+

CD25+ = IL-2R, so regulatory T-cells are dependent on T cells for growth and survival

FoxP3+ = transcription factor required for development and maintenance of regulatory T cells

**there may be autoimmunity due to CD25 polymorphism and FOXP3 mutation (IPEX syndrome)

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10
Q

What two genes are association with autoimmunity?

A
  1. HLA subtypes
  2. PTPN22 = tyrosine phosphatase and mutations/polymorphisms result in gain of function which decreases signaling necessary for functioning

**there also needs to be an environmental trigger on top of mutations/polymorphisms

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of SLE?

A

RASH OR PAIN

Rash
Arthritis ( non-erosive)
Serositis
Hematologic disorders (decreased complement (esp Cw), cytopenia) [esp due to TYPE II HSN REACTION]
Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers
Renal disease
Photosensitivity
Antinuclear antibodies
Immunologic disorder
Neurologic disorders
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12
Q

Which antibodies are sensitive and specific for lupus?

A
SENSITIVE = Anti-ANA
SPECIFIC = Anti-dsDNA and anti-Sm

Anti-dsDNA – can be used to follow disease activity and prognosis

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13
Q

What is anti-phospholipid antibody?

A

Anti-phospholipid antibody + hypercoagulable state

increases risk of DVT, hepatic vein thrombosis, placental thrombosis and cerebral thrombosis

**these pts require lifelong anticoagulation

Although anti-phospholipid antibody interferes with PTT test and shows an elevated PTT (thinking that the pt can’t coagulate their blood), these pts actually present with a hypercoagulable state.

**this may be associated with lupus, but is more commonly its own entity

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14
Q

What is the effect of an Anti-SSA positive mother on her fetus?

A

Neonatal lupus and congenital heart block – Anti-SSA can cross the placenta

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15
Q

Which two molecules are responsible for a majority of fibrosis formation?

A

TGF-B and PDGF

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16
Q

Which antibody is present in mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Anti-ANA PLUS Anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein

17
Q

Which antibody is present in diffuse type scleroderma?

A

Anti-topoisomerase I antibodies (anti-Scl-70)

[CREST syndrome has anti-centromere Ab – this is the limited type scleroderma]

18
Q

What is the cause of epispadias?

A

Abnormal positioning of the genital tubercle on the SUPERIOR of the penis

19
Q

What is autoimmune orchitis?

A

granulomatous inflammation of the seminiferous tubules [you may also see this in tuberculosis, but in TB you can test for acid-fast bacilli]

20
Q

What cancer are varicoceles associated with?

A

Left-sided renal cell carcinoma [due to invasion of the renal vein blocking testicular drainage]

21
Q

What are risk factors for testicular germ cell tumors?

A

Cryptorchidism and Klinefelter syndrome

22
Q

What is embryonal carcinoma of the testes?

A

malignant tumor of immature, primitive cells that MAY FORM GLANDS, Hemorrhagic mass with necrosis due to primitive tumor that grows rapidly – hematogenous spread early – chemotherapy can cause differentiation of the primitive cells

*secretes B-hCG and AFP

23
Q

Which cell in testicular choriocarcinoma secretes B-hCG?

A

syncytiotrophoblasts – watch out for b-HCG b/c it has the same alpha subunit as FSH, LH and TSH so it can stimulate those receptors leading to potential hyperthyroidism or gynecomastia

24
Q

What is the major difference b/t ovarian vs testicular teratomas?

A

Ovarian - BENIGN

Testicular - MALIGNANT

25
Q

What is the most common cause of testicular mass in males over the age of 60?

A

diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

26
Q

Which part of the prostate is affected by benign prostatic hypertrophy?

A

Periurethral zone of prostate – which is why problems urinating are one of the first symptoms

27
Q

Which part of the prostate is originally affected in prostatic adenocarcinoma?

A

Posterior periphery of the prostate [usually clinically silent and does not cause symptoms – so you screen the pt]

28
Q

How do you grade prostatic adenocarcinoma?

A

Gleason grading system – based on architecture NOT nuclear atypia – you take a few biopsies and then add the scores together