Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 fungal diseases focused on and what species is most affected by each?

A

Blastomyces: dogs
Histoplasma: cats
Coccidiodes: dogs
Cryptococcus: cats

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2
Q

What is the route of transmission for all of these fungal infections?

A

Inhalation

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3
Q

What organs are affected by all four species of fungal infections?

A
Lungs
Eyes
Skin
LN’s
bones
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4
Q

What organism causes GI signs?

A

Histoplasma

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5
Q

What organisms cause CNS signs?

A

Cryptococcus

Coccidiodes

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6
Q

What organism causes problems w/in the nasal cavity?

A

Cryptococcus

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7
Q

What organism causes pericardial problems?

A

Coccidiodes

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8
Q

What organism predominantly causes skin issues?

A

Blastomyces

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9
Q

What organism is antibody used to diagnose?

A

Coccidiodes

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10
Q

What organisms use antigen to diagnose?

A

Blatomyces, histoplasma, cryptococcus

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11
Q

What organisms is antigen found in the urine?

A

Histoplasma and blastomyces

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12
Q

What organism is antigen found in the CSF and aqueous humor?

A

Cryptococcus

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13
Q

What diagnostic method is the most definitive for all of these fungals?

A

Demonstration of organism in aspirate, biopsy, or exudate

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14
Q

What organism commonly doesn’t cause fever and the luekogram will be normal?

A

Cryptococcus

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15
Q

Why would there be hypercalcemia with fungal infections?

A

Granulomatous disease

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16
Q

Which fungal infections would cause proteinuria?

A

All of them

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17
Q

What is unique about a fever caused by fungal agents?

A

Unresponsive to Abx

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18
Q

What pulmonary pattern is most commonly seen with fungal infections?

A

Diffuse interstitial nodular pattern

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19
Q

What pulmonary pattern can be seen with fungal infections?

A

Any

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20
Q

Which fungals cause pulmonary patterns?

A

All of them

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21
Q

Which fungal agent doesn’t invade bone?

A

Cryptococcus

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22
Q

What bone lesions would be seen on radiograph with fungal disease?

A

Proliferative and lytic, but mostly proliferative

Looks like osteosarcoma

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23
Q

How long should cryptococcus be treated for?

A

1 month past negative serum antigen

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24
Q

Which fungal organism is most difficult to treat?

A

Coccidiodes

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25
Q

How long should fungal infections other than cryptococcus be treated for?

A

At least 60 days

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26
Q

Other than anti-fungals, what drugs can you use to alleviate symptoms?

A

Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation

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27
Q

What forms of fungal disease would you most definitely use corticosteroids for?

A

Systemic
CNS
Respiratory

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28
Q

Where is coccidiodes found?

A

SW US, central and south america

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29
Q

Where is cryptococcus found?

A

Everywhere

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30
Q

Where are blastomyces and histoplasma found?

A

Missouri, Mississippi, Ohio

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31
Q

What antifungal would you use for a fungal infection involving the CNS, eyes, or prostate?

A

Fluconazole

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32
Q

What antifungal kills fungus the fastest and is most useful in the critically ill patient?

A

Amphotericin B

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33
Q

What is important to remember about amphotericin B?

A

It is nephrotoxic

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34
Q

Which two antifungals should be given with food?

A

Ketoconazol

Itraconazol

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35
Q

What antifungal can cause dermal eruptions?

A

Itraconazol

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36
Q

What antifungal is the most hepatotoxic and causes vomiting and diarrhea?

A

Ketoconazol

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37
Q

What virus mutates to cause FIP?

A

Feline coronavirus

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38
Q

What does the mutation allow the virus to do?

A

Enter macrophages

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39
Q

How is FIP transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route

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40
Q

What cats are more likely to develop FIP (age, sex, etc)?

A

Intact males

cats <2 yrs and >10 yrs

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41
Q

Do asymptomatic carriers of coronavirus shed the virus? If so how often?

A

Yes

Can be continuously or intermittently

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42
Q

What are the two forms of FIP?

A

Effusive or wet

Non-effusive or dry

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43
Q

What are the hallmarks of the effusive form of FIP?

A

Abdominal distension
Pleural effusion leading to respiratory distress
Scrotal swelling
Icterus

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44
Q

What are the hallmarks of the non-effusive form of FIP?

A

Pyogranulomatous pneumonia
Ocular lesions
Enlarged mesenteric LN’s
Hepatic and renal insufficiency

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45
Q

What are clinical signs associated with both forms of FIP?

A

Fever unresponsive to Abx
Weight loss
Lethargy and depression

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46
Q

What form of immunity when inadequate is associated with development of FIP?

A

Cell-mediated

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47
Q

What is the difference in formation of effusive vs non-effusive FIP?

A

Partial cell mediated response=non-effusive
Poor cell mediated response=effusive
Dry form is pyogranulomatous inflammation
Effusive form is leaky vessels from complement mediated vasculitis

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48
Q

How would you diagnose FIP?

A

Histopath is the gold standard:

  • Biopsy affected tissue
  • Look for perivascular granulomatous inflammation

IHC: coronavirus antigen in fluid or tissue biopsy

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49
Q

How would you treat FIP?

A
  • Fatal disease w/o cure
  • Use broad spectrum abx to prevent secondary disease
  • Immunosuppressants and NSAIDs to decrease vasculitis
  • abdominocentesis/thoracocentesis to alleviate effusion/respiratory distress
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50
Q

How is FIV transmitted? What cats are at greater risk?

A
  • Fighting and biting via blood and saliva

* Intact male cats that are outdoors

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51
Q

What cells does the FIV virus infect?

A

CD4 T cells and macrophages

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52
Q

What tissues does the FIV virus replicate in?

A

Lymphoid tissues

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53
Q

When does the viremia for FIV take place?

A

2-4 weeks PI

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54
Q

What is the general effect of FIV?

A
  • Lymphocyte function is impaired

* Opportunistic infections and neoplasia occur

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55
Q

What are the 3 phases of FIV clinical disease?

A

Acute
chronic
Terminal

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56
Q

What occurs in the acute phase of FIV?

A
  • Fever
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Dermatitis
  • General lymphadenomegaly
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57
Q

What occurs in the chronic phase of FIV?

A

Asymptomatic

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58
Q

What occurs in the terminal phase of FIV?

A
  • General lymphadenopathy
  • AIDS
  • Opportunistic infection, wasting, neoplasia
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59
Q

What kind of diagnostics can you use to confirm FIV?

A
  • Serology for antibody

* Confirm with western blot

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60
Q

Why should you retest FIV positive kittens after 6 months?

A

Maternal ab (serology can’t tell difference)

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61
Q

When would you get a FIV false negative and why?

A
  • Acute stage before viremia has peaked

* Terminal phase because the antibody has all been used up

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62
Q

If you suspect FIV and a cat tests negative when would you retest?

A

8-12 weeks later

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63
Q

Why would you not use griseofulvin for dermatophyte infections in FIV+ cats?

A

Neutropenia

64
Q

How is FeLV transmitted?

A

Saliva and nasal secretions of persistent active infected cats (grooming)

65
Q

What cats are more susceptible to FeLV?

A

Young

66
Q

What cells does the FeLV virus initially replicate in?

A

Macrophages, B cells, and T cells of mouth and throat

67
Q

What tissue does the FeLV virus progress to?

A

Bone marrow

68
Q

At what point is bone marrow infected with FeLV infection?

A

2-6 weeks PI

69
Q

If the immune system fails to contain FeLV viral replication, what happens?

A

Persistent viremia and persistent shedding

70
Q

What are the 4 possible outcomes of FeLV?

A

Abortive
Regressive
Progressive
Focal

71
Q

What occurs in the abortive stage of FeLV?

A
  • Effective immune response
  • No viremia = no antigenic detection
  • Elevated Ab’s
72
Q

What occurs in the regressive stage of FeLV?

A
  • antigen detection prior to bone marrow infection
  • +/-Bone marrow infection
  • If no infection, viremia controlled -> no antigen detected
  • If infected, viremia persists -> antigen detection
  • viremia cleared, proviral DNA remains in BM
    stem cells
  • no antigen detection
  • proviral DNA can be detected by PCR
  • No shedding
  • Can be reactivated
73
Q

What occurs in the progressive phase of FeLV?

A

Persistent viremia and shedding = antigen detection
Proviral FeLV can be detected by PCR
Die within a few years

74
Q

What occurs in the focal stage of FeLV?

A
  • Persistent local viral replication

* May or may not detect antigen

75
Q

What are the clinical signs of FeLV?

A

Leukopenia and immune suppression

76
Q

What forms of FeLV are there?

A
  • Degenerative: leukopenia, nonreg. anemia, thrombocytopenia

* Proliferative resulting in leukemias and lymphosarcomas

77
Q

What diagnostic tests can you use to diagnose FeLV?

A

ELISA detects p27 antigen in blood (serum) during viremia:
* Early detection

IFA on blood smear detects p27 antigen in cells:

  • Indicates bone marrow involvement
  • Active viremia and shedding
78
Q

What vaccine is best for FeLV?

A

Whole inactivated virus with adjuvant

79
Q

What negative outcome of FeLV vaccination can occur?

A

Sarcoma

80
Q

How is RMSF transmitted?

A

Tick bites:

  • Dermacentor
  • Rhipicephalus
81
Q

Where does the RMSF organism replicate?

A

Endothelium

82
Q

What are the results of endothelial replication?

A
  • Vasculitis
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Edema
  • Thrombosis
83
Q

What are the clinical signs of RMSF?

A
Fever
Edema
petechiae/ecchymoses
Lymphadenomegaly
Polyarthritis
Vomiting and diarrhea
84
Q

How would you diagnose RMSF?

A

IFA and ELISA:
* Look for 4 fold rise in titers

IHC:

  • Biopsy lesion and look for organism
  • Not useful after 2 weeks infection
85
Q

How would you treat RMSF?

A
  • Tetracycline PO TID 2-3 weeks

* IV doxy if patient is vomiting

86
Q

How is E. canis transmitted?

A

Tick bite

Rhipicephalus

87
Q

What cells does the E. canis organism infect?

A

Macrophages

Monocytes

88
Q

What tissues does E. canis replicate in?

A

Spleen, LN’s, liver monocytes

89
Q

What are clinical signs caused from with E. canis?

A

Infected monocytes damage endothelium and cause vasculitis

90
Q

What lab abnormalities would you see with E. canis?

A
Thrombocytopenia
Anemia
Leukopenia
Azotemia
Proteinuria
Increased liver enzymes
91
Q

What are the clinical signs of E. canis infection?

A
Acute:
Fever
Epistaxis
Splenomegaly
Petechiae
Chronic:
Fever
Weight loss
Epistaxis
Edema
Polyarthropathy
Ocular lesions
Secondary infections
92
Q

How would you diagnose E. canis?

A
  • IFA titer greater than 1:20

* Visualize morula in monocyte (difficult)

93
Q

How would you treat E. canis

A

Tetracycline for 3 weeks

94
Q

What is hemotropic mycoplasma?

A

M. haemofelis

95
Q

How is it M. haemofelis transmitted?

A

Blood

96
Q

What does infection with M. haemofelis cause?

A

Acute hemolytic anemia

97
Q

What species does M. haemofelis infect?

A

Cats

98
Q

What are the clinical signs of M. haemofelis?

A

Signs of hemolytic anemia:

  • Pale mm’s
  • Icterus
  • Fever
  • Splenomegaly
99
Q

How would you diagnose M. haemofelis?

A
  • PCR is best
  • Blood smear to visualize organism attached to RBC
    Use heparin
100
Q

How would you treat M. haemofelis?

A

Doxy

Eradication may not be possible

101
Q

What does Bartonellosis cause in humans?

A

Cat scratch fever

102
Q

What does bartonellosis cause in animals?

A

Endocarditis

103
Q

How would you diagnose bartonellosis?

A
  • PCR blood or tissue

* Requires special culture media

104
Q

How would you treat bartonellosis?

A

Doxy

105
Q

What is the definitive host of toxoplasmosis?

A

Cats

106
Q

What species does toxoplasma go through its entire life-cycle?

A

Cats

107
Q

What species does intestinal infection of toxoplasma occur?

A

Cats

108
Q

What is the general lifecycle of toxoplasma?

A

Oocyst—-sporozoites—bradyzoites—tachyzoites

109
Q

How do cats acquire toxoplasmosis?

A
  • Ingestion of oocysts
  • Ingestion of tissue with bradyzoites
  • Transplacental with tachyzoites
110
Q

What life stage of toxoplasma spreads via the lymph and blood?

A

Tachyzoites

111
Q

What organs are clinical signs of toxoplasmosis associated with?

A
CNS
Eyes
Lungs
Muscle
Liver
112
Q

When does oocyst shedding occur?

A

First 1-2 weeks of infection when patient is asymptomatic

113
Q

What diagnostic methods can you use for toxoplasma?

A

Demonstrate organism in aspirates or biopsy

Serology:

  • IgM greater than 1:64
  • 4 fold increase in IgG
114
Q

What would you use to treat toxoplasmosis?

A

Clindamycin

TMS

115
Q

What species does American Hepatozoonosis affect?

A

Dogs

116
Q

What is hepatozoon americanum?

A

Protozoa

117
Q

Where is American Hepatozoonosis in the US?

A

SE

118
Q

How is American Hepatozoonosis transmitted?

A

Ingestion of amblyomma tick with sporozoites

119
Q

How does American hepatozoonosis protoza infect tissues?

A

Enter intestinal cells then travel by blood or lymph to other tissues

120
Q

What are the clinical signs of american hepatozoonosis?

A

Sporadic fever
Generalized muscle atrophy
Ocular discharge
Muscle and joint pain

121
Q

How would you diagnose american hepatozoonosis?

A
  • Muscle biopsy

* Blood smear organism in leukocyte

122
Q

What radiologic change would you see with american hepatozoonosis?

A

Periosteal proliferation of long bones

123
Q

How would you treat american hepatozoonosis?

A
  • Clindamycin
  • Long term decoquinate
  • Can’t eliminate from tissue
124
Q

How is babesia gibsoni transmitted?

A

Tick or dog bites

125
Q

How is babesia canis transmitted?

A

Tick bites
Rhipicephalus
Dermacentor

126
Q

Where is babesia found in the US?

A

SE

127
Q

What species and what age are most affected by babesia?

A

Dogs

Less than 6 months

128
Q

Is babesia a bacteria/virus/protozoa? What cell does it infect?

A

Protozoa

RBCs

129
Q

What does babesia infections cause?

A

Intravascular and extravascular hemolysis

130
Q

What are the clinical signs of babesia infections?

A
Hemolytic anemia
Spleen and LN enlargement
Vomiting
Sporadic fever
Weight loss
Coma
DIC
131
Q

How would you diagnose babesia?

A
  • PCR is best
  • Blood smear with organism in RBC
  • IFA titer greater than 1:80
132
Q

What would you use to treat babesia?

A

Imidocarb
Diminazene
Phenimidine

133
Q

What organism causes Lyme disase?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

134
Q

How is Lyme disease transmitted?

A

Ixodes tick

135
Q

Where is Lyme disease found in the US?

A

Eastern

136
Q

What are the clinical signs of Lyme disease?

A

Arthropathy
PLN
Lethargy and inappetance

137
Q

How would you diagnose Lyme disease?

A

Serology:

  • ELISA
  • Western Blot
  • Both can differentiate between Vx and infected
138
Q

How would you treat Lyme disease?

A

Tetracycline for 3-4 weeks

139
Q

What cell does anaplasma phagocytophilia infect?

A

Platelets

140
Q

What are the presenting signs of anaplasma phagocytophilia?

A
Thrombocytopenia
Fever
Anorexia 
Lethargy
Neuromuscular signs
Lymphadenomegaly
141
Q

What is Leishmaniasis?

A

Protozoal infection

142
Q

What transmits Leishmania?

A

Sandflies

143
Q

Where is Leishmania found?

A

Mediterranean and Eastern US

144
Q

What are clinical signs of Leishmaniasis?

A
Skin lesions and nodules
Alopecia
Mucocutaneous ulcers
Epistaxis
Enlarged spleen and LN’s
Vomiting
Fever
Poor BCS
145
Q

What cells does the protozoa infect?

A

Macrophages and monocytes

146
Q

How would you diagnose Leishmaniasis?

A

Cytology from LN or bone marrow:
* Organism in the macrophages

PCR

ELISA or IFA

147
Q

How do you treat Leishmaniasis?

A

Amphotericin B
Allopurinol
Pentavalent antimonials

148
Q

Where is trypanosomiasis transmitted in the US?

A

South

149
Q

What is the vector of trypanosomiasis?

A

Kissing bug

150
Q

What are the clinical signs of trypanosomiasis?

A

Cardiac myocyte injury
Right sided heart failure
Dilatative cardiomyopathy

151
Q

How would you diagnose trypanosomiasis?

A

Blood smear ID organism

Concurrent associated radiographic changes to the heart

152
Q

How would you treat trypanosomiasis?

A
  • Treat heart failure

* Nifurtimox is experimental drug

153
Q

What is a unique feature of mycoplasma important for diagnostics and treatment?

A

No cell wall

  • Can’t gram stain
  • Can’t use abx aimed at cell wall
154
Q

What clinical signs are seen in cats with mycoplasma infections?

A

Conjunctivitis
Polyarthritis
Respiratory disease

155
Q

What clinical signs are seen in dogs with mycoplasma infections?

A
UTI
Orchitis
Vaginitis
Polyarthritis
Respiratory disease
156
Q

How would you diagnose a suspected mycoplasma infection?

A

Notify the lab for culture using appropriate media

157
Q

How would you treat mycoplasma infection?

A
Abx that inhibit nucleic acid or protein synthesis:
Tetracycline
Tylosin
Lincomycin
Fluoroquinolones
chloramphenicol