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Review For Board Exam > Immunology/Serology Pre-Test > Flashcards

Immunology/Serology Pre-Test Flashcards

1
Q

Metchnikoff first described which of the following?

a. Phagocytosis
b. Variolation
c. Humoral immunity
d. Opsonization

A

Phagocytosis

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2
Q

The first line of defense in protecting the body from
infection includes all the following components except:

a. Unbroken skin
b. Normal microbial flora
c. Phagocytic leukocytes
d. Secretions such as mucus

A

Phagocytic leukocytes

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3
Q

Natural immunity is characterized as being:

a. Innate or inborn

b. Able to recognize exogenous or endogenous agents specifically

c. Able to eliminate exogenous or endogenous agents selectively

d. Part of the first line of body defenses against microbial organisms

A

Innate or inborn

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4
Q

A synonym for an antigenic determinant is:

a. Immunogen
b. Epitope
c. Binding site
d. Polysaccharide

A

Epitope

Note:
Epitope, also known as antigenic determinant, is the part of an antigen that is recognized by the immune system, specifically by antibodies, B cells, or T cells. The part of an antibody that binds to the epitope is called a paratope.

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5
Q

The chemical composition of an antibody is:

a. Protein
b. Lipid
c. Carbohydrate
d. Any of the above

A

Protein

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6
Q

The site of hematopoiesis in the first month of gestation

a. Yolk sac
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Bone marrow

A

Yolk sac

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7
Q

Flocculation procedures differ from latex agglutination procedures because:

a. Antigen is bound to a carrier.

b. Antibody is bound to a carrier.

c. Soluble antigen reacts with antibody.

d. Flocculation procedures are only qualitative.

A

Soluble antigen reacts with antibody.

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8
Q

A hapten is

a. Half of an immunoglobulin molecule

b. A earner molecule for an antigen that is not antigenic alone

c. An immunoglobulin functional only in the presence of complement

d. A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier

A

A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier

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9
Q

What is a lymphokine?

a. A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes and affecting lymphocytes

b. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes

c. A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells

d. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes

A

A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes

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10
Q

Cell-mediated immunity is primarily mediated by

a. B cells
b. T helper cells
c. Plasma cells
d. Dendritic cells

A

T helper cells

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11
Q

The HLA complex is located primarily on

a. Chromosomes
b. Chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 9
d. Chromosome 17

A

Chromosome 6

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12
Q

Type I hypersensitivity is

a. Associated with complement mediated cell lysis

b. Due to immune complex deposition

c. Mediated by activated macrophages

d. An immediate allergic reaction

A

An immediate allergic reaction

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13
Q

In bone marrow transplantation, immunocompetent cells in the donor marrow may recognize antigens in the recipient and respond to those antigens. This phenomenon is an example of

a. Acute rejection
b. Chronic rejection
c. Graft versus host disease
d. Hyperacute rejection

A

Graft versus host disease

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14
Q

The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent antigen is termed the

a. Affinity
b. Avidity
c. Reactivity
d. Valence

A

Avidity

Note:

-Affinity is the interaction between a single antigen binding site at the antibody and an antigen epitope, whereas avidity is the total strength of interaction between a multimeric antigen and a multivalent antibody.

-Number of antigenic determinant in a protein is called the valency of antigen

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15
Q

The Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test for syphilis is classified as a(n)

a. Agglutination reaction
b. Flocculation reaction
c. Hemagglutination reaction
d. Precipitation reaction

A

Flocculation reaction

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16
Q

The portion of an antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called a(n)

a. Allergin
b. Avidin
c. Epitope
d. Valence

A

Epitope

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17
Q

The first serologic marker to appear in patients with acute hepatitis B virus infection is

a. Anti-HB
b. Anti-HBc
c. Anti-HBe
d. HBsAg

A

HBsAg

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18
Q

he serologic marker during the “window period” of hepatitis B is:

a. Anti-HBs
b. Anti-HBc
c. Anti-HBe
d. HBsAg

A

Anti-HBc

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19
Q

The least immunogenic transplant tissue:

a. Bone marrow
b. Cornea
c. Heart
d. Skin

A

Cornea

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20
Q

Macrophages have specific names according to their tissue location. Macrophages in the liver are:

a. Alveolar macrophages
b. Kupffer cells
c. Microglial cells
d. Histiocytes

A

Kupffer cells

Notes:
-Alveolar macrophages- Lungs
-Microglial cells- Brain
-Histiocytes- Connective tissue

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21
Q

In which area of the lymph node are T cells mainly found:

a. Germinal center
b. Primary follicles
c. Paracortex
d. Sinusoids

A

Paracortex

22
Q

Transfer of tissues and organs between genetically identical individuals such as identical twins:

a. Autograft
b. Syngraft
c. Xenograft
d. Allograft

A

Syngraft

Notes:
-Autograft- A graft of tissue from one point to another of the same individual’s body.

-Allograft- The transplant of an organ, tissue, or cells from one individual to another individual of the same species who is not an identical twin.

-Xenograft- The transplant of an organ, tissue, or cells to an individual of another species.

23
Q

Fetus can be considered as an:

a. Autograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Xenograft

A

Allograft

24
Q

The prozone phenomenon can:

  1. Result from excessive antibody concentration
  2. Result in false positive reaction
  3. Result in false negative reaction
  4. Be overcome by serially diluting the antibody containing serum

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4

A

1, 3 and 4

25
Q

In infected blood, Treponema pallidum does not appear to survive at 4C for more than:

a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d. 4 days

A

3 days

26
Q

Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, demonstrates which phenomenon?

a. Natural Immunity
b. Cross-immunity
c. Attenuation of vaccines
d. Reactivity of haptens

A

Cross-immunity

27
Q

In searching for a cure for TB, Koch was first to observe which phenomenon?

a. Bacterial aggln.
b. Precipitation
c. Phagocytosis
d. Delayed hypersensitivity

A

Delayed hypersensitivity

28
Q

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

IgM

29
Q

Which immunoglobulin appears in highest titer in the secondary response?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

IgG

30
Q

Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

IgG

31
Q

Which immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

IgE

32
Q

Toll-like receptors are found on which cells?

a. T cells
b. Dendritic cells
c. B cells
d. Large granular lymphocytes

A

Dendritic cells

33
Q

What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test?

a. Live treponemal organisms

b. Killed suspension of treponemal organisms

c. Cardiolipin

d. Tanned sheep cells

A

Cardiolipin

34
Q

Which of the following is the most sensitive test to detect congenital syphilis?

a. VDRL

b. RPR

c. Microhemagglutinin test for T. pallidum (MHA-TP)

d. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

35
Q

Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis?

a. Serum sample
b. Chancre fluid
c. CSF
d. Joint fluid

A

CSF

36
Q

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV?

a. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

b. Immunofluorescence, Western blot, radioimmuno-precipitation assay

c. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification

d. Reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA (mRNA) assay

A

ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

37
Q

Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for HIV?

a. ELISA and rapid antibody tests

b. Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction

c. Culture, antigen capture assay, polymerase chain reaction

d. Reverse transcriptase and mRNA assay

A

Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction

38
Q

Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?

a. Band at p24
b. Band at gp60
c. Bands at p24 and p31
d. Bands at p24 and gp120

A

Bands at p24 and gp120

39
Q

Why is skin testing the most widely used method to test for a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

a. It causes less trauma and is more cost effective than other methods

b. It has greater sensitivity than in vitro measurements

c. It is more likely to be positive for IgE-specific allergens than other methods

d. It may be used to predict the development of further allergen sensitivity

A

It has greater sensitivity than in vitro measurements

40
Q

What is an advantage of performing a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test for prostate cancer?

a. PSA is stable in serum and not affected by a digital-rectal examination

b. PSA is increased only in prostatic malignancy

c. A normal serum level rules out malignant prostatic disease

d. The percentage of free PSA is elevated in persons with malignant disease

A

PSA is stable in serum and not affected by a digital-rectal examination

41
Q

Which of the following serial dilutions contains an incorrect factor?

a. 1:4, 1:8, 1:16
b. 1:1, 1:2, 1:4
c. 1:5, 1:15, 1:45
d. 1:2, 1:6, 1:12

A

1:2, 1:6, 1:12

42
Q

Corneal tissue may be transplanted
successfully from one patient to another because

a. The cornea is nonantigenic

b. Corneal antigens do not activate T cells

c. Anticorneal antibodies are easily suppressed

d. The cornea occupies a privileged site not usually seen by the immune system

A

The cornea occupies a privileged site not usually seen by the immune system

43
Q

Hashimoto disease is an autoimmune disease primarily involving the

a. Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Lungs
d. Thyroid gland

A

Thyroid gland

44
Q

Antinuclear antibody tests are performed to help diagnose?

a. acute leukemia
b. lupus erythematosus
c. hemolytic anemia
d. Crohn disease

A

lupus erythematosus

45
Q

What is Avidity?

a. degree of hemolysis
b. titer of an antigen
c. dilution of an antibody
d. strength of a reacting antibody

A

strength of a reacting antibody

46
Q

An example of a live attenuated vaccine used for human immunization is:

a. rabies
b. tetanus
c. hepatitis B
d. measles

A

measles

47
Q

Nonspecific killing of tumor cells is
carried out by:

a. cytotoxic T cells
b. helper T cells
c. natural killer cells
d. antibody and complement

A

natural killer cells

48
Q

Where does differentiation of T cells occur?

a. Thyroid
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Liver

A

Thymus

49
Q

Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions?

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgM

A

IgA

50
Q

Reactions to latex are caused by

a. type I hypersensitivity.
b. type IV hypersensitivity.
c. skin irritation.
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

Review For Board Exam (10 decks)

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