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Review For Board Exam > Hematology Pre-Test > Flashcards

Hematology Pre-Test Flashcards

1
Q

Gauge of the needle indicating the largest bore is:

a. 16 gauge
b. 19 gauge
c. 21 gauge
d. 23 gauge

A

16 gauge

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2
Q

What is the anticoagulant of choice for the osmotic fragility test?

a. Heparin
b. Double oxalate
c. EDTA
d. Potassium Oxalate

A

Heparin

Note:

Osmotic fragility test- A blood test which works to see if red blood cells have a tendency to break apart easily. ‌ Two conditions that can cause this to happen are called thalassemia and hereditary spherocytosis (HS). These conditions cause the red blood cells to be more likely to break and become a smaller size.

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3
Q

Hemoglobin migration pattern on cellulose acetate from point of application to anode is:

a. C < F < A2 < A < S
b. C < S < A and A2 < F
c. C and A2 < S < F < A
d. C < A < F < S < A2

A

C and A2 < S < F < A

Note:

The slowest moving hemoglobin are A2 and C, both of which are bigger in size or have a greater negative charge. They are followed by S, F, and then A, which travels faster and is usually smaller or has a lower net charge.

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4
Q

Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

a. a false increase in hematocrit value

b. a false decrease in hematocrit value

c. no effect in hematocrit value

d. all of the above, depending on the patient

A

a false increase in hematocrit value

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5
Q

Variation in red cell size observed on the peripheral smear is described as:

a. Anisocytosis
b. Hypochromia
c. Poikilocytosis
d. Pleocytosis

A

Anisocytosis

Notes:
-Hypochromia- Red blood cells have less color than normal. Occurs when there is not enough of the pigment that carries oxygen (hemoglobin) in the red blood cells.

-Poikilocytosis- Red blood cells with abnormal shapes.

-Pleocytosis- Increased cell count

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6
Q

Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?

a. Iliac crest
b. Sternum
c. Tibia
d. Spinous processes of a vertebra

A

Iliac crest

Note:
The optimum site of puncture for children under the age of 2 years is the upper end of the tibia and for older children the posterior crest of the ileum.

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7
Q

Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated using the
following formula

a. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 10
b. (Hct ÷ RBC) × 10
c. (Hct ÷ Hgb) × 100
d. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 100

A

(Hct (%) ÷ RBC (x10^12)) × 10 = fL

-Normal range of MCV is 80-100 fL

Notes:

MCH (pg)= (Hgb (g/dL) ÷ RBC (x10^12)) × 10

-Normal range of MCH is 27-32 pg

MCHC (g/dL)= (Hgb (g/dL) ÷ Hct (%)) x 100

-Normal range of MCHC is 32-36 g/dL

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8
Q

What is the appropriate reagent for the reticulocyte count?

a. New methylene blue

b. Phyloxine B

c. Solution lyses erythrocytes and darkens the cells to be counted

d. Eosin

A

New methylene blue

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9
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate safety practice?

a. Disposing of needles in biohazard, puncture-proof containers

b. Frequent handwashing

c. Sterilizing lancets for reuse

d. Keeping food out of the same areas as specimens

A

Sterilizing lancets for reuse

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10
Q

When the coagulation of fresh whole blood is prevented through the use of an anticoagulant, the straw-colored fluid that can be separated from the cellular elements is

a. serum
b. plasma
c. whole blood
d. platelets

A

plasma

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11
Q

The bevel of the needle should be held _____ in the performance of a venipuncture.

a. sideways
b. upward
c. downward
d. in any direction

A

upward

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12
Q

Poor blood smears can be caused by

a. a delay in preparing the smear once the drop of blood has been placed on the slide

b. drop of blood that is too large or too small

c. holding the pusher slide at the wrong angle and poor drying conditions

d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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13
Q

Glycogen is a

a. protein
b. lipid
c. carbohydrate
d. hormone

A

carbohydrate

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14
Q

Phagocytosis is

a. a type of endocytosis

b. the engulfment of fluid molecules

c. the engulfment of particulate matter

d. Both A and C

A

Both A and C

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15
Q

The first inherited hematologic disorder to be diagnosed using molecular biologic assay was

a. hemophilia A
b. factor V Leiden
c. sickle cell anemia
d. CML

A

sickle cell anemia

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16
Q

The normal sequence of blood cell development is

a. yolk sac—red bone marrow—liver and spleen

b. yolk sac—thymus—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

c. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

d. liver and spleen—yolk sac—red bone marrow

A

yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

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17
Q

The maturational sequence(s) of the erythrocyte is (are)

a. rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte

b. prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte

c. pronormoblast—basophilic normoblast—polychromatophilic normoblast—orthochromic normoblast—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte

d. both A and C

A

both A and C

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18
Q

A 7-mL EDTA tube is received in the laboratory containing only 2 mL of blood. If the laboratory is using manual techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?

a. WBC count
b. Hemoglobin
c. Hematocrit
d. None of these

A

Hematocrit

Note:

Hematocrit is the percentage of red cells in your blood.

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19
Q

A decreased OFT would be associated with which of the following conditions?

a. sickle cell anemia

b. hereditary spherocytosis

c. haemolytic disease of the newborn

d. acquired hemolytic anemia

A

sickle cell anemia

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20
Q

What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on Wright’s-stained smear?

a. red cell would be stained too pink

b. white cell cytoplasm would be stained too blue

c. red cells would be stained blue

d. red cells would lyse on the slide

A

red cell would be stained too pink

Note:
Wright’s stain is a hematologic stain that facilitates the differentiation of blood cell types. It is classically a mixture of eosin (red) and methylene blue dyes. Buffer is phosphate (pH 6.8)

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21
Q

All of the following may influence the ESR, except:

a. blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube

b. anisocytosis, poikilocytosis

c. plasma proteins

d. calibre of the tube

A

blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube

22
Q

Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct for coagulation procedures?

a. 1:4
b. 1:5
c. 1:9
d. 1:10

A

1:9

23
Q

The following are compounds formed in the synthesis of heme:

  1. coproporphyrinogen
  2. uroporphyrinogen
  3. porphobilinogen
  4. protoporphyrinogen

Which of the following responses lists these compounds in the order in which they are formed?

a. 4,3,1,2
b. 2,3,1,4
c. 2,4,3,1
d. 2,1,3,4

A

2,3,1,4

24
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be seen in lead poisoning?

a. iron overload in tissue
b. codocytes
c. basophilic stippling
d. ringed sideroblasts

A

basophilic stippling

25
Q

Normal platelets have a circulating life span of approximately:

a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days

A

10 days

26
Q

Coagulation factors affected by coumarin drugs are:

a. VIII, IX , and X
b. I, II, V, and VII
c. II, VII, IX, and X
d. II, V, and VII

A

II, VII, IX, and X

Note:
Coumarin drugs (warfarin, dicumarol, phenprocoumon, acenocumarol), interfering with vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.

27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a contact factor?

a. Prekallikrein
b. Stable factor
c. HMWK
d. Hageman factor

A

Stable factor

28
Q

The most concentrated coagulation factor in the blood is:

a. XII
b. IX
c. X
d. Fibrinogen

A

Fibrinogen

29
Q

When making a blood film using the spreader slide technique, a thinner film can be obtained by:

a. Increasing the angle of the spreader slide

b. Using a larger drop of blood

c. Spreading the blood at lower speed

d. All of the above

A

Spreading the blood at lower speed

30
Q

The largest hematopoietic cells in normal bone marrow are:

a. Osteoblasts
b. Osteoclasts
c. Megakaryocytes
d. Plasma cells

A

Megakaryocytes

31
Q

Which of the following depicts the structure of the hemoglobin molecule?

a. Two heme groups, two globin chains

b. Four heme groups, two globin chains

c. Two heme groups, four globin chains

d. Four heme groups, four globin chains

A

Four heme groups, four globin chains

32
Q

Ecarin clotting time may be used to monitor:

a. Heparin therapy
b. Warfarin therapy
c. Fibrinolytic therapy
d. Hirudin therapy

A

Hirudin therapy

33
Q

What staining method is used most frequently to stain and manually count reticulocytes?

a. Immunofluorescence
b. Supravital staining
c. Romanowsky staining
d. Cytochemical staining

A

Supravital staining

34
Q

What is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?

a. Segmented neutrophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Monocyte
d. Eosinophil

A

Lymphocyte

35
Q

What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?

a. 5%–10%
b. 10%–20%
c. 20%–44%
d. 50%–70%

A

20%–44%

36
Q

Which of the following organs is responsible for the “pitting process” for RBCs?

a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Kidney
d. Lymph nodes

A

Spleen

37
Q

“Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with:

a. Rh null trait
b. Chronic granulomatous disease
c. G6PD deficiency
d. PK deficiency

A

G6PD deficiency

38
Q

Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?

a. Normocytic, normochromic
b. Microcytic, normochromic
c. Macrocytic, hypochromic
d. Macrocytic, normochromic

A

Macrocytic, normochromic

39
Q

Auer rods may be seen in all of the following except:

a. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4)

b. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

c. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation (M1)

d. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

40
Q

Which type of anemia is usually present in a patient with acute leukemia?

a. Microcytic, hyperchromic
b. Microcytic, hypochromic
c. Normocytic, normochromic
d. Macrocytic, normochromic

A

Normocytic, normochromic

41
Q

In which age group does acute lymphoblastic leukemia occur with the highest frequency?

a. 1–15 years
b. 20–35 years
c. 45–60 years
d. 60–75 years

A

1–15 years

42
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of Auer rods?

a. They are composed of azurophilic granules

b. They stain periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) positive

c. They are predominantly seen in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

d. They are nonspecific esterase positive

A

They are composed of azurophilic granules

43
Q

In myeloid cells, the stain that selectively identifies phospholipid in the membranes of both primary
and secondary granules is:

a. PAS

b. Myeloperoxidase

c. Sudan Black B stain

d. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

A

Sudan Black B stain

44
Q

The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?

a. At least 30%
b. At least 20%
c. At least 10%
d. Any percentage

A

At least 20%

45
Q

In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red blood cell morphology is that of:

a. Target cells
b. Schistocytes
c. Teardrop cells
d. Ovalocytes

A

Teardrop cells

46
Q

What is the average life span of a normal red blood cell?

a. 1 day
b. 10 days
c. 60 days
d. 120 days

A

120 days

47
Q

The major storage form of iron is

a. Ferritin
b. Transferrin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Hemachromatin

A

Ferritin

48
Q

Which of the following factors is not
associated with variations in the total white blood cell count?

a. Age
b. Exercise
c. Emotional stress
d. Sex

A

Sex

49
Q

What is the term for cell movement
through blood vessels to a tissue site?

a. Diapedesis
b. Opsonization
c. Margination
d. Chemotaxis

A

Diapedesis

Notes:
-Opsonization- A process by which a pathogen is marked for phagocytosis through coating of a target cell with antibodies.

-Margination- Movement of particles in flow toward the walls of a channel.

-Chemotaxis- Directed migration of a cell in response to a chemical stimulus

50
Q

Vasodilation and bronchoconstriction are
the result of degranulation by which of the following blood cells?

a. Eosinophils
b. Monocytes
c. Neutrophils
d. Basophils

A

Basophils

Review For Board Exam (10 decks)

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