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EMTOP 2 > HEMA > Flashcards

HEMA Flashcards

1
Q

Part of the vascular intima that is involve in clotting process by producing and storing clotting components

a. CT Matrix
b. Endothelium
c. Subendothelial Collagen
d. Subendothelial CT

A

b. Endothelium

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2
Q

Procoagulant property of a damaged vascular intima which binds vWF that binds and activates platelets

a. An exposed smooth muscle cells & fibroblast
b. An exposed subendothelial collagen
c. Damaged or activated endothelial cells that secretes vWF
d. Smooth muscles found in arterioles & arteries

A

b. An exposed subendothelial collagen

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3
Q

Properties of platelet wherein platelet binds to a non-platelet surface:

a. Adhesion
b. Aggregation
c. Secretion

A

a. Adhesion

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4
Q

The narrowing of the lumen of the blood vessels during primary hemostasis will:

a. Decrease the blood flow on the uninjured area of blood vessels
b. Increase the blood flow on the injured area of blood vessels
c. Release of circulating inhibitors in the plasma
d. Release of clotting properties of the endothelium

A

e. None

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5
Q

The conversion of membrane phospholipids to arachidonic acid during platelet secretion is the function of

a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Phospholipid A2
c. Thromboxane A2
d. Thromboxane Synthetase

A

e. None (phospholipase A2)

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6
Q

The conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin endoperoxidase during platelet secretion is the function of:

a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Phospholipid A2
c. Thromboxane A2
d. Thromboxane Synthetase

A

a. Cyclooxygenase

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7
Q

A form of hereditary vascular disorder that has a vascular defect wherein the blood vessels are thin-walled with a discontinuous endothelium, inadequate smooth muscle, and inadequate or missing elastin in the surrounding stroma:

a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome

A

d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome

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8
Q

A form of hereditary vascular disorder that has a vascular defect in collagen production, structure, or crosslinking, with resulting inadequacy of the connective issues:

a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome

A

a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

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9
Q

A form of hereditary vascular disorder which involves association of a giant cavernous hemangioma (vascular tumor), thrombocytopenia, and a bleeding diathesis:

a. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
b. Louis-Bar Syndrome
c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
d. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome

A

c. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome

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10
Q

The following are acquired defects of platelet adhesion, except:

a. Anli-platelet antibodies
b. Chronic Liver Disease
c. Scott Syndrome
d. All of These

A

c. Scott Syndrome

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11
Q

An autosomal recessive thrombocytopenias which involves mutations in the NBLEA2 Gene:

a. Congenital Amegakaryocytic Thrombocytopenia
b. Immune Thrombocytopenia
c. Gray Platelet Syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

A

c. Gray Platelet Syndrome

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12
Q

An even in the physiologic hemostasis wherein there is a gradual digestion and removal of the fibrin clot as healing of the injury occurs:

a. Coagulation
b. Fibrinolysis
c. Platelet Secretion
d. Vasoconstriction

A

b. Fibrinolysis

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13
Q

It is exposed from a disrupted subendothelial cells which activates the coagulation system through contact with plasma Factor VIl

a. Collagen
b. Tissue Factor
c. ТРА
d. Thrombomodulin

A

b. Tissue Factor

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14
Q

It binds to GP Ib/Ia receptors on adjacent platelets and joins them together in the presence of an ionized calcium.

a. Fibrillin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Fibronectin

A

b. Fibrinogen

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15
Q

The following coagulation factors are consumed during the process of coagulation except:

a. Antihemophilic Factor A
b. Fibrin Stabilizing Factor
c. Proaccelerin
d. Proconvertin

A

d. Proconvertin

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16
Q

The following are calcium and vitamin k independent coagulation factors, except:

a. Fitzgerald Factor
b. Fletcher Factor
c. PTA
d. PTC

A

d. PTC

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17
Q

The primary in vivo initiation mechanism for extrinsic coagulation cascade depends on the formation of

a. IXa: VIlla
b. TF.Via
c. TF:VIla
d. Xa:Va

A

c. TF:VIla

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18
Q

It is considered the marker of thrombosis and fibrinolysis:

a. Fragment D-E-D
b. Fragment E
c. Fragment X
d. Fragment Y

A

E. None (D-Dimer)

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19
Q

An intrinsic plasminogen activator secreled by the urinary tract epithelial cells, monocles and macrophages that convert plasminogen into its activated for:

a. PAl-1
b. TAFI
c. ТРА
d. UPA

A

d. UPA

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20
Q

It is considered the primary inhibitor of free plasmin:

a. A2-antiplasminogen
b. PAI-1
c. TAFI
d. TFPI

A

d. TFPI

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21
Q

The internal elastic lamina which primarily supports the endothelial cells are composed of

a. Collagen & Elastin
b. Collagen & Fibroblasts
c. Elastin & Proteases
d. Elastin & Zymogens

A

a. Collagen & Elastin

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22
Q

Bernard- soulier syndrome involves an abnormal platelet function due to this missing platelet membrane receptor:

a. GPIb/Ila Receptor
b. GPIb/Ila Receptor
c. GPIII Receptor
d. GPIla/lIb Receptor

A

e. NONE (GPIb/IX/V)

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23
Q

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia involves an abnormal platelet function due to this missing platelet membrane receptor:

a. GPIb/Ila Receptor
b. GPIb/Ila Receptor
c. GPIII Receptor
d. GPIla/lIb Receptor

A

e. NONE (GPIIb/IIIa)

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24
Q

The following are components of the platelet alpha-granules, except:

a. ATP
b. PDGF
c. Protein S
d. B-Thromboglobulin

A

a. ATP

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25
Q

FVI was removed & never reassigned as part of the blood clotting factors because:

a. It was determined to an activated form of contact factor
b. It was determined to be an activated form of proconvertin
c. It was determined to be an activated form of proaccelerin
d. It was determined to be an activated form of stable factor

A

c. It was determined to be an activated form of proaccelerin

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26
Q

Coagulation factors that are affected by coumadin (PIVKAS):

a. Prothrombin, Proaccelerin, PTA, Stuart Factor
b. Prothrombin, Proaccelerin, PTC, Stuart Factor
c. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTA, Stuart Factor
d. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTC, Stuart Factor

A

d. Prothrombin, Proconvertin, PTC, Stuart Factor

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27
Q

Initiation phase of the coagulation cascade will produce ________ of the total thrombin generated:

a. 2-3%
b. 3-5%
c. >95%
d. >99%

A

b. 3-5%

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28
Q

It is a cofactor to FVIla:

a. Contact Factor
b. Fletcher Factor
c. Labile Factor
d. Stable Factor

A

e. NONE (Tissue Factor)

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29
Q

TF:FVIla complex will activate low levels of:

a. Christmas & Stuart Factor
b. Labile & Stable Factor
c. Proconverlin & Proaccelerin
d. PTA & PTC

A

a. Christmas & Stuart Factor

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30
Q

These are activated by thrombin in the initiation phase bind to platelet membranes and become receptors for FX and FIXa:
a. Flla & FVa
b. FVa & FVIla
c. FVa & FVIlla
d. FXa & FVa

A

c. FVa & FVIlla

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31
Q

A rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a specific absence of morphologically recognizable alpha-granules in platelets.

a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
b. TAR Syndrome
c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

A

E. NONE (GPS)

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32
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder with a defective lysosomal function in variety of cells types with a tyrosine positive oculocutaneous albinism and a profound platelet dense granule deficiency.

a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
b. TAR Syndrome
c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

A

c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome

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33
Q

A rare autosomal recessive disorder that is accompanied by severe immunologic defects and progressive neurologic dysfunction in patients who survived to adulthood. A gene mutation in the long arm of Chromosome 1 is associated.

a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
b. TAR Syndrome
c. Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

A

a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

34
Q

This are released from a disrupted or damaged vessels which binds and activates platelets

a. Collagen
b. Prostacyclin
c. P-Selectin
d. vWF

A

d. vWF

35
Q

A disorder with a characteristic mutation in the NBLEA2 gene is an example of what type of thrombocytopenia (NBEAL2???)

a. Autosomal Dominant Thrombocytopenia
b. Autosomal Recessive Thrombocytopenia
c. Congenital Thrombocytopenia
d. Sex-Linked Thrombocytopenia

A

b. Autosomal Recessive Thrombocytopenia

36
Q

Which of the following blood coagulation factor is a cofactor?

a. Christmas Factor
b. Fletcher Factor
c. Labile Factor
d. Stable Factor

A

c. Labile Factor

37
Q

Which of the following will serve as the source of tissue factor

a. Fibroblasts
b. Subendothelial cells
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

38
Q

When a person has Vitamin K deficiency, the following coagulation factor will most likely be affected, except:

a. Christmas Factor
b. Hageman Factor
c. Stable Factor
d. Stuart Factor

A

b. Hageman Factor

39
Q

Classic form of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome is alternatively called

a. Eczema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency Syndrome
b. Eczema Thrombocytosis Immunodeficiency Syndrome
c. Emphysema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency
d. Emphysema Thrombocytosis Immunodeficiency Syndrome

A

a. Eczema Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficiency Syndrome

40
Q

Activation of the following coagulation factors in the intrinsic coagulation pathway

a. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
b. Hageman Factor, Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor C, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
c. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Component, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen
d. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Component, Anti-Hemophilic Factor C, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Stuart Factor
e. Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen

A

a. Hageman Factor, Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent, Anti-Hemophilic Factor B, Anti-Hemophilic Factor A, Stuart Factor, Labile Factor, Prothrombin, Fibrinogen

41
Q

Evaluated under low power field and is the largest cell in the bone marrow

a. Megakaryocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Histiocytes
d. Langerhan cells

A

a. Megakaryocytes

42
Q

The vertical and horizontal interactions of membrane proteins maintain the biconcave, discoid geometry of the RBC. describe the result of these forces

a. Prevents loss of membrane
b. Prevents membrane from fragmenting in response to too much stress
c. Both A&B

A

c. Both A&B

43
Q

This pre-analytical process is considered as the most important step in an analytical procedure

a. Test Ordering
b. Sample Preparation
c. Patient Identification
d. Computation of Results

A

c. Patient Identification

44
Q

Which of the following marrow types is hematopoietically active?

a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Red

45
Q

Where is the site of hematopoiesis during the myeloid phase

a. Yolk Sac
b. Liver
c. Bone Marrow
d. AandC

A

c. Bone Marrow

46
Q

A leukocyte with round nucleus, light blue cytoplasm with few or no granule, average % in blood is 34

a. Monocyte
b. Eosinophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophil

A

c. Lymphocyte

47
Q

Where is most hematopoietic tissue found in adults?

a. Lungs
b. Flat Bones
c. Spleen
d. Long Bones

A

d. Long Bones

48
Q

Hematopoietic development phase which occurs during the 5th month of fetal development?

a. Mesoblastic Phase
b. Hepatic Phase
c. Medullary Phase
d. Yolk Sac Phase

A

c. Medullary Phase

49
Q

The control center of the cell is the?

a. Nucleus
b. Cytoplasm
c. Membrane
d. Microtubular System

A

a. Nucleus

50
Q

After age 70 years, fatty metamorphosis increases approximately ____% per decade

a. 50
b. 10
c. 40
d. 30

A

b. 10

51
Q

When a stained blood smear is examined to determine the percentage of each type of leukocyte present and assess the erythrocyte and platelet morphology, this is a

a. Differential count
b. PBS count
c. Both
d. None

A

c. Both

52
Q

The bone resorbing cell is known as

a. Kupffer cells
b. Langerhans cells
c. Dendritic cells
d. Osteoclasts

A

d. Osteoclasts

53
Q

Which of the following is not considered a true cell because it is only a cytoplasmic remnant of a mother cell?

a. Thrombocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. AOTA

A

a. Thrombocytes

54
Q

The most common erythroid maturation stages in the bone marrow

a. Basophilic normoblast
b. Orthochromic normoblast
c. Polychromatic normoblast
d. AandB

A

c. Polychromatic normoblast

55
Q

Liquid portion of a non-anticoagulated blood

a. Plasma
b. Serum
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Serum

56
Q

What is the life span of basophils in the blood?

a. 7 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 60 hours
d. 48 hours
e. None of these

A

c. 60 hours

57
Q

Which of the following organs is responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes and regulation of their expression of CD4 and CD8

a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Lymph nodes
d. Liver

A

b. Thymus

58
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they:

a. Are unipotent
b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division
c. Are present in large numbers in the bone marrow niches
d. Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth factors
e. None of these

A

b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division

59
Q

These organs function at some point in hematopoiesis except:

a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Bone marrow
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

60
Q

These factors play a major role in the maintenance, proliferation, and differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells:

a. Cytokines
b. Growth factors
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

61
Q

These are organs which are located along the lymphatic capillaries that are parallel to, but not part of the circulatory system

a. Lymph nodes
b. Spleen
c. MALT
d. Thymus

A

a. Lymph nodes

62
Q

During the ____ phase of prenatal hematopoiesis, hematopoietic stem cells and mesenchymal cells migrate in to the core of the bone

a. Mesoblastic
b. Hepatic
c. Myeloid
d. None of these
e. All of these

A

c. Myeloid

63
Q

Which of the following cells are important in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths?

a. Neutrophils and Monocytes
b. T & B Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils and Basophils
d. Macrophages and Dendritic Cells

A

c. Eosinophils and Basophils

64
Q

When a coagulation of fresh whole blood is prevented through the use of an anticoagulant, the straw-colored fluid that can be separated from the cellular elements is:

a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Whole Blood
d. Platelets

A

E. None

65
Q

What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo?

a. Thrombocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Erythrocyte
d. Granulocyte

A

c. Erythrocyte

66
Q

This is a formation of clot inside the blood vessels

a. Hemostasis
b. Fibrinolysin
c. Coagulation
d. Thrombosis

A

d. Thrombosis

67
Q

Scientist that describes platelet as petite plaques

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Athanasius Kircher
c. James Homer
d. Giullio Bizzozer

A

d. Giullio Bizzozer

68
Q

In hematopoietic stem cell, multipotent is derived from _____, they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissue

a. Pluripotent
b. Totipotent
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Pluripotent

69
Q

During the mesoblastic stage, the types of hemoglobin formed are the following, EXCEPT:

a. Gower 1
b. Gower 2
c. Portland
d. Hemoglobin F

A

d. Hemoglobin F

70
Q

The extramedullary hematopoiesis is the work of _ that mediate the progenitor binding to stroma.

A. Proteoglycan
B. Glycosaminoglycans
C. Both
D. none

A

C. Both

71
Q

At which normoblastic stage does globin production begin?

A. Orthochromic normoblast
B. Pronormoblast
C. Polychromatic normoblast
D. Basophilic normoblast

A

B. Pronormoblast

72
Q

In the bone marrow , erythroid precursors are located

A. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands
B. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the ad____? Cell lining
C. Surrounding complement components
D. Storing iron from senescent red cell

A

A. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands

73
Q

Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by

A. Degrading antigen and presenting to lymphocytes
B. Ingesting and digesting organisms that neutrophils cannot
C. Synthesizing complement components
D. Storing iron from senescent red cell

A

A. Degrading antigen and presenting to lymphocytes

74
Q

The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indirected in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color is the

A. Band
B. Myelocyte
C. Promyelocyte
D. Metamyelocyte

A

D. Metamyelocyte

75
Q

The following is unique to both B and T lymphocytes and occurs during their early development

a. Expression of surface antigens CD4 and CD8
b. Maturation in the thymus
c. Synthesis of immunoglobulin
d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes

A

d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor

76
Q

The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis

A. MIC-I
B. FU-Meg
C. CFU -meg
D. LD-CFU-Meg

A

D. LD-CFU-Meg

77
Q

What plasma protein is essential for platelet adhesion

A. VWF
B. Factor VIII
C. Fibrinogen
D. P-selectin

A

A. VWF

78
Q

Microparticles

A. Are stored in platelets dense granules
B. Inhibit blood clotting
C. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong agonists
D. exhibit no biologic activity

A

C. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong agonists

79
Q

What platelet organelle sequesters ionic calcium binds a series of enzymes of the

A. Glycocalyx
B. Dense granules
C. dense/tubular system

A

C. dense/tubular system

80
Q

White clots

A. Occur primarily in the deep veins of the leg
B. Are characteristics of the secondary hemostatic process
C. Are largely composed of platelets and VWF
D. From normally in response to vascular injury and are completely

A

C. Are largely composed of platelets and VWF

EMTOP 2 (3 decks)

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