GI Fifth yr Flashcards

1
Q

Features of acute liver failure?

A

Jaundice
Coagulopathy
Hypoalbuminaemia
Hepatic encephalopathy
Renal failure (hepatorenal syndrome)

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2
Q

Management of variceal bleeding?

A

ABC

Correct clotting - FFP, vitamin K

Terlipressin and prophylactic ABx at presentation (before endoscopy)

Band ligation for oesophageal varices. Injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for gastric varices.

Sengstaken-Blakemore tube if uncontrolled haemorrhage

TIPS if not controlled with above measures

Prophylaxis - propranolol

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3
Q

LFTS for alcoholic liver disease

A

GGT elevated
AST:ALT normally >2, ratio >3 is suggestive of acute alcoholic hepatitis

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4
Q

Management of alcoholic hepatitis

A

Glucocorticosteroids during acute episodes (pt’s who will benefit determined by Maddrey’s discriminant function - using prothrombin time and bilirubin concentration)

Pentoxyphylline sometimes used

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5
Q

Causes of ascites with serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) <11g/L

A

Hypoalbuminaemia (nephrotic syndrome, severe malnutrition, e.g., Kwashiorkor)

Malignancy (peritoneal carcinomatosis)

Infections (tuberculous peritonitis)

Pancreatitis
Bowel obstruction
Biliary ascites
Postop lymphatic leak
Serositis in CTD

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6
Q

Causes of ascites with serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) >11g/L

A

Indicates portal hypertension

Liver disorders are most common cause (cirrhosis/alcoholic liver disease, acute liver failure, liver metastases)

Cardiac (right HF, constrictive pericarditis)

Budd-Chiari syndrome
Portal vein thrombosis
Veno-occlusive disease
Myxoedema

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7
Q

Management of ascites

A

Reduce dietary sodium

Fluid restriction if serum Na+ <125mmol/L

Aldosterone antagonists (+/- top diuretics)

Drainage if tense ascites - requires albumin cover to prevent paracentesis induced circulatory dysfunction

Offer prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin for people with cirrhosis and ascites with an ascitic protein of 15 g/litre or less, until the ascites has resolved

TIPS in some pt’s

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8
Q

Epidemiology of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Young females

Associations with other autoimmune disorders, hypergammaglobulinaemia, HLA B8, DR3

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9
Q

Three types of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Type 1 - ANA and anti-SMA, affects both adults and children

Type 2 - Anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1), Affects children only

Type 3 - Soluble liver-kidney antigen, Affects adults in middle-age

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10
Q

Investigations for autoimmune hepatitis

A

LFTs

ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels

liver biopsy: inflammation extending beyond limiting plate ‘piecemeal necrosis’, bridging necrosis

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11
Q

Management of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Steroids
Other immunosuppressants (e.g., azathioprine)
Liver transplantation

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12
Q

Causes of raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin

A

Overproduction - Haemolysis (autoimmune, Hb disordrers, RBC enzyme disorders, RBC membrane disorders, myeloproliferative neoplasms)
Reduced uptake (eg. drugs, port systemic shunt)
Hepatocyte dysfunction
Conjugation dysfunction - GGT deficiency (Gilberts, Crigler-Najjar syndrome)

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13
Q

Causes of raised levels of conjugated bilirubin

A

Predominantly elevated AST & ALT - viral hepatitis, AI hepatitis, toxin/drug related hepatitis, haemochromatosis, ischaemic hepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis

Normal AST, ALT and ALP - Defective excretion of bilirubin (Dubin-Johnson syndrome)

Predominantly elevated ALP - cholestasis of pregnancy, malignancy (pancreas), cholangiocarcinoma, PBC, PSC, choledocholithiasis

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14
Q

Summary of Budd-Chiari (causes, features, Ix)

A

Hepatic vein thrombosis - usually in haematological disease or procoagulant condition

Causes
polycythaemia rubra vera
thrombophilia: activated protein C resistance, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C & S deficiencies
pregnancy
combined oral contraceptive pill: accounts for around 20% of cases

The features are classically a triad of:
abdominal pain: sudden onset, severe
ascites → abdominal distension
tender hepatomegaly

Investigations
ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is very sensitive and should be the initial radiological investigation

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15
Q

Sx of gallstones?

A

colicky right upper quadrant pain

occurs postprandially

symptoms are usually worst following a fatty meal - when cholecystokinin levels are highest and gallbladder contraction is maximal.

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16
Q

Ix and Tx of gallstones?

A

abdominal ultrasound
LFTs
stones in bile duct - MRCP or intraoperative imaging

Tx - laparoscopic cholecystectomy

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17
Q

Features and Tx of acute cholecystitis?

A

Right upper quadrant pain
Pain may radiate to back or right shoulder
Fever
Murphys sign on examination
Occasionally mildly deranged LFT’s (especially if Mirizzi syndrome)

Imaging (USS) and cholecystectomy (ideally within 48 hours of presentation) (2)

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18
Q

Features and Tx of gallbladder abscess?

A

Usually prodromal illness and right upper quadrant pain
Swinging pyrexia
Patient may be systemically unwell
Generalised peritonism not present

Imaging with USS +/- CT Scanning
Ideally, surgery although subtotal cholecystectomy may be needed if Calot’s triangle is hostile
In unfit patients, percutaneous drainage may be considered

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19
Q

Features and Tx of gallbladder abscess?

A

Patient severely septic and unwell
Jaundice
Right upper quadrant pain

Fluid resuscitation
Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
Correct any coagulopathy
Early ERCP

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20
Q

Features and Tx of gallbladder abscess?

A

Patients may have a history of previous cholecystitis and known gallstones
Small bowel obstruction (may be intermittent)

Laparotomy and removal of the gallstone from small bowel, the enterotomy must be made proximal to the site of obstruction and not at the site of obstruction. The fistula between the gallbladder and duodenum should not be interfered with.

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21
Q

Features and Tx of acalculous cholecystitis?

A

Patients with intercurrent illness (e.g. diabetes, organ failure)
Patient of systemically unwell
Gallbladder inflammation in absence of stones
High fever

If patient fit then cholecystectomy, if unfit then percutaneous cholecystostomy

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22
Q

Features and Tx of Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

autosomal recessive* condition of defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase

prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.

Sx
unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (i.e. not in urine)
jaundice may only be seen during an intercurrent illness, exercise or fasting

Investigation: rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or IV nicotinic acid

No treatment required

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23
Q

What is haemochromatosis?

A

autosomal recessive disorder of iron absorption and metabolism resulting in iron accumulation. It is caused by inheritance of mutations in the HFE gene. prevalence in people of European descent = 1 in 200, making it more common than cystic fibrosis

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24
Q

Features of haemochromatosis?

A

early symptoms (non-specific) include fatigue, erectile dysfunction and arthralgia (often of the hands)

‘bronze’ skin pigmentation

diabetes mellitus

liver: stigmata of chronic liver disease, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, hepatocellular deposition)

cardiac failure (2nd to dilated cardiomyopathy)

hypogonadism (2nd to cirrhosis and pituitary dysfunction - hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism)

arthritis (especially of the hands)

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25
Q

Complications of haemochromatosis?

A

Reversible:
Cardiomyopathy
Skin pigmentation

Irreversible:
Liver cirrhosis
DM
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
Arthropathy

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26
Q

Ix for haemochromatosis?

A

general population:
transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, ferritin should also be measured but is not usually abnormal in the early stages of iron accumulation

testing family members:
genetic testing for HFE mutation

Iron study profile:
transferrin saturation > 55% in men or > 50% in women
raised ferritin (e.g. > 500 ug/l) and iron
low TIBC

LFTS

molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations

MRI is generally used to quantify liver and/or cardiac iron

liver biopsy is now generally only used if suspected hepatic cirrhosis

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27
Q

Management of haemochromatosis?

A

venesection is the first-line treatment:
monitoring adequacy of venesection: transferrin saturation should be kept below 50% and the serum ferritin concentration below 50 ug/l

desferrioxamine may be used second-line

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28
Q

Aetiology of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

excess absorption of ammonia and glutamine from bacterial breakdown of proteins in the gut

acute and chronic liver disease

TIPS may precipitate

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29
Q

Features of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

confusion, altered GCS

asterix: ‘liver flap’, arrhythmic negative myoclonus with a frequency of 3-5 Hz

constructional apraxia: inability to draw a 5-pointed star

triphasic slow waves on EEG

raised ammonia level (not commonly measured anymore)

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30
Q

Grading of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Grade I: Irritability
Grade II: Confusion, inappropriate behaviour
Grade III: Incoherent, restless
Grade IV: Coma

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31
Q

Precipitating factors for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

infection e.g. spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

GI bleed

post transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

constipation

drugs: sedatives, diuretics

hypokalaemia

renal failure

increased dietary protein (uncommon)

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32
Q

Management of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

treat any underlying precipitating cause

NICE recommend lactulose first-line, with the addition of rifaximin for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy

lactulose is thought to work by promoting the excretion of ammonia and increasing the metabolism of ammonia by gut bacteria

antibiotics such as rifaximin are thought to modulate the gut flora resulting in decreased ammonia production

other options include embolisation of portosystemic shunts and liver transplantation in selected patients

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33
Q

Summary of hepatitis B serology?

A

surface antigen (HBsAg) - causes the production of anti-HBs
Anti-HBs implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation). It is negative in chronic disease

HBsAg normally implies acute disease (present for 1-6 months)
if HBsAg is present for > 6 months then this implies chronic disease (i.e. Infective)

Anti-HBc implies previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months. IgG anti-HBc persists

HbeAg results from breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells as is, therefore, a marker of infectivity. Marker of HBV replication and infectivity

Example results:
previous immunisation: anti-HBs positive, all others negative
previous hepatitis B (> 6 months ago), not a carrier: anti-HBc positive, HBsAg negative
previous hepatitis B, now a carrier: anti-HBc positive, HBsAg positive

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34
Q

Features of viral hepatitis?

A

nausea and vomiting, anorexia
myalgia
lethargy
right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain

RFs - recent travel, IVDU

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34
Q

Features of viral hepatitis?

A

nausea and vomiting, anorexia
myalgia
lethargy
right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain

RFs - recent travel, IVDU

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35
Q

Features of cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Persistent biliary colic symptoms, associated with anorexia, jaundice and weight loss.

A palpable mass in the right upper quadrant (Courvoisier sign), periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen

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36
Q

Features of acute pancreatitis?

A

Usually due to alcohol or gallstones

Severe epigastric pain
Vomiting is common

Examination may reveal tenderness, ileus and low-grade fever

Periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) is described but rare

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37
Q

Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

iver cirrhosis, for example secondary to hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis and primary biliary cirrhosis.

Chronic hepatitis B is the most common cause of HCC worldwide with chronic hepatitis C being the most common cause in Europe.

Other risk factors include:
alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
hereditary tyrosinosis
glycogen storage disease
aflatoxin
drugs: oral contraceptive pill, anabolic steroids
porphyria cutanea tarda
male sex
diabetes mellitus, metabolic syndrome

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38
Q

Features of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

tends to present late

features of liver cirrhosis or failure may be seen: jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, splenomegaly

possible presentation is decompensation in a patient with chronic liver disease

raised AFP

Screening with ultrasound (+/- alpha-fetoprotein) should be considered for high risk groups such as:
- patients liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis
- men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol

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39
Q

Management of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

early disease: surgical resection

liver transplantation

radiofrequency ablation

transarterial chemoembolisation

sorafenib: a multikinase inhibitor

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40
Q

Causes of hepatomegaly?

A

Cirrhosis: if early disease, later liver decreases in size. Associated with a non-tender, firm liver

Malignancy: metastatic spread or primary hepatoma. Associated with a hard, irregular. liver edge

Right heart failure: firm, smooth, tender liver edge. May be pulsatile

Other causes:
viral hepatitis
glandular fever
malaria
abscess: pyogenic, amoebic
hydatid disease
haematological malignancies
haemochromatosis
primary biliary cirrhosis
sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

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41
Q

Pathophysiology of hepatorenal syndrome?

A

vasoactive mediators cause splanchnic vasodilation

in turn reduces the systemic vascular resistance

results in ‘underfilling’ of the kidneys.

This is sensed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus which then activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, causing renal vasoconstriction which is not enough to counterbalance the effects of the splanchnic vasodilation.

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42
Q

Types of hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Type 1
Rapidly progressive
Doubling of serum creatinine to > 221 µmol/L or a halving of the creatinine clearance to less than 20 ml/min over a period of less than 2 weeks
Very poor prognosis

Type 2
Slowly progressive
Prognosis poor, but patients may live for longer

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43
Q

Management of hepatorenal syndrome?

A

vasopressin analogues, for example terlipressin - work by causing vasoconstriction of the splanchnic circulation

volume expansion with 20% albumin

transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

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44
Q

Inherited causes of jaundice?

A

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia:
Gilbert’s syndrome - AR, mild deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Crigler-Najjar syndrome - AR, type 1 = absolute deficiency of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase, do not survive to adulthood, type 2 = less severe, may improve with phenobarbital

Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia:
Dubin-Johnson syndrome - AR, mutation in the canalicular multidrug resistance protein 2 (MRP2) results in defective hepatic excretion of bilirubin, results in a grossly black liver
Rotor syndrome - autosomal recessive, defect in the hepatic uptake and storage of bilirubin

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45
Q

Summary of ischaemic hepatitis?

A

diffuse hepatic injury resulting from acute hypoperfusion (sometimes known as ‘shock liver’)

diagnosed in the presence of an inciting event (e.g. a cardiac arrest) and marked increases in aminotransferase levels (exceeding 1000 international unit/L or 50 times the upper limit of normal).

Often occurs in conjunction with acute kidney injury (tubular necrosis) or other end-organ dysfunction.

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46
Q

Diagnosis of liver cirrhosis

A

traditionally a liver biopsy was used - however associated with adverse effects such as bleeding and pain

other techniques such as transient elastography ‘Fibroscan’ and acoustic radiation force impulse imaging are increasingly used

for patients with NAFLD, NICE recommend using the enhanced liver fibrosis score to screen for patients who need further testing

Further investigations
NICE recommend doing an upper endoscopy to check for varices in patient’s with a new diagnosis of cirrhosis

liver ultrasound every 6 months (+/- alpha-feto protein) to check for hepatocellular cancer

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47
Q

Screening for liver cirrhosis?

A

Offer transient elastography to:
people with hepatitis C virus infection

men who drink over 50 units of alcohol per week and women who drink over 35 units of alcohol per week and have done so for several months

people diagnosed with alcohol-related liver disease

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48
Q

Summary of NAFLD

A

describes a spectrum of disease ranging from:
steatosis - fat in the liver
steatohepatitis - fat with inflammation, non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
progressive disease may cause fibrosis and liver cirrhosis

hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome and hence insulin resistance is thought to be the key mechanism leading to steatosis.

thought to affect around 3-4% of the general population.

Associated factors
obesity
type 2 diabetes mellitus
hyperlipidaemia
jejunoileal bypass
sudden weight loss/starvation

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49
Q

Features of NAFLD

A

usually asymptomatic

hepatomegaly

ALT is typically greater than AST

increased echogenicity on ultrasound

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50
Q

Investigations for NAFLD

A

no evidence to support screening

based on incidental finding of NAFLD

NICE recommends the use of the enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test to check for advanced fibrosis

FIB4 score or NALFD fibrosis score

FibroScan

advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist. They will then likely have a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately

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51
Q

Management of NAFLD

A

lifestyle changes (particularly weight loss) and monitoring

?gastric banding and insulin-sensitising drugs (e.g. metformin, pioglitazone)

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52
Q

Summary of pancreatic cancer?

A

Often diagnosed late due to non-specific presentations

80% of pancreatic tumours are adenocarcinomas which typically occur at the head of the pancreas.

Associations:
increasing age
smoking
diabetes
chronic pancreatitis (alcohol does not appear an independent risk factor though)
hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
multiple endocrine neoplasia
BRCA2 gene
KRAS gene mutation

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53
Q

Features of pancreatic cancer?

A

classically painless jaundice
pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus

cholestatic liver function tests

Courvoisier’s law states that in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice, a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones

however, patients typically present in a non-specific way with anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain

loss of exocrine function (e.g. steatorrhoea)

loss of endocrine function (e.g. diabetes mellitus)

atypical back pain is often seen
migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) is more common than with other cancers

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54
Q

Ix for pancreatic cancer?

A

USS

high-resolution CT scan - ‘double duct’ sign - the presence of simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts

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55
Q

Management of pancreatic cancer?

A

less than 20% are suitable for surgery at diagnosis

a Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is performed for resectable lesions in the head of pancreas. Side-effects of a Whipple’s include dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease

adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery

ERCP with stenting is often used for palliation

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56
Q

Summary of primary biliary cholangitis?

A

typically seen in middle-aged females (female:male ratio of 9:1)

autoimmune condition

Interlobular bile ducts become damaged by a chronic inflammatory process causing progressive cholestasis which may eventually progress to cirrhosis

“itching in middle-aged woman”

Associations: Sjogrens, RA, systemic sclerosis, thyroid disease

Complications:
cirrhosis > portal HTN > ascites, vatical haemorrhage
osteomalacia, osteoporosis
^ risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

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57
Q

Features of PBC

A

early: may be asymptomatic (e.g. raised ALP on routine LFTs) or fatigue, pruritus

cholestatic jaundice

hyperpigmentation, especially over pressure points

around 10% of patients have right upper quadrant pain

xanthelasmas, xanthomata

also: clubbing, hepatosplenomegaly

late: may progress to liver failure

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58
Q

Diagnosis of PBC

A

immunology:
anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype are present in 98% of patients and are highly specific
smooth muscle antibodies in 30% of patients
raised serum IgM

imaging:
required before diagnosis to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction (typically a right upper quadrant ultrasound or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)

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59
Q

Management of PBC

A

first-line: ursodeoxycholic acid
(slows disease progression and improves symptoms)

pruritus: cholestyramine

fat-soluble vitamin supplementation

liver transplantation
e.g. if bilirubin > 100 (PBC is a major indication)
recurrence in graft can occur but is not usually a problem

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60
Q

Summary of primary sclerosis cholangitis?

A

biliary disease of unknown aetiology characterised by inflammation and fibrosis of intra and extra-hepatic bile ducts

Associations
ulcerative colitis: 4% of patients with UC have PSC, 80% of patients with PSC have UC
Crohn’s (much less common association than UC)
HIV

Complications
cholangiocarcinoma (in 10%)
increased risk of colorectal cancer

61
Q

Features of PSC

A

cholestasis
jaundice, pruritus
raised bilirubin + ALP
right upper quadrant pain
fatigue

62
Q

Ix of PSC

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) are the standard diagnostic investigations - showing multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance

p-ANCA may be positive

there is a limited role for liver biopsy, which may show fibrous, obliterative cholangitis often described as ‘onion skin’

63
Q

Most common organisms in pyogenic liver abscess?

A

A liver abscess can develop from several different sources, including a blood infection, an abdominal infection, or an abdominal injury which has been become infected.

Staphylococcus aureus in children

Escherichia coli in adults.

64
Q

Management of pyogenic liver abscess?

A

drainage (typically percutaneous) and antibiotics

amoxicillin + ciprofloxacin + metronidazole

if penicillin allergic: ciprofloxacin + clindamycin

65
Q

Scoring systems for liver cirrhosis?

A

Previously Child-Pugh classification (bilirubin, albumin, PT, encephalopathy, ascites)

Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) has been increasingly used, particularly patient’s who are on a liver transplant waiting list (bilirubin, creatinine, INR)

66
Q

Summary of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

form of peritonitis usually seen in patients with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis

Sx = ascites, abdominal pain, fever

Dx = paracentesis: neutrophil count > 250 cells/ul
the most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli

Tx = IV cefotaxime

ABx prophylaxis to those with ascites if: patients who have had an episode of SBP
patients with fluid protein <15 g/l and either Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome

67
Q

Summary of Wilson’s disease?

A

AR

Excess copper deposition in tissues

increased copper absorption from the small intestine and decreased hepatic copper excretion.

defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13.

onset of symptoms is usually between 10 - 25 years. Children usually present with liver disease whereas the first sign of disease in young adults is often neurological disease

68
Q

Features of Wilsons disease?

A

liver: hepatitis, cirrhosis

neurological:
basal ganglia degeneration: in the brain, most copper is deposited in the basal ganglia, particularly in the putamen and globus pallidus
speech, behavioural and psychiatric problems are often the first manifestations
also: asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism

Kayser-Fleischer rings
green-brown rings in the periphery of the iris
due to copper accumulation in Descemet membrane
present in around 50% of patients with isolated hepatic Wilson’s disease and 90% who have neurological involvement

renal tubular acidosis (esp. Fanconi syndrome)

haemolysis

blue nails

69
Q

Ix and Tx of Wilsons disease?

A

Ix:
slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings

reduced serum caeruloplasmin

reduced total serum copper (counter-intuitive, but 95% of plasma copper is carried by ceruloplasmin)
free (non-ceruloplasmin-bound) serum copper is increased

increased 24hr urinary copper excretion

the diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene

Tx:
penicillamine (chelates copper) has been the traditional first-line treatment
trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent which may become first-line treatment in the future

70
Q

What is coeliac disease? including S+S

A

autoimmune condition caused by sensitivity to the protein gluten. Repeated exposure leads to villous atrophy which in turn causes malabsorption.

S+S:
Chronic or intermittent diarrhoea
Failure to thrive or faltering growth (in children)
Persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms including nausea and vomiting
Prolonged fatigue (‘tired all the time’)
Recurrent abdominal pain, cramping or distension
Sudden or unexpected weight loss
Unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia, or other unspecified anaemia
Rarely neuro Sx - peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar ataxia, epilepsy

71
Q

Conditions associated with coeliac disease?

A

Autoimmune thyroid disease
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Irritable bowel syndrome
Type 1 diabetes
First-degree relatives (parents, siblings or children) with coeliac disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
PBC/PSC
strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8

72
Q

Complications of coeliac disease?

A

anaemia: iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency (folate deficiency is more common than vitamin B12 deficiency in coeliac disease)

hyposplenism

osteoporosis, osteomalacia

lactose intolerance

enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of small intestine

subfertility, unfavourable pregnancy outcomes
rare: oesophageal cancer, other malignancies

73
Q

Investigations of coeliac disease?

A

reintroduce gluten for at least 6 weeks prior to testing

Serology:
TTG antibodies (IgA)
endomyseal antibody (IgA) - need to look for selective IgA deficiency, which would give a false negative coeliac result
anti-DGPs

Endoscopic intestinal biopsy:
‘gold standard’ for diagnosis
typically duodenum
Findings: villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes

74
Q

Management of coeliac disease?

A

gluten-free diet (bread, pasta, pastry, beer, rye, oat, rice, potatoes, corn)

immunisation - degree of functional hyposplenism, so offered pneumococcal vaccination and booster every 5 years

75
Q

Risk factors for gastric cancer?

A

Helicobacer pylori
triggers inflammation of the mucosa → atrophy and intestinal metaplasia

atrophic gastritis

diet
salt and salt-preserved foods
nitrates

smoking

blood group

male predominance (2:1)

Older people (half of patients are >75)

76
Q

Features of gastric cancer?

A

abdominal pain
typically vague, epigastric pain
may present as dyspepsia

weight loss and anorexia

nausea and vomiting

dysphagia: particularly if the cancer arises in the proximal stomach

overt upper gastrointestinal bleeding is seen only in a minority of patients

if lymphatic spread:
left supraclavicular lymph node (Virchow’s node)
periumbilical nodule (Sister Mary Joseph’s node)

77
Q

Ix and management of gastric cancer?

A

diagnosis: oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy
signet ring cells may be seen in gastric cancer. They contain a large vacuole of mucin which displaces the nucleus to one side. Higher numbers of signet ring cells are associated with a worse prognosis

staging: CT

surgical options depend on the extent and side but include:
endoscopic mucosal resection
partial gastrectomy
total gastrectomy

chemotherapy

78
Q

What is diverticular disease?

A

diverticular disease - symptomatic
diverticulosis - presence of multiple outpouchings of bowel wall

herniation of colonic mucosa through the muscular wall of the colon. The usual site is between the taenia coli where vessels pierce the muscle to supply the mucosa

Sx - altered bowel habit, rectal bleeding, abdo pain

RF - ^ age, low fibre diet

79
Q

Complications of diverticular disease?

A

Diverticulitis
Haemorrhage
Development of fistula
Perforation and faecal peritonitis
Perforation and development of abscess
Development of diverticular phlegmon

80
Q

Diagnosis and management of diverticular disease?

A

colonoscopy, CT cologram or barium enema

Hinchey classification - I-IV (para-colonic abscess to faecal peritonitis)

Tx:
increase dietary fibre
mild diverticulitis - ABx
peri colonic abscess - drained
recurrent episodes requiring hospitalisation - surgical resection
Hinchey Iv - resection and stoma

81
Q

Sx of diverticulitis?

A

left iliac fossa pain and tenderness
anorexia, nausea and vomiting
diarrhoea
features of infection (pyrexia, raised WBC and CRP)

82
Q

Management of diverticulitis?

A

mild attacks can be treated with oral antibiotics

more significant episodes are managed in hospital. Patients are made nil by mouth, intravenous fluids and intravenous antibiotics (typical a cephalosporin + metronidazole) are given

83
Q

Complications of diverticulitis?

A

abscess formation
peritonitis
obstruction
perforation

84
Q

Summary of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

Triad of:
dysphagia (secondary to oesophageal webs)
glossitis
iron-deficiency anaemia

Treatment includes iron supplementation and dilation of the webs

85
Q

Summary of Mallory-Weiss syndrome?

A

Severe vomiting → painful mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction resulting in haematemesis. Common in alcoholics

86
Q

Summary of Boerhaave syndrome?

A

Severe vomiting → oesophageal rupture

87
Q

Types of oesophageal cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma
Lower third - near the gastroesophageal junction
RFs: GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, obesity

Squamous cell cancer:
Upper two-thirds of the oesophagus
RF: smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, diets rich in nitrosamines

88
Q

Features of oesophageal cancer?

A

dysphagia: the most common presenting symptom

anorexia and weight loss

vomiting

other possible features include: odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, cough

89
Q

Dx and Tx of oesophageal cancer?

A

UGI endoscopy with biopsy

Endoscopic US for loco regional staging
CTAP - initial staging

Tx:
Surgical resection - risk of anastomosis resulting in mediastinitis
Adjuvant chemotherapy

90
Q

What is Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

metaplasia of the lower oesophageal mucosa, with the usual squamous epithelium being replaced by columnar epithelium - goblet cells, brush border

^ risk of adenocarcinoma

short (<3cm) and long (>3cm)

91
Q

RF for Barrett’s?

A

gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is the single strongest risk factor
male gender (7:1 ratio)
smoking
central obesity

92
Q

Management of Barrett’s?

A

high-dose proton pump inhibitor
whilst this is commonly used in patients with Barrett’s the evidence base that this reduces the change of progression to dysplasia or induces regression of the lesion is limited

endoscopic surveillance with biopsies
for patients with metaplasia (but not dysplasia) endoscopy is recommended every 3-5 years

if dysplasia of any grade is identified endoscopic intervention is offered. Options include:
radiofrequency ablation: preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia
endoscopic mucosal resection

93
Q

Ix for GORD?

A

if red flags:
age > 55 years
symptoms > 4 weeks or persistent symptoms despite treatment
dysphagia
relapsing symptoms
weight loss
upper abdo pain
low Hb
raised platelet

94
Q

What is GORD?

A

where acid from the stomach refluxes through the lower oesophageal sphincter and irritates the lining of the oesophagus.

squamous epithelial lining making it more sensitive to the effects of stomach acid

Sx: heartburn. acid regurgitation, retrosternal or epigastric pain, bloating, nocturnal cough, hoarse voice

95
Q

Management of GORD?

A

Lifestyle advice - reduce tea, coffee, alcohol, WL, avoid smoking, smaller lighter meals, avoid heavy meals before bed, stay upright after meals

Acid neutralising meds - gaviscon, Rennie

PPIs - omeprazole, lansoprazole

Ranitidine - H2 receptor antagonist

Surgery - laparoscopic fundoplication

96
Q

How to test for H. Pylori?

A

Gram -ve aerobic bacteria. Causes damage to the epithelial lining of the stomach resulting in gastritis, ulcers and increasing the risk of stomach cancer

Off PPIs 2 weeks before

Urea breath test using radiolabelled carbon 13
Stool antigen test
Rapid urease test can be performed during endoscopy.

97
Q

H. Pylori eradication therapy?

A

involves triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (e.g. omeprazole) plus 2 antibiotics (e.g. amoxicillin and clarithromycin) for 7 days.

The urea breath test can be used as a test of eradication after treatment. This is not routinely necessary.

98
Q

What is achalasia?

A

Failure of oesophageal peristalsis and of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus i.e. LOS contracted, oesophagus above dilated

middle-aged pt
M=F

99
Q

Features of achalasia?

A

dysphagia of BOTH liquids and solids
typically variation in severity of symptoms
heartburn
regurgitation of food
may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia etc
malignant change in small number of patients

100
Q

Ix and Tx of achalasia?

A

Ix:
oesophageal manometry
excessive LOS tone which doesn’t relax on swallowing
considered the most important diagnostic test

barium swallow
shows grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level
‘bird’s beak’ appearance

chest x-ray
wide mediastinum
fluid level

Tx:
pneumatic (balloon) dilation is increasingly the preferred first-line option
surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms
intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is sometimes used in patients who are a high surgical risk
drug therapy (e.g. nitrates, calcium channel blockers) has a role but is limited by side-effects

101
Q

Causes of dysphagia?

A

Oesophageal cancer
Oesophagitis
Oesophageal candidiasis
Achalasia
Pharyngeal pouch
Systemic sclerosis
Myasthenia gravis
Globus hystericus

Can separate into extrinsic, oesophageal wall, intrinsic and neurological

101
Q

Causes of dysphagia?

A

Oesophageal cancer
Oesophagitis
Oesophageal candidiasis
Achalasia
Pharyngeal pouch
Systemic sclerosis
Myasthenia gravis
Globus hystericus

Can separate into extrinsic, oesophageal wall, intrinsic and neurological

102
Q

3 main conditions of ischaemia to the GIT?

A

acute mesenteric ischaemia

chronic mesenteric ischaemia

ischaemic colitis

103
Q

Common features in bowel ischaemia?

A

Common predisposing factors = increasing age, AF, other causes of emboli (endocarditis, malignancy), CVD RF’s (smoking, HTN, DM), cocaine

Common features - abdo pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhoea, fever, bloods (elevated WBC and lactic acidosis)

CT investigation of choice

104
Q

Summary of acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

typically caused by an embolism resulting in occlusion of an artery which supplies the small bowel, for example the superior mesenteric artery

Classically - Hx of AF

Features - severe, sudden onset and out of keeping with physical exam findings

Tx - urgent surgery (laparotomy) required, poor prognosis, especially if surgery delayed

105
Q

Summary of chronic mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Rare clinical diagnosis due to non-specific features

‘Intestinal angina’

Colicky, intermittent abdominal pain

106
Q

Summary of ischaemic colitis?

A

describes an acute but transient compromise in the blood flow to the large bowel

may lead to inflammation, ulceration and haemorrhage

occurs in ‘watershed areas’ like splenic flexure, that are at the border of territory (superior and inferior mesenteric arteries)

Ix - thumb printing seen on abdominal x-ray due to mucosal oedema/haemorrhage

Tx - supportive, surgery if conservative measures fail - if generalised peritonitis, perforation or ongoing haemorrhage

107
Q

Summary of carcinoid tumour?

A

rare, slow-growing neuroendocrine tumors arising from the enterochromaffin cells disseminated throughout the gastrointestinal and bronchopulmonary systems

usually occurs when mets are present in the liver and release serotonin into systemic circulation. may also occur with lung carcinoid

Sx - flushing, diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, right heart valvular stenosis (left heart can be affected in bronchial carcinoid), paraneoplastic (ACTH and GHRH), pellagra as tryptophan diverted to serotonin by tumour

Ix - urinary 5-HIAA, plasma chromogranin A y

Tx - somatostatin analogues (octreotide), diarrhoea (cyproheptadine can help)

108
Q

Pathophysiology of appendicitis?

A

inflammation of the appendix.

peak age 10-20

appendix is a small, thin tube arising from the caecum. It is located at the point where the three teniae coli meet

Pathogens can get trapped due to obstruction at the point where the appendix meets the bowel - leading to infection and inflammation - can lead to gangrene and rupture

When the appendix ruptures, faecal contents and infective material are released into the peritoneal cavity. This leads to peritonitis, which is inflammation of the peritoneal lining.

109
Q

Features of appendicitis?

A

This typically starts as central abdominal pain that moves down to the right iliac fossa (RIF) within the first 24 hours, eventually becoming localised in the RIF.

On palpation of the abdomen, there is tenderness at McBurney’s point. McBurney’s point refers to a specific area one third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the umbilicus.

Loss of appetite - anorexia

N+V

Low-grade fever

Rovsing’s sing (palpation of LIF causes pain in RIF)

psoas sign: pain on extending hip if retrocaecal appendix

Guarding on abdominal palpation

Rebound tenderness in RIF

Percussion tenderness

110
Q

Ix for appendicitis?

A

Clinical presentation and raised inflammatory markers

neutrophil-predominant leucocytosis is seen in 80-90%

CT - to confirm
USS - esp in women to rule out gynae pathology + in children

Observation can be used also - repeated investigations

Clinical presentation but Ix -ve - diagnostic laparoscopy

111
Q

Tx of appendicitis?

A

suspected appendicitis need emergency admission to hospital under the surgical team.

Appendicectomy - ideally laparoscopic

administration of prophylactic intravenous antibiotics reduces wound infection rates

Complications - Bleeding, infection, pain and scars
Damage to bowel, bladder or other organs
Removal of a normal appendix
Anaesthetic risks
Venous thromboembolism (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism)

112
Q

DDx for appendicitis?

A

Ectopic

Ovarian cysts

Meckels diverticulum

Mesenteric adenitis

Appendix mass - occurs when the omentum surrounds and sticks to the inflamed appendix, forming a mass in the right iliac fossa. This is typically managed conservatively with supportive treatment and antibiotics, followed by appendicectomy once the acute condition has resolved.

113
Q

Micro and macro pathological hallmarks of UC?

A

Macro:
inflammation extends proximally from rectum - defined as proctitis, left-sided colitis, pan-colitis
- mucosa reddened, inflamed and bleeds easily
- extensive ulceration

Micro:
- superficial inflammation of mucosa
- chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria
- crypt abcesses
- goblet cell depletion

114
Q

How to classify severely acute colitis?

A

Truelove and Witts criteria

more than 6 bloody stools per day (often nocturnal) and one of:
temp >37.8 on 2/4 days
Hb <10.5
ESR >30
Pulse >90
Colon dilated >5.5

115
Q

Extra intestinal manifestations of UC?

A

Mouth ulcers
Erythema nodosum
Uveitis/episcleritis
Arthropathy
Pyoderma granulosum
Primary sclerosis cholangitis

116
Q

Complications of ulcerative colitis?

A

Acute - toxic megacolon

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Colorectal carcinoma (colonoscopy at 10 years)

Pouchitis after colectomy (w/ relapsing remitting course)

Osteoporosis from steroid therapy

117
Q

Why check TPMT levels in ulcerative colitis?

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) is involved in the metabolism of thiopurines (metcaptopurine and azathioprine)

To avoid fatal administration to patient with no or low TPMT levels

118
Q

Features of Crohn’s?

A

Diarrhoea - bloody and/or chronic
Abdominal pain
WL
Malaise, anorexia, fever
Poor growth or delayed puberty in kids
Mouth ulcers
Abdominal tenderness, distension, palpable masses
Anal/perianal skin tags, fissures, fistulas

119
Q

Extra-intestinal manifestations of Crohn’s?

A

Arthritis

Conjunctivitis/uveitis/episcleritis

Erythema nodosum

Pyoderma granulosum

Clubbing

120
Q

Macro and microscopic features of Crohn’s disease?

A

Macro
Distribution - 20% colonic, 30% ileocaecal, 40% small bowel

Bowel thickened and narrowed

Deep fissures and ulcers in mucosa - cobblestone

Fistulae, abacuses and strictures

Skip lesions

Mouth ulcers and ana;/peri-anal disease

Micro:
Transmural inflammation
Increase in chronic inflammatory cells
Granulomata - not caveating

121
Q

Complications of Crohn’s disease?

A

Toxic megacolon and perforation

Stricturing and bowel obstruction

Fistulae

Small bowel cancer

Iron, folate, B12 deficiencies

Osteoporosis from steroid therapy

Short-bowel syndrome and malabsorption

122
Q

Oesophageal causes of acute UGIB?

A

Varices

Oesophagitis

Cancer

Mallory Weiss tear

123
Q

Summary of oesophageal varices?

A

Varices - usually large volume of fresh blood. Swallowed blood may cause melena. Often associated with haemodynamic compromise. May stop spontaneously but re-bleeds are common.

124
Q

Summary of mallory weiss tear?

A

brisk small to moderate volume of bright red blood following a bout of repeated vomiting. Melena rare. Usually ceases spontaneously

125
Q

Summary of oesophagitis?

A

Small volume of fresh blood, often streaking vomit. Malena rare. Often ceases spontaneously.

Usually history of antecedent GORD type symptoms.

126
Q

Gastric causes of acute UGIB?

A

Gastric ulcer

Gastric cancer

Dieulafoy lesion

Diffuse erosive gastritis

127
Q

Summary of gastric ulcer?

A

Small low volume bleeds > iron deficiency anaemia

Torsion into significant vessel - considerable haemorrhage and haemateemsis

128
Q

Summary of gastric cancer?

A

Frank haemateemsis or altered blood mixed with vomit

Usually prodromal features of: dyspepsia, constitutional Sx

Erosion of major vessel - considerable haemorrhage

129
Q

Summary of dieulafoy lesion?

A

Usually no prodromal features prior to haematemesis and melena - AV malformation may produce quite a considerable haemorrhage

May be difficult to detect endoscopically

130
Q

Summary of diffuse erosive gastritis?

A

Causes haemateemsis and epigastric discomfort.
Usually underlying cause - recent NSAID usage
Large volume haemorrhage may occur with considerable haemodynamic compromise

131
Q

Duodenal cause of UGIB?

A

Duodenal ulcer

Aorto-enteric fistula - previous AAA surgery

132
Q

Summary of duodenal ulcer?

A

posteriorly sited, may erode gastroduodenal artery

Pain hours after eating

133
Q

Management of acute UGIB?

A

Glasgow-Blatchford score - first assessment - outpatient or not? 0 - early discharge

Resuscitation - A-E, IV access, platelet transfusion if needed, FFP if fibrinogen low, PCC if taking warfarin

Endoscopy - after resuscitation - have within 24 hours

No PPIs before endoscopy if non-variceal bleed

Variceal bleed - terlipressin and ABx given at presentation, band ligation, injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate, TIPS

Rockall - after endoscopy - % risk of rebreeding and mortality

134
Q

RFs for peptic ulcer disease?

A

Helicobacter pylori

Drugs - NSAIDs, SSRIs, corticosteroids, bisphosphonates

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - excessive levels of gastrin (usually from gastrin secreting tumour)

135
Q

Features of peptic ulcer disease?

A

Epigastric pain

Nausea

Duodenal - more common than gastric, epigastric pain when hungry, relieved by eating

Gastric ulcers - epigastric pain worsened by eating

136
Q

Ix for peptic ulcer disease?

A

H. Pylori - urea breast test or stool antigen

137
Q

Tx of peptic ulcer disease?

A

if Helicobacter pylori is negative then proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should be given until the ulcer is healed

if Helicobacter pylori is positive then eradication therapy should be given:

a proton pump inhibitor + amoxicillin + (clarithromycin OR metronidazole)
if penicillin-allergic: a proton pump inhibitor + metronidazole + clarithromycin

138
Q

Ix of colorectal cancer?

A

FBC - iron deficiency anaemia

Colonoscopy - flexible sigmoidoscopy if significant bleeding

If unfit - CT angio

FIT

CEA

Staging CT AP

139
Q

RFs for colorectal cancer?

A

FHx - FAP, HNPCC (Lynch)

IBD

Increasing age

Diet - red + processed meat, low fibre

Obesity

Sedentary lifestyle

Smoking

Alcohol

140
Q

How to classify colorectal cancer?

A

Duke’s classification (A-D) now replaced by TNM

141
Q

When to refer (2ww) for colorectal cancer?

A

> 40yrs - unexplained WL + abdo pain

> 50yrs - unexplained rectal bleeding

> 60 - IDA or change in bowel habit

Occult blood in faeces

Urgent - rectal/abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass/ulceration

Pt >50 with rectal bleeding and: abdo pain, or change in bowel habit, or WL or IDA

142
Q

Management of colorectal cancer?

A

MDT - surgeons, oncologists, radiologists, histopathologists, specialist nurses

Surgical resection, chemo, radio, palliative care

Palliative adjuncts - stents, surgical bypass, diversion stomas

Resections tailored around lymphatic drainage - oleo-colic pedicle for R sided tumours

143
Q

Similarities in UC and Crohns?

A

Diarrhoea
Arthritis
Erythema Nodosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum

144
Q

Mnemonic for Crohns?

A

SISTER

Skip lesion
Ileum (MC affected)
Strictures
Transmural
Extra fibrosis and fistula formation
Radiological signs - Kantors string sign, rectum spared

145
Q

Mnemonic for UC?

A

ULCCCERS

Ulcers
Large intestine
Continuous
Colorectal Ca
Crypt abscesses
Extends proximally
Red diarrhoea
Sclerosing cholangitis

146
Q

Management of Crohns?

A

General - stop smoking

Inducing remission - 1 - glucocorticosteroids (budesonide), 2 - 5-ASA drugs (mesalazine), azathioprine/mercaptopurine as add-on.
Infliximab in refractory disease + fistulating Crohns
Metronidazole for isolated peri-anal disease

Maintaing remission - 1 - azathioprine/mercaptopurine, 2 - methotrexate

Surgery - stricturing terminal ileum = ileocaecal resection, stricturoplasty
- perianal fistulae - MRI, metronidazole, anti-TNF agents (infliximab), draining seton
- perianal abscess - incision + drainage, ABx therapy, draining seton

147
Q

Complications of Crohns?

A

Fistulae/abscess

Small bowel cancer

Colorectal cancer

Osteoporosis

148
Q

Management of UC?

A

Inducing remission:
proctitis/proctosigmoiditis + left sided UC - topical ASA, then oral ASA, oral steroid/topical steroid
Severe - 1- IV steroids, 2 - ciclosporin

Maintaining remission:
- proctitis - topical ASA, or oral and topical ASA
- left-sided + extensive - low maintenance dose of oral ASA
- severe relapse or >2 exacerbation in 1 yr - oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine

149
Q

Triggers for UC flares?

A

Stress
Medications (NSAIDs, ABx)
Smoking cessation